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  • Question 1 - Which of the following side effects is most likely caused by erythromycin: ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following side effects is most likely caused by erythromycin:

      Your Answer: Tendon rupture

      Correct Answer: QT - prolongation

      Explanation:

      The side effects of erythromycin include abdominal pain, anaphylaxis,
      cholestatic hepatitis, confusion,
      diarrhoea, dyspepsia, fever, flatulence, hallucinations, hearing loss,
      headache, hypertrophic pyloric stenosis, hypotension, Interstitial
      nephritis, mild allergic reactions, nausea, nervous system effects,
      including seizures, pain, pruritus, pseudomembranous colitis,
      QT prolongation, rash, skin eruptions, tinnitus, urticaria,
      ventricular arrhythmias, ventricular tachycardia, vertigo, vomiting

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infections
      • Pharmacology
      11.2
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 78-year-old man complains of lumps in his neck. Several large, non-tender cervical...

    Correct

    • A 78-year-old man complains of lumps in his neck. Several large, non-tender cervical lymph nodes are discovered during your examination.

      You arrange for some blood tests, and the results reveal that he has lymphocytosis with a count of 16 x 10 9 /l.

      In this case, what is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia

      Explanation:

      The most common type of adult leukaemia is chronic lymphocytic leukaemia (CLL). It develops as a result of relatively mature lymphocytes clonally proliferating. The B-cell lineage accounts for approximately 95% of cases. CLL is primarily a disease of adult men, with men over the age of 50 accounting for more than 75% of CLL patients.

      It is the most indolent form of chronic leukaemia, and it is frequently discovered by chance when blood counts are taken for other reasons, such as ‘well man’ screening tests. The patient may develop lymphadenopathy, hepatosplenomegaly, anaemia, and infections as the disease progresses.

      The following are examples of CLL laboratory findings:
      Clonal B cell lymphocytosis (diagnosed at greater than 5 x 109/l, but can reach 300 x 109/l)
      In advanced disease, normocytic, normochromic anaemia is present.

      Patients with autoimmune-related haemolytic anaemias have a positive direct antiglobulin test (DAT).

      Although bone marrow aspiration is not always required, it can aid in the diagnosis of CLL. If there has been rapid lymph node enlargement, a lymph node biopsy is required to rule out Richter’s syndrome. This is the transition from low-grade lymphoma to high-grade lymphoma, which is characterised by fever, weight loss, and pain.

      Although there is no cure for CLL, it can be managed with chemotherapy regimens that help patients live longer. Early treatment has no benefit, and the standard treatment for early disease is to watch and wait, with examinations and blood counts every 3 to 12 months. Chemotherapy is usually reserved for patients who have a disease that is active and causing symptoms.

      The following is the overall prognosis for CLL:
      1/3 will not require treatment and will live a long time.
      1/3 will go through an indolent phase before the disease progresses.
      1/3 of patients will have an aggressive disease that requires immediate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      46.9
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - An arterial blood gas test is performed to a 25-year-old students who presents...

    Correct

    • An arterial blood gas test is performed to a 25-year-old students who presents with confusion, headache, nausea and malaise. The results show that carbon monoxide levels are significantly high. Which of the following carbon monoxide poisoning assertions is true?

      Your Answer: The PO 2 of the blood in CO poisoning can be normal

      Explanation:

      By combining with haemoglobin to form carboxyhaemoglobin, carbon monoxide (CO) disrupts the blood’s oxygen transport function. CO binds to haemoglobin with a 240-fold higher affinity than oxygen. As a result, even small amounts of CO can bind a large portion of the blood’s haemoglobin, making it unavailable for oxygen transport.

      During a suspected carbon monoxide poisoning, the blood PO2 and haemoglobin concentrations will be normal, but the oxygen concentration will be drastically reduced. The oxygen dissociation curve will also shift to the left in the presence of Carboxyhaemoglobin ( haemoglobin and carbon monoxide combination), interfering with oxygen unloading.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory Physiology
      17.8
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Regarding Clostridium species, which of the following statements is INCORRECT: ...

    Correct

    • Regarding Clostridium species, which of the following statements is INCORRECT:

      Your Answer: They are facultative anaerobes.

