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  • Question 1 - Regarding Hodgkin lymphoma, which of the following statements is CORRECT: ...

    Correct

    • Regarding Hodgkin lymphoma, which of the following statements is CORRECT:

      Your Answer: Some patients may complain alcohol-induced nodal pain and pruritus

      Explanation:

      Lymphomas are a group of diseases caused by malignant lymphocytes that accumulate in lymph nodes and other lymphoid tissue and cause the characteristic clinical feature of lymphadenopathy. The major subdivision of lymphomas is into Hodgkin lymphoma (HL) and non-Hodgkin lymphoma (NHL) and this is based on the histological presence of Reed-Sternberg cells present in HL. Hodgkin lymphoma can present at any age but is rare in children and has a peak incidence in young adults. There is an almost 2 : 1 male predominance. Most patients present with painless, asymmetrical, firm and discrete enlargement of superficial lymph nodes. Cervical nodes are involved in 60-70% of cases, axillary nodes in 10-15% and inguinal nodes in 6-12%. Modest splenomegaly occurs during the course of the disease in 50% of patients; the liver may also be enlarged. Bone marrow failure involvement is unusual in early disease. The prognosis depends on age, stage and histology, but overall approximately 85% of patients are cured. Alcohol‐induced pain and pruritus are two well‐known but rare symptoms in HL.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      23.6
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Regarding red blood cell group antigens and antibodies, which of the following statements...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding red blood cell group antigens and antibodies, which of the following statements is CORRECT:

      Your Answer: Naturally occurring anti-D antibodies occur in the plasma of all subjects who lack the RhD antigen.

      Correct Answer: Anti-D antibodies are usually IgG.

      Explanation:

      Approximately 400 red blood cell group antigens have been described. The ABO group antigens are unusual in that naturally occurring antibodies occur in the plasma of subjects who lack the corresponding antigen, even if they have not been exposed to that antigen previously. The most important of these natural antibodies are anti-A and anti-B, which are usually IgM. Anti-D antibodies don’t occur naturally, and are therefore immune antibodies that result from previous transfusions or pregnancy. Only IgG antibodies are capable of transplacental passage and the most important immune antibody is the Rh antibody, anti-D.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immune Responses
      • Pathology
      46.6
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Which of the following laboratory findings is NOT typical of von Willebrand disease...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following laboratory findings is NOT typical of von Willebrand disease (VWD):

      Your Answer: Abnormal PFA-100

      Correct Answer: Thrombocytopaenia

      Explanation:

      Laboratory findings typically show (although this varies depending on VWD type):
      Abnormal PFA-100 test
      Low factor VIII levels (if low a factor VIII/VWF binding assay is performed)
      Prolonged APTT (or normal)
      Normal PT
      Low VWF levels
      Defective platelet aggregation
      Normal platelet count

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      30.5
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 49-year-old man known sickle cell disease patient received a blood transfusion and...

    Correct

    • A 49-year-old man known sickle cell disease patient received a blood transfusion and developed a mild fever and dark urine 6 days after transfusion. His investigations show raised bilirubin, raised LDH, and a positive Direct Antiglobulin Test (DAT).

      Which transfusion reaction is most likely occurred?

      Your Answer: Delayed haemolytic reaction

      Explanation:

      Delayed haemolytic transfusion reactions (DHTRs) commonly occurs 4-8 days after blood transfusion, but can occur up to a month after. Signs and symptoms include jaundice, fever, an inadequate rise in PCV, reticulocytosis, a positive antibody screen and a positive Direct Antiglobulin Test (Coombs test). DHTRs usually have a benign course and require no treatment but sometimes, life-threatening haemolysis with severe anaemia and renal failure can occur so haemoglobin levels and renal function should be monitored.

      Acute haemolytic reaction aka immediate haemolytic transfusion reaction presents with fever, chills, pain at transfusion site, nausea, vomiting, dark urine and feeling of ‘impending doom’. Often, it occurs due to ABO incompatibility.

      Febrile transfusion reaction presents with a 1 degree rise in temperature from baseline during transfusion. Patient may have chills and malaise. It is the most common transfusion reaction (1 in 8 transfusions) and is usually caused by cytokines released from leukocytes in transfused red cell or platelet components.

      Transfusion-associated circulatory overload (TACO) presents as acute or worsening respiratory distress within 6 hours of transfusion of a large volume of blood. It is common in patients with diminished cardiac reserve or chronic anaemia. Elderly patients, infants and severely anaemic patients are particularly susceptible. Clinical features of TACO include: Acute respiratory distress, Tachycardia, Hypertension, Acute/worsening pulmonary oedema on chest X-ray. The BNP is usually raised to at least 1.5 times the pre-transfusion baseline.

      Graft versus host disease(GVHD) is an immune mediated condition that arises from a complex interaction between donor and recipients adaptive immunity. It presents as dermatitis, hepatitis and enteritis developing within 100 days after stem cell or bone marrow transplant.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      18.9
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Regarding acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL), which of the following statements is CORRECT: ...

    Correct

    • Regarding acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL), which of the following statements is CORRECT:

      Your Answer: 75% of cases occur before the age of 6 years.

