-
Question 1
Correct
-
A 25-year-old female presents to a gynaecologist with a complaint of abnormal vaginal bleeding, usually postcoital. On pelvic examination, the cervix of was found to be of an unusually bright red colour and its texture was rougher than normal. Which of the following will you choose as the next step in the management of this condition?
Your Answer: Cervical smear (2nd line)
Explanation:Before considering invasive procedures, a cervical smear must first be performed. Antibiotics can only be given when inflammation has been confirmed and culture results have identified the organism causing the inflammation. Endometrial ablation, colposcopy and vaginal US are all invasive procedures that are not relevant in the immediate management of this patient.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
-
-
Question 2
Correct
-
During normal pregnancy, the renal glomerular filtrate rate (GFR) can increase as much as:
Your Answer: 50%
Explanation:Pregnancy involves remarkable orchestration of physiologic changes. The kidneys are central players in the evolving hormonal milieu of pregnancy, responding and contributing to the changes in the environment for the pregnant woman and foetus. The functional impact of pregnancy on kidney physiology is widespread, involving practically all aspects of kidney function. The glomerular filtration rate increases 50% with subsequent decrease in serum creatinine, urea, and uric acid values.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
-
-
Question 3
Incorrect
-
A 24 year old woman presents to the clinic with foul smelling vaginal discharge. Which facultative anaerobic bacteria is most likely to be the cause?
Your Answer: Treponema pallidum
Correct Answer: Gardnerella vaginalis
Explanation:Bacterial vaginosis is a common infection of the vagina caused by the overgrowth of atypical bacteria, most commonly Gardnerella vaginalis, a gram indeterminate bacteria, which is also a facultative anaerobe. Patients often complain of foul-smelling fishy discharge and dysuria. In diagnosing BV, a swab is taken for microscopy, often revealing clue cells. Of the other organisms listed in the options, Neisseria is an obligate anaerobe, while Chlamydia trachomatis is an obligate intracellular aerobe. Treponema Pallidum is an aerophilic bacteria and Mycoplasma hominis is a pleomorphic parasitic bacterium.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
-
-
Question 4
Correct
-
A 47 year old women has a transvaginal ultrasound that shows a partially echogenic mass with posterior sound attenuation owing to sebaceous material and hair within the cyst cavity. What is the likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Mature teratoma
Explanation:These are the most common ovarian tumours in young women. The most common form is the mature dermoid cyst (cystic teratoma). It can consist of a combination of all the type of tissues (mesenchymal, stromal and epithelial). Any mature tissue type can be present such as muscle, cartilage, bone, teeth and often hair. Treatment is cystectomy.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Data Interpretation
-
-
Question 5
Correct
-
A 23-year-old woman, G1PO comes to your clinic at 12 week of pregnancy. She is complaining of mild vaginal bleeding for the past 12 hours, along with bouts of mild cramping lower abdominal pain.
On vaginal examination, the cervical os is closed with mild discharge containing blood clots and an ultrasonography confirms the presence of a live fetus with normal heart rate.
Which among of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Threatened abortion
Explanation:Uterine bleeding in the presence of a closed cervix along with sonographic visualization of an intrauterine pregnancy with detectable fetal cardiac activity are diagnostic of threatened abortion.
Abortion does not always follow a uterine bleeding in early pregnancy, sometimes not even after repeated episodes or large amounts of bleeding, that is why the term “threatened” is used in this case. In about 90 to 96% cases, the pregnancy continues after vaginal bleeding if occured in the presence of a closed os and a detectable fetal heart rate. Also as the gestational age advances its less likely the condition will end in miscarriage.
In cases of inevitable abortion, there will be dilatation of cervix along with progressive uterine bleeding and painful uterine contractions. The gestational tissue can be either felt or seen through the cervical os and the passage of this tissue occurs within a short time.
In case were the membranes have ruptured, partly expelling the products of conception with a significant amounts of placental tissue left in the uterus is called as incomplete abortion. During the late first and early second trimesters this will be the most common presentation of an abortion. Examination findings of this includes an open cervical os with gestational tissues observed in the cervix and a uterine size smaller than expected for gestational age and a partially contracted uterus. The amount of bleeding will vary but can be severe enough to cause hypovolemic shock, with painful contractions and an ultrasound revealing tissues in the uterus.