      Explanation:

      Clostridium spp. are obligatory anaerobic spore-forming Gram-positive bacilli. Toxin production is the main pathogenicity mechanism.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathogens
      14.5
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Calcium-channel blockers can be divided into two categories: dihydropyridines and non-dihydropyridines. The basic...

    Incorrect

    • Calcium-channel blockers can be divided into two categories: dihydropyridines and non-dihydropyridines. The basic chemical structure of these two classes differs, as does their relative selectivity for cardiac versus vascular L-type calcium channels. The phenylalkylamine class and the benzothiazepine class are two subgroups of non-dihydropyridines.

      A phenylalkylamine calcium-channel blocker is, for example, which of the following?

      Your Answer: Amlodipine

      Correct Answer: Verapamil

      Explanation:

      Calcium-channel blockers, also known as calcium antagonists, stop calcium from entering cells through the L-type calcium channel. This causes vascular smooth muscle in vessel walls to relax, resulting in a decrease in peripheral vascular resistance.
      They can be used for a variety of things, including:
      Hypertension
      Angina
      Atrial fibrillation
      Migraine

      Calcium-channel blockers can be divided into two categories: dihydropyridines and non-dihydropyridines. The basic chemical structure of these two classes differs, as does their relative selectivity for cardiac versus vascular L-type calcium channels.

      Dihydropyridines have a high vascular selectivity and lower systemic vascular resistance and blood pressure. As a result, they’re frequently used to treat hypertension. Modified release formulations are also used to treat angina, but their powerful systemic vasodilator and pressure-lowering effects can cause reflex cardiac stimulation, resulting in increased inotropy and tachycardia, which can counteract the beneficial effects of reduced afterload on myocardial oxygen demand.

      The suffix -dpine distinguishes dihydropyridines from other pyridines. Examples of dihydropyridines that are commonly prescribed include:
      Amlodipine
      Felodipine
      Nifedipine
      Nimodipine

      The phenylalkylamine class and the benzothiazepine class are two subgroups of non-dihydropyridines.

      Phenylalkylamines are less effective as systemic vasodilators because they are relatively selective for the myocardium. This group of drugs lowers myocardial oxygen demand and reverses coronary vasospasm, making them useful in the treatment of angina. They are also occasionally used to treat arrhythmias. A phenylalkylamine calcium-channel blocker like verapamil is an example.

      In terms of selectivity for vascular calcium channels, benzothiazepines fall somewhere between dihydropyridines and phenylalkylamines. They can lower arterial pressure without producing the same level of reflex cardiac stimulation as dihydropyridines because they have both cardiac depressant and vasodilator effects. Diltiazem is the only benzothiazepine currently in clinical use.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      35.8
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - What is the main mechanism of action of flecainide: ...

    Correct

    • What is the main mechanism of action of flecainide:

      Your Answer: Blocks Na+ channels

      Explanation:

      Flecainide inhibits the transmembrane influx of extracellular Na+ ions via fast channels on cardiac tissues resulting in a decrease in rate of depolarisation of the action potential, prolonging the PR and QRS intervals. At high concentrations, it exerts inhibitory effects on slow Ca2+ channels, accompanied by moderate negative inotropic effect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Pharmacology
      94.6
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - You examine a 50-year-old female who has a swollen, painful right big toe. She...

    Incorrect

    • You examine a 50-year-old female who has a swollen, painful right big toe. She has a history of gout, and this discomfort is identical to prior relapses, according to her. She is currently taking 200 mg of allopurinol per day and has been for the last year. This is her second round of acute gout within this time period. She has no prior medical history to speak of and does not take any other medications. She doesn't have any known drug allergies.

      Which of the following management options is the SINGLE MOST APPROPRIATE?

      Your Answer: Continue with the allopurinol and commence colchicine

      Correct Answer: Continue with the allopurinol and commence naproxen

      Explanation:

      Allopurinol should not be started during an acute gout episode because it can both prolong and trigger another acute attack. Allopurinol should be continued in patients who are currently taking it, and acute attacks should be treated as usual with NSAIDs or colchicine, as needed.

      Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory medications (NSAIDs), such as naproxen, are the first-line treatment for acute gout attacks. Colchicine can be used in situations where NSAIDs are contraindicated, such as in patients with hypertension or those who have had a history of peptic ulcer disease. Because there is no reason for this patient to avoid NSAIDs, naproxen would be the medicine of choice from the list above.

