Cardiac output = stroke volume x heart rate

Left ventricular ejection fraction = (stroke volume / end diastolic LV volume ) x 100%

Stroke volume = end diastolic LV volume – end systolic LV volume

Pulse pressure = Systolic Pressure – Diastolic Pressure

Systemic vascular resistance = mean arterial pressure / cardiac output
Factors that increase pulse pressure include:
-a less compliant aorta (this tends to occur with advancing age)
-increased stroke volume

The statement Epinephrine is formulated as 1 in 1000 solution means 1 gm epinephrine is present in 1000 ml of solution.

The internal laryngeal nerve provides sensory innervation to the laryngeal mucosa, and injury to it will cause loss of sensation.

The internal laryngeal nerve lies inferior to the piriform recess mucous membrane, placing it at high risk of irritation or damage by objects which become lodged in the recess.

The internal laryngeal artery branches off the superior laryngeal artery accompanied by the superior laryngeal nerve, inferior to the thyroid artery which branches off the superior thyroid artery close to its bifurcation from the external carotid artery.

Hiatus is an opening in the diaphragm. A hiatal hernia is a protrusion of the upper part of the stomach through an opening in the diaphragm, the oesophageal hiatus, into the thorax. The oesophageal hiatus occurs at the level of T10 in the right crus of the diaphragm.

Other important openings in the diaphragm:
T8: vena cava, terminal branches of the right phrenic nerve
T10: oesophagus, vagal trunks, left anterior phrenic vessels, oesophageal branches of the left gastric vessels
T12: descending aorta, thoracic duct, azygous and hemi-azygous vein

An opening in the diaphragm is called a hiatus. The oesophageal hiatus is at vertebral level T10. A hiatus hernia is where the stomach bulges through the oesophageal hiatus hence the name – hiatus hernia.

Coronary perfusion pressure(CPP), the difference between aortic diastolic pressure (Pdiastolic) and the left ventricular end-diastolic pressure (LVEDP), is mainly determined by the formula:

CPP = Pdiastolic -LVEDP
where
Pdiastolic is the lowest pressure in the aorta before left ventricular ejection and
LVEDP is measured directly during a cardiac catheterisation or indirectly using a pulmonary artery catheter. The pulmonary artery occlusion or wedge pressure approximates best with LVEDP.

Using this patient’s haemodynamic data:

CPP = Pdiastolic – MPAWP
COO = 70 – 12 = 58mmHg

Because the patient has mild systemic disease, he is ASA 2 and the procedure will be performed under local anaesthesia.

The following factors should be considered when requesting preoperative investigations:

Indications derived from a preliminary clinical examination
Whether or not a general anaesthetic will be used, the possibility of asymptomatic abnormalities, and the scope of the surgery.

No special investigations are needed if the patient has no history of significant systemic disease and no abnormal findings on examination during the nurse-led assessment.

Serum specific IgE assays against allergen sources/molecules are the most commonly used in vitro diagnostic approach. The measurement of specific IgE recognizing allergenic epitopes can be achieved both through the usage of single reagents (singleplex) or with a pre-defined panel of a number of molecules to be tested simultaneously (multiplex).

Several clinical entities have been described and those occurring immediately after drug exposure are immunoglobulin E (IgE)-mediated and explored by skin testing and by the in vitro measurement of serum-specific IgE. The sensitivity of these tests is not 100% and even for patients with a clear positive history, a drug provocation test may be required in order to confirm the diagnosis. The advantages of the in vitro determination of specific IgE antibodies when compared with in vivo testing are that the former poses no direct risk to the patient and does not require personnel with expertise. Even though in vitro tests are recommended in immediate hypersensitivity reactions, their exact place in the diagnostic procedure is not clear and certain authors do not use this method in daily practice. In one study, in terms of sensitivity, 11 of 26 patients (42%) with negative skin tests and a positive drug provocation challenge (or repeated clinical history) had specific IgE to benzylpenicilloyl or amoxicilloyl (4). The specificity of the test was 95–100%. Therefore, IgE measurements can avoid a potentially harmful drug provocation test.

An elevated serum tryptase does not differentiate between type 1 and type 2 hypersensitivity reaction. It indicates mast cell degranulation.

RAST is a useful aid to improve the overall diagnosis of drug allergies by using radioactive detection. This, however, is now rarely used.

Quantification of basophil activation by CD63 expression can be done by flow cytometry, which forms the basis of experimental drug-induced basophil stimulation tests.

Severity of a reduction in restrictive defect (%FVC) or obstructive defect (%FEV1/FVC) predicted are classified as follows:

Mild 70-80%
Moderate 60-69%
Moderately severe 50-59%
Severe 35-49%
Very severe <35% This patient has a %FVC predicted of 60.4% and this corresponds to a moderate restrictive deficit. %FEV1/FVC ratio is 93.5%. FEV1/FVC ratio 80% < predicted and VC < 80% = mixed picture. FEV1/FVC ratio 80% < predicted and VC > 80% = obstructive picture.

FEV1/FVC ratio 80% > predicted and VC > 80% = normal picture.

FEV1/FVC ratio 80% > predicted and VC < 80% predicted= restrictive picture. The integrity of the alveolar-capillary barrier is measured by carbon monoxide transfer factor (TLCO) and carbon monoxide transfer coefficient (KCO). These values are seen to be reduced in emphysema, interstitial lung diseases and in pulmonary vascular pathology. However, the KCO (as % predicted) is high in extrapulmonary restriction (pleural, chest wall and respiratory neuromuscular disease), and in loss of lung units provided the structure of the lung remaining is normal. The KCO distinguishes extrapulmonary (high KCO) causes of ‘restriction’ from intrapulmonary causes (low KCO).

The respiratory quotient (RQ) is the proportion of CO2 produced by the body to O2 consumed per unit of time.

CO2 produced / O2 consumed = RQ

CO2 is produced at a rate of 200 mL per minute, while O2 is consumed at a rate of 250 mL per minute. An RQ of around 0.8 is typical for a mixed diet.

The RQ will change depending on the energy substrates consumed in the diet.

Granulated sugar is a refined carbohydrate that contains 99.999 percent carbohydrate and no lipids, proteins, minerals, or vitamins.

Glucose and other hexose sugars – RQ = 1
Fats – RQ = 0.7
Proteins – RQ is 0.9
Ethyl alcohol – RQ = 0.67

The cricoid cartilage is a hyaline cartilage ring surrounding the trachea. It provides support for key phonation muscles.

The inferior border of the cricoid cartilage is attached to the thyroid cartilage and the inferior border is attached to the first tracheal ring through the cricotracheal ligament.

Application of pressure to the cricoid cartilage to reduce risk of aspiration of gastric contents (Sellick