An in utero death of the embryo or fetus prior to 20 weeks of gestation is called as a missed abortion. In this case the women may notice that the symptoms associated with early pregnancy like nausea, breast tenderness, etc have disappeared and they don’t ‘feel pregnant’ anymore. Vaginal bleeding may occur but the cervix remains closed and the ultrasound done reveals an intrauterine gestational sac with or without an embryonic/fetal pole, but no embryonic/fetal cardiac activity will be noticed.
In case of complete abortion, miscarriage occurs before the 12th week and the entire contents of conception will be expelled out of uterus. If this case, the physical examination will show a small and well contracted uterus with an open or closed cervix. There is scant vaginal bleeding with only mild cramping and ultrasound will reveal an empty uterus without any extra-uterine pregnancy.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
-
-
Question 6
Correct
-
A 26-year-old woman had a history of dilation and curettage for septic abortion. Currently, she has developed amenorrhea for 6 months already. It was also noted that she smokes 10 cigarettes and drinks 2 standard alcoholic drinks every day. She was tested for beta-hCG but it was not detectable.
Which of the following is considered the most appropriate next step to establish a diagnosis?Your Answer: Transvaginal ultrasound
Explanation:Asherman syndrome (intrauterine adhesions or intrauterine synechiae) occurs when scar tissue forms inside the uterus and/or the cervix. These adhesions occur after surgery of the uterus or after a dilatation and curettage.
Patients with Asherman syndrome may have light or absent menstrual periods (amenorrhea). Some have normal periods based on the surface area of the cavity that is affected. Others have no periods but have severe dysmenorrhea (pain with menstruation).
Although two-dimensional sonography may suggest adhesive disease, Asherman syndrome is more often evaluated initially with saline sonography or hysterosalpingography to demonstrate the adhesions.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
-
-
Question 7
Correct
-
A Bicornuate uterus is due to which of the following?
Your Answer: Abnormal fusion and reabsorption of the paramesonephric ducts
Explanation:A Bicornuate uterus (heart shaped) is the result of abnormal fusion and reabsorption of the paramesonephric ducts during embryogenesis. Mullerian agenesis typically results in failure to form a uterus. Mullerian duct fusion abnormalities can cause a bicornuate malformation. PKD-1 gene abnormalities are associated with PCOS. Crossed fused ectopia result in Horseshoe kidney.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Embryology
-
-
Question 8
Correct
-
Question 9
Incorrect
-
A 30 year old female with a history of two first trimester miscarriages presented at 9 weeks of gestation with per vaginal bleeding. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?
Your Answer: Trans-vaginal sonography (TVS)
Correct Answer: Aspirin
Explanation:Antiphospholipid syndrome is the most important treatable cause of recurrent miscarriage. The mechanisms by which antiphospholipid antibodies cause pregnancy morbidity include inhibition of trophoblastic function and differentiation, activation of complement pathways at the maternal–fetal interface, resulting in a local inflammatory response and, in later pregnancy, thrombosis of the uteroplacental vasculature. This patient should be offered referral to a specialist clinic as she has had recurrent miscarriages. Low dose aspirin is one of the treatment options to prevent further miscarriage for patients with antiphospholipid syndrome.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
-
-
Question 10
Incorrect
-
Jenny, a 23-year-old woman who is at 14 weeks gestation, presented to the medical clinic because she developed a rash characteristic of chickenpox after 2 days of low-grade fever and mild malaise. Serological test was performed and revealed positive anti-varicella lgM.
Which of the following is considered to be the most appropriate course of action for the patient?Your Answer: Varicella zoster immunoglobulin
Correct Answer: Antiviral therapy and pelvic ultrasound
Explanation:Chickenpox or varicella is a contagious disease caused by the varicella-zoster virus (VZV). The virus is responsible for chickenpox (usually primary infection in non-immune hosts) and herpes zoster or shingles (following reactivation of latent infection). Chickenpox results in a skin rash that forms small, itchy blisters, which scabs over. It typically starts on the chest, back, and face then spreads. It is accompanied by fever, fatigue, pharyngitis, and headaches which usually last five to seven days. Complications include pneumonia, brain inflammation, and bacterial skin infections. The disease is more severe in adults than in children.
Primary varicella infection during pregnancy can also affect the foetus, who may present later with chickenpox. In pregnant women, antibodies produced as a result of immunization or previous infection are transferred via the placenta to the foetus. Varicella infection in pregnant women could spread via the placenta and infect the foetus. If infection occurs during the first 28 weeks of pregnancy, congenital varicella syndrome may develop. Effects on the foetus can include underdeveloped toes and fingers, structural eye damage, neurological disorder, and anal and bladder malformation.