      It would be reasonable to titrate up the allopurinol dose once the acute episode has subsided, targeting <6 mg/dl (<360 µmol/l) plasma urate levels .
      Febuxostat (Uloric) is a drug that can be used instead of allopurinol to treat persistent gout.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      50.3
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 30-year old male is taken to the emergency room after suffering a...

    Correct

    • A 30-year old male is taken to the emergency room after suffering a blunt trauma to the abdomen. He is complaining of severe abdominal pain, however all his other vital signs remain stable. A FAST scan is performed to assess for hemoperitoneum.

      If hemoperitoneum is present, it is most likely to be observed in which of the following areas?

      Your Answer: Liver

      Explanation:

      The Focused Assessment with Sonography in Trauma (FAST) is an ultrasound protocol developed to assess for hemoperitoneum and hemopericardium. Numerous studies have demonstrated sensitivities between 85% to 96% and specificities exceeding 98%.

      The FAST exam evaluates four regions for pathologic fluid: (1) the right upper quadrant, (2) the subxiphoid (or subcostal) view, (3) the left upper quadrant, and (4) the suprapubic region.

      The right upper quadrant (RUQ) visualizes the hepatorenal recess, also known as Morrison’s pouch, the right paracolic gutter, the hepato-diaphragmatic area, and the caudal edge of the left liver lobe. The probe is positioned in the sagittal orientation along the patient’s flank at the level of the 8 to 11 rib spaces. The hand is placed against the bed to ensure visualization of the retroperitoneal kidney. The RUQ view is the most likely to detect free fluid with an overall sensitivity of 66%. Recent retrospective evidence suggests the area along the caudal edge of the left lobe of the liver has the highest sensitivity, exceeding 93%.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen And Pelvis
      • Anatomy
      20.8
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 25-year-old guy who has had a knee-high plaster cast on his left...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old guy who has had a knee-high plaster cast on his left leg for the past 5 weeks arrives at the emergency department complaining of numbness on the dorsum of his left foot and an inability to dorsiflex or evert his foot. You know that his symptoms are due to fibular nerve compression. Where is the fibular nerve located?

      Your Answer: Lateral compartment of leg

      Correct Answer: Neck of fibula

      Explanation:

      Dorsiflexion and eversion of the foot are innervated by the deep fibular nerve and the superficial fibular nerve, respectively.

      The common fibular nerve runs obliquely downward along the lateral border of the popliteal fossa (medial to the biceps femoris) before branching at the neck of the fibula.

      Thus, it is prone to being affected during an impact injury or fracture to the bone or leg. Casts that are placed too high can also compress the fibular nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      317.3
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Aplastic crises in sickle cell anaemia is classically precipitated by which of the...

    Correct

    • Aplastic crises in sickle cell anaemia is classically precipitated by which of the following infections:

      Your Answer: Parvovirus B19

      Explanation:

      A serious complication in sickle cell disease (SCD) is the aplastic crisis. This may be caused by infection with Parvovirus B-19 (B19V). This virus causes fifth disease, a normally benign childhood disorder associated with fever, malaise, and a mild rash. This virus infects RBC progenitors in bone marrow, resulting in impaired cell division for a few days.
      Healthy people experience, at most, a slight drop in hematocrit, since the half-life of normal erythrocytes in the circulation is 40-60 days. In people with SCD, however, the RBC lifespan is greatly shortened (usually 10-20 days), and a very rapid drop in Hb occurs. The condition is self-limited, with bone marrow recovery occurring in 7-10 days, followed by brisk reticulocytosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      6.5
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Infections (0/1) 0%
Pharmacology (1/4) 25%
Haematology (2/2) 100%
Pathology (2/2) 100%
Physiology (1/1) 100%
Respiratory Physiology (1/1) 100%
Microbiology (1/1) 100%
Pathogens (1/1) 100%
Cardiovascular Pharmacology (0/1) 0%
Cardiovascular (1/1) 100%
Musculoskeletal Pharmacology (0/1) 0%
Abdomen And Pelvis (1/1) 100%
Anatomy (1/2) 50%
Lower Limb (0/1) 0%
Passmed