      Explanation:

      Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL) is caused by an accumulation of lymphoblasts in the bone marrow and is the most common malignancy of childhood. The incidence of ALL is highest at 3 – 7 years, with 75% of cases occurring before the age of 6. 85% of cases are of B-cell lineage. Haematological investigations reveal a normochromic normocytic anaemia with thrombocytopenia in most cases. There is great variation in the chance of individual patients achieving a long-term cure based on a number of biological variables. Approximately 25% of children relapse after first-line therapy and need further treatment but overall 90% of children can expect to be cured. The cure rate in adults drops significantly to less than 5% over the age of 70 years.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      10.8
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 66-year-old female presents to the Emergency Department with a nose bleed. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 66-year-old female presents to the Emergency Department with a nose bleed. She says that she has been having frequent episodes of nose bleeds over the past four months, along with increasing fatigue and some weight loss. On examination, she has a diffuse petechial rash and hypertrophy of the gingiva.

      Which one of the following conditions is this patient most likely to have?

      Your Answer: Chronic myeloid leukaemia (CML)

      Correct Answer: Acute myeloid leukaemia (AML)

      Explanation:

      The history of nosebleeds and fatigue, and gingival hyperplasia presents a typical picture of acute myeloid leukaemia. Leukemic infiltrates within the gingiva cause hypertrophy and distinguish this condition from other types of leukaemia. The fatigue is secondary to anaemia, while the nosebleeds are caused by thrombocytopenia secondary to leukemic infiltration of bone marrow. Patients may also report frequent infections secondary to neutropenia and hepatosplenomegaly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      77.2
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Which of the following clinical features is NOT a typical feature of haemolytic...

    Correct

    • Which of the following clinical features is NOT a typical feature of haemolytic anaemias:

      Your Answer: Angular cheilitis

      Explanation:

      Features include:
      Anaemia
      Jaundice (caused by unconjugated bilirubin in plasma, bilirubin is absent from urine)
      Pigment gallstones
      Splenomegaly
      Ankle ulcers
      Expansion of marrow with, in children, bone expansion e.g. frontal bossing in beta-thalassaemia major
      Aplastic crisis caused by parvovirus

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      29.9
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Which of the following is NOT a heritable risk factor for venous thrombosis:...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is NOT a heritable risk factor for venous thrombosis:

      Your Answer: Von Willebrand disease

      Explanation:

      Approximately one-third of patients who suffer DVT or PE have an identifiable heritable risk factor, although additional risk factors are usually present when they develop the thrombosis. The history of a spontaneous DVT in a close relative increases an individual’s risk of DVT even if no known genetic predisposition can be identified.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      10.1
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A newborn baby is referred by the community midwife who is concerned the...

    Correct

    • A newborn baby is referred by the community midwife who is concerned the baby is jaundiced because of the yellow appearance of his eyes and skin following a postnatal home visit. The jaundice is visible in the baby’s feet making her worried.

      Jaundice are visible in the extremities of neonates at what approximate threshold bilirubin level?

      Your Answer: 255 μmol/L

      Explanation:

      Newborn babies have a higher concentration of red blood cells with shorter lifespan leading to higher bilirubin levels than in adults. This condition is short-lived and harmless but with potential serious causes that need to be assessed for if present.

      The most obvious physical sign of jaundice is a yellow discolouration of the sclera, skin and mucous membranes. At a bilirubin level of 35 μmol/L or higher, the eye is affected. The bilirubin level will need to be higher than 255 μmol/L for the feet and extremities to be affected.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Pathology
      • Pathology
      18.4
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 78-year-old man complains of lumps in his neck. Several large, non-tender cervical...

    Incorrect

    • A 78-year-old man complains of lumps in his neck. Several large, non-tender cervical lymph nodes are discovered during your examination.

      You arrange for some blood tests, and the results reveal that he has lymphocytosis with a count of 16 x 10 9 /l.

      In this case, what is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Hodgkin’s lymphoma

      Correct Answer: Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia

      Explanation:

      The most common type of adult leukaemia is chronic lymphocytic leukaemia (CLL). It develops as a result of relatively mature lymphocytes clonally proliferating. The B-cell lineage accounts for approximately 95% of cases. CLL is primarily a disease of adult men, with men over the age of 50 accounting for more than 75% of CLL patients.

      It is the most indolent form of chronic leukaemia, and it is frequently discovered by chance when blood counts are taken for other reasons, such as ‘well man’ screening tests. The patient may develop lymphadenopathy, hepatosplenomegaly, anaemia, and infections as the disease progresses.

      The following are examples of CLL laboratory findings:
      Clonal B cell lymphocytosis (diagnosed at greater than 5 x 109/l, but can reach 300 x 109/l)
      In advanced disease, normocytic, normochromic anaemia is present.

      Patients with autoimmune-related haemolytic anaemias have a positive direct antiglobulin test (DAT).

      Although bone marrow aspiration is not always required, it can aid in the diagnosis of CLL. If there has been rapid lymph node enlargement, a lymph node biopsy is required to rule out Richter’s syndrome. This is the transition from low-grade lymphoma to high-grade lymphoma, which is characterised by fever, weight loss, and pain.

      Although there is no cure for CLL, it can be managed with chemotherapy regimens that help patients live longer. Early treatment has no benefit, and the standard treatment for early disease is to watch and wait, with examinations and blood counts every 3 to 12 months. Chemotherapy is usually reserved for patients who have a disease that is active and causing symptoms.

      The following is the overall prognosis for CLL:
      1/3 will not require treatment and will live a long time.
      1/3 will go through an indolent phase before the disease progresses.
      1/3 of patients will have an aggressive disease that requires immediate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      36.8
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Haematology (5/8) 63%
Pathology (6/10) 60%
Immune Responses (0/1) 0%
General Pathology (1/1) 100%
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