Prenatal diagnosis of fetal varicella can be performed using ultrasound, though a delay of 5 weeks following primary maternal infection is advised.
Antivirals are typically indicated in adults, including pregnant women because this group is more prone to complications.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
-
-
Question 11
Correct
-
A couple comes to your clinic because they haven't been able to conceive despite having had frequent sexual activity in the previous 12 months. The female partner is 35 years old and has regular menstrual cycles. The male partner is 38 years old and otherwise normal.
Which of the following studies would you do next to forecast ovulation?Your Answer: Serum progesterone
Explanation:This patient has a regular and long menstrual period. The most crucial thing in this case is to rule out anovulation.
Serum progesterone concentration is the best test for detecting ovulation.
Ovulation has occurred if the level is greater than 20nmol/L.
This test should be performed 3 to 10 days prior to the start of the next anticipated period. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
-
-
Question 12
Correct
-
A 24 year old lady is rushed to the emergency department complaining of vaginal spotting and abdominal cramping. Her 6 week pregnancy was confirmed by ultrasound scan last week. On speculum examination, the cervical os is open with blood noted around it.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Inevitable Miscarriage
Explanation:A miscarriage is defined as the spontaneous loss of a pregnancy before the age of viability at 24 weeks in the UK. An inevitable miscarriage occurs with the usual symptoms of a miscarriage such as menstrual-like cramping, vaginal bleeding and a dilated cervix. The gestational sac has ruptured but products of conception have not been passed. The products of conception will eventually pass.
A missed miscarriage is described as a loss of pregnancy without vaginal bleeding, loss of tissue, cervical changes or abdominal pain. During a scan, a fetal heartbeat is not observed, and the gestational sac may be small.
A threatened miscarriage is when the cervix dilates and uterine bleeding is seen; the pregnancy could still be viable.
A complete miscarriage occurs when all the products of conception are expelled from the uterus, bleeding has stopped, and the cervix has closed up after dilation. Recurrent miscarriages are described as spontaneous pregnancy loss of more than 2 to 3 consecutive times.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
-
-
Question 13
Correct
-
Which of the following is the most accurate estimate of mature breast milk composition?
Your Answer: Fat 4%, Protein 1%, Sugar 7%
Explanation:Breast milk contains around 4% fat, 7% sugar and 1% proteins. The rest is water and minerals.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
-
-
Question 14
Correct
-
Question 15
Correct
-
The risk of postpartum uterine atony is associated with:
Your Answer: Twin pregnancy
Explanation:Multiple studies have identified several risk factors for uterine atony such as polyhydramnios, fetal macrosomia, twin pregnancies, use of uterine inhibitors, history of uterine atony, multiparity, or prolonged labour.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
-
-
Question 16
Correct
-
Which of the following is the most common cause of abnormal vaginal discharge in patients of childbearing age?
Your Answer: Bacterial vaginosis
Explanation:Bacterial Vaginosis is a common condition which results in a foul smelling discharge from the vagina without any inflammation. It is the most common cause of abnormal PV discharge. Most of the women are asymptomatic carriers.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
-
-
Question 17
Correct
-
A 65-year-old woman comes to your office for routine well-woman exam. Her last menstrual period was 15 years ago. She has not been on oestrogen replacement therapy and now desires to start due to concerns about osteoporosis. On routine pelvic exam, you palpate a small uterus and cervix along with palpable ovaries bilaterally. Of the following, your next step in the management of this patient should be:
Your Answer: Pelvic ultrasound
Explanation:In a postmenopausal woman, the ovaries should not be palpable; if they are, it should raise the concern that an ovarian malignancy is present. Before one would perform an operative evaluation, radiologic assessment should be done.
– Although this is an accepted regimen for oestrogen replacement therapy, the palpable ovaries need to be evaluated to rule out malignancy.
– Dual photon densitometry will give a reliable measure of bone density. Again, however, the palpable ovary is the first thing that needs to be worked up.
– Although surgical exploration may be warranted, initial workup of the adnexal mass should include an ultrasound along with tumour markers. A CT scan may also be warranted. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
-
-
Question 18
Correct
-
A 34-year-old woman presents with pelvic pain and complains of dysmenorrhea and menorrhagia. She has been using an IUCD for one year now and wants to know the cause of her current condition. What is the most likely cause?
