00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Secs)
  • Question 1 - A nerve is injured during a surgical operation to repair an inguinal hernia....

    Correct

    • A nerve is injured during a surgical operation to repair an inguinal hernia. It passes through the superficial inguinal ring. Which nerve is it most likely to be?

      Your Answer: Ilioinguinal

      Explanation:

      The ilioinguinal nerve doesn’t pass through the deep inguinal ring but enters the inguinal canal from the side and leaves by passing through the superficial ring thus it is at risk of injury during inguinal hernia repair.

      The femoral branch of genitofemoral nerve travels lateral to the superficial inguinal ring.

      The iliohypogastric nerve and the subcostal nerve travel superior to the inguinal canal and superficial inguinal ring.

      The obturator nerve is a branch of the lumbar plexus that innervates the muscles of the thigh.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      6.7
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - After severe injury of the upper limb following an accident. The humerus is...

    Incorrect

    • After severe injury of the upper limb following an accident. The humerus is injured as well as the nerve which innervates the muscles of the anterior compartment of the arm. Which nerve is injured?

      Your Answer: Axillary

      Correct Answer: Musculocutaneous

      Explanation:

      The musculoskeletal nerve supplies the muscles of the anterior compartment of the arm including the coracobrachialis, biceps brachii and the greater part of the brachialis. This nerve derives its fibres from the fifth, sixth and seventh cervical nerves and arises from the lateral cord of the brachial plexus. It also provides a branch to the elbow joint.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      11.6
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 72 year old man suffered a MI. What is the approximate time...

    Incorrect

    • A 72 year old man suffered a MI. What is the approximate time needed by the scar tissue of the MI to recover and attain full strength?

      Your Answer: 4 weeks

      Correct Answer: Several months

      Explanation:

      A week following a MI attack, a little collagen starts to form and deposit. By the end of the 2nd week, neovascularisation of the scar occurs, with some collagen being laid down in a haphazard fashion. By this time the scar attains some strength. During the next 6 months, collagen is constantly being laid down and is rearranged in order to shrink the scar. Most of the blood vessels by this time have regenerated, decreasing vascularity of the scar reaching full maturity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Injury & Wound Healing; Cardiovascular
      • Pathology
      9
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A week after a renal transplant the patient received antilymphocyte globulins. Shortly after...

    Incorrect

    • A week after a renal transplant the patient received antilymphocyte globulins. Shortly after she developed fever and hypotension. Which of the following mechanisms is involved in this response?

      Your Answer: Type I hypersensitivity

      Correct Answer: Type III hypersensitivity

      Explanation:

      Type III hypersensitivity is characterized by soluble immune complexes which are aggregations of IgG and IgM antibodies with antigens that deposit in different tissues e.g. the skin, joints, kidneys. They can then trigger an immune response by activating the complement cascade. This reaction can take hours to develop and examples include: immuno-complex glomerulonephritis, rheumatoid arthritis, SLE, subacute bacterial endocarditis, arthus reaction and serum sickness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Inflammation & Immunology
      • Pathology
      6.3
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A patient is admitted to the ICU, and is prescribed tazobactam, amongst other...

    Incorrect

    • A patient is admitted to the ICU, and is prescribed tazobactam, amongst other drugs. What is the mechanism of action of tazobactam?

      Your Answer: Inhibits calcineurin

      Correct Answer: Inhibits beta-lactamase

      Explanation:

      Tazobactam is a compound which inhibits the action of bacterial beta-lactamases. It is added to the extended-spectrum beta-lactam antibiotic piperacillin to broaden the spectrum of piperacillin by making it effective against organisms that express beta-lactamase and would normally degrade piperacillin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Pharmacology
      14.2
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 13-year-old girl has complained of pain in her left arm for 4...

    Correct

    • A 13-year-old girl has complained of pain in her left arm for 4 months. An X-ray reveals a mass along with erosion of the affected humerus. Histologically, the tumour is found to be formed by small, round, blue cells. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Ewing’s sarcoma

      Explanation:

      Ewing’s sarcoma is formed by small, round, blue cells, and is common in children. The usually develop in limbs, and clinical findings include pain and inflammation, with lytic destruction showing up on X-rays.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      • Pathology
      15
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - The gradual depolarization in-between action potentials in pacemaker tissue is a result of?...

    Incorrect

    • The gradual depolarization in-between action potentials in pacemaker tissue is a result of?

      Your Answer: A gradual change in the ratio of extracellular to intracellular ion concentration across the cell membrane

      Correct Answer: A combination of gradual inactivation outward IK along with the presence of an inward ‘funny’ current (If) due to opening of channels permeable to both Na+ and K+ ions

      Explanation:

      One of the characteristic features of the pacemaker cell is the generation of a gradual diastolic depolarization also called the pacemaker potential. In phase 0, the upstroke of the action potential caused by an increase in the Ca2+ conductance, an influx of calcium occurs and a positive membrane potential is generated. The next is phase 3 which is repolarization caused by increased K+ conductance as a result of outwards K+ current. Phase 4 is a slow depolarization which accounts for the pacemaker activity, caused by increased conductance of Na+, inwards Na+ current called IF. it is turned on by repolarization.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      11.7
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 45 year old lady has been diagnosed with Friedreich's ataxia that has...

    Correct

    • A 45 year old lady has been diagnosed with Friedreich's ataxia that has affected her medial group of nuclei in the anterior horn of the spinal cord. Which of the following structures will have their muscles affected?

      Your Answer: Axial muscles

      Explanation:

      The cells in the anterior horn can be arranged in the following three main groups: medial, lateral and central. The medial group of nuclei in the anterior horn of the spinal cord are located along the entire length of the spinal cord and are responsible for the innervation of the axial muscles of the body ( muscles of the head and neck region). Thus this disease will most likely affect the functioning of the muscles of the head and neck.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Neurology
      15.6
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - When a patient is standing erect, pleural fluid would tend to accumulate in...

    Correct

    • When a patient is standing erect, pleural fluid would tend to accumulate in which part of the pleural space?

      Your Answer: Costodiaphragmatic recess

      Explanation:

      The costo-diaphragmatic recess is the lowest extent of the pleural cavity or sac. Any fluid in the pleura will by gravity accumulate here when a patient is standing erect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      6.1
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Which of the following chemotherapy regimens is most likely to be used in...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following chemotherapy regimens is most likely to be used in colorectal cancer?

      Your Answer: ABVD

      Correct Answer: FOLFOX

      Explanation:

      Chemotherapy regimens are often identified by acronyms, identifying the agents used in the drug combination. However, the letters used are not consistent across regimens. FOLFOX is a chemotherapy regimen used for the treatment of colorectal cancer, made up of the following drugs: • FOL: fluorouracil (5-fluorouracil or 5-FU) • F: folinic acid (leucovorin) • OX: oxaliplatin (Eloxatin®).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Pharmacology
      6.3
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Abdomen (1/1) 100%
Anatomy (3/4) 75%
Upper Limb (0/1) 0%
Cell Injury & Wound Healing; Cardiovascular (0/1) 0%
Pathology (1/5) 20%
Inflammation & Immunology (0/1) 0%
Pharmacology (0/2) 0%
Orthopaedics (1/1) 100%
General (0/1) 0%
Physiology (0/1) 0%
Neurology (1/1) 100%
Thorax (1/1) 100%
Passmed