Your Answer: PID
Explanation:IUCD is a risk factor for PID and PID has the clinical picture already described. However, fibroids should also be excluded since they may present in the same way.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
-
-
Question 19
Correct
-
The rectus sheath is formed by which of the following?
Your Answer: aponeuroses of transversus abdominis, external and internal oblique
Explanation:The rectus sheath is formed by the decussation and interweaving of the aponeuroses of the fl at abdominal muscles. The external oblique aponeurosis contributes to the anterior wall of the sheath throughout its length. The superior two thirds of the internal oblique aponeurosis splits into two layers (laminae) at the lateral border of the rectus abdominis; one lamina passing anterior to the muscle and the other passing posterior to it. The anterior lamina joins the aponeurosis of the external oblique to form the anterior layer of the rectus sheath. The posterior lamina joins the aponeurosis of the transversus abdominis to form the posterior layer of the rectus sheath.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
-
-
Question 20
Correct
-
Question 21
Correct
-
Consider you are looking after a male baby in neonatal unit. Case chart shows that his mother has been abusing intravenous drugs until late this pregnancy.
You will not discharge this baby home after delivery in all of the following conditions except?Your Answer: Weight loss greater than two percent of birth weight
Explanation:If a mother has been abusing drugs during antenatal period, there are some contraindications to discharge her baby home. These conditions includes:
– excessive weight loss, which is greater than ten percent of birth weigh
– suspected baby neglect or abuse
– suspected domestic violence
– a court order preventing baby from being discharged home or if there is requirement for further assessment of withdrawal symptoms.A 2-3 percentages weight loss during the early neonatal period is considered to be a normal finding and is therefore not considered as a contraindication to discharge the baby home.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
-
-
Question 22
Correct
-
Regarding the ECG, what does the P wave represent?
Your Answer: Atrial depolarisation
Explanation:In an ECG the P wave represents atrial depolarization. The QRS complex represents the ventricular depolarization, T waves represent ventricular repolarization and the U wave represents repolarization of the interventricular septum.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Biophysics
-
-
Question 23
Incorrect
-
A 67 year old patient with endometrial carcinoma is to undergo staging investigations. There is evidence of invasion into the vaginal wall, but the lymph nodes are spared, and there is no distant metastasis. According to FIGO, what stage is this?
Your Answer: 2
Correct Answer: 3B
Explanation:Endometrial cancer is one of the most common gynaecological malignancies present in postmenopausal women, with a peak incidence between the ages of 60-89. Factors associated with endometrial cancer include obesity, hypertension and diabetes. Full staging for endometrial cancer is surgical, including several other radiologic investigations. According to FIGO staging classifications:
Stage 1 indicates a tumour confined to the uterine body
Stage 2 indicates the invasion of the cervical stroma
Stage 3 indicates local and regional spread, where the tumour invades the serosa in stage 3A, spreads to the vagina and parametrium in stage 3B, and metastasizes to the pelvic or para-aortic lymph nodes in stage 3C.
Stage 4 indicates tumour invasion on the bladder or bowel mucosa, or distant metastasis. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
-
-
Question 24
Incorrect
-
Which of the following nerves passes through the inguinal canal?
Your Answer: Pudendal nerves
Correct Answer: Ilioinguinal nerve
Explanation:The contents of the inguinal canal is the ilioinguinal nerves, the round ligament of uterus in the females and the spermatic cord with its contents in males.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
-
-
Question 25
Correct
-
Regarding cardiac output in pregnancy which of the following statements is TRUE?
Your Answer: Cardiac output increases by approximately 40-50% during pregnancy
Explanation:In a non pregnant adult female the cardiac output is 4.5L/min, by the 20 week of pregnancy the cardiac output increases by 40% to 6.3L/min. During early stages of labour it increases further still by 17% to 7.3L/min.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
-
-
Question 26
Correct
-
Human papilloma virus (HPV) infection is associated with which of the following onco-proteins?
Your Answer: E6 and E7
Explanation:There are over 100 genotypes of HPV including several other high risk HPV types. HPV 16 and 18 are responsible for 70% of cases of HPV related cancers. HPV is thought to induce cancer via onco-proteins. The primary onco-proteins are E6 and E7 which inactivate two tumour suppressor proteins, p53 (inactivated by E6) and pRb (inactivated by E7)
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
-
-
Question 27
Correct
-
Which of the following drugs is most appropriate to use to stimulate lactation?
Your Answer: Domperidone
Explanation:Domperidone and metoclopramide are D2 dopamine receptor antagonists. They are primarily used to promote gastric motility. They are also known as galactagogues and they promote the production of milk. Cabergoline and bromocriptine are prolactin inhibitors and they reduce milk production.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
-
-
Question 28
Correct
-
A 26-year-old female G2P1 is in labour at the 38th week of gestation. Her membranes ruptured about 8 hours ago. At the moment, she is having contractions lasting 60 seconds every 4 minutes and is 8 cm dilated. The fetal heart tone baseline is currently 80/min with absent variability. The pregnancy was uneventful and she had regular prenatal check-ups.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?Your Answer: Maternal position change and oxygen
Explanation:This patient is towards the end of the first stage of labour and is having complications. Labour is divided into 3 stages. The first stage begins at regular uterine contractions and ends with complete cervical dilatation at 10 cm. It has a latent phase and an active phase- The active phase is usually considered to have begun when cervical dilatation reaches 4 cm. So this patient is in the active phase of the first stag- The second stage begins with complete cervical dilatation and ends with the delivery of the foetus. The third stage of labour is the period between the delivery of the foetus and the delivery of the placenta and fetal membranes.
This patient’s contractions seem adequate and yet the fetal heart tone with baseline 80/min and absent variability suggests fetal distress. This is category III of the fetal heart rate pattern because the baseline rate is < 110/min with absent variability. It is usually predictive of abnormal acid-base status. The recommended actions are maternal position change and oxygen administration, discontinuation of labour stimulus such as oxytocin, treatment of possible underlying conditions, and expedited delivery.
→ Magnesium sulphate infusion is mainly used to prevent eclamptic seizures and despite no evidence of its effectiveness as a tocolytic agent, it is used sometimes to reduce risks of preterm birth.
→ Fetal scalp pH monitoring would help determine if there is indeed an acidosis and should be done before deciding whether a Caesarean section is necessary, but maternal position change and oxygen administration should be done first.
→ Ultrasonography may be used for preinduction cervical length measurement or if the active stage has already started- It is considered more accurate than digital pelvic exam in the assessment of fetal descent; however, at this point maternal position change and oxygen administration should be done first.
→ Immediate Caesarean section would be done if fetal scalp pH monitoring revealed a pH < 7.20. At this point, the best next step is maternal position change and oxygen administration. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
-
-
Question 29
Correct
-
Which of the following terms best describes the pelvic type of small posterior sagittal diameter, convergent sidewalls, prominent ischial spines, and narrow pubic arch?
Your Answer: Android
Explanation:There are four types pelvic shapes:
1) Android pelvis: it has a larger inlet and smaller outlet along with small posterior sagittal diameter, prominent ischial spines and has a two finger arch.
2) Gynecoid pelvis: it has a transverse or nearly a circular ellipse and it is the most favourable for delivery.
3) Anthropoid pelvis: the brim is an anteroposterior ellipse.
4) Platypelloid pelvis: in this type the pelvic brim is kidney shape -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
-
-
Question 30
Correct
-
An HIV positive woman who is 18 weeks pregnant complains of frothy yellow vaginal discharge and vaginal soreness. A wet mount and microscopy confirms a Trichomonas vaginalis infection. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment regime?
Your Answer: Metronidazole 500mg BD 7 days
Explanation:Trichomoniasis is considered a sexually transmitted infection found both in men and women caused by the flagellate protozoan Trichomonas vaginalis. The organism is mainly found in the vagina and the urethra. Though many infected women can be asymptomatic, they can also present with yellow frothy vaginal discharge, itching and vaginitis, dysuria or an offensive odour. For the diagnosis of t. vaginalis in women, a swab is taken from the posterior fornix during speculum examination and the flagellates are detected under light-field microscopy. The recommended treatment for t. vaginalis for a HIV positive woman who is pregnant is 500mg of metronidazole twice daily for 7 days. High dose metronidazole as a 2g single dose tablet is not advised during pregnancy. All sexual partners should also be treated, and screening for other STIs should be carried out.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
-
00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00
:
00
:
00
Session Time
00
:
00
Average Question Time (
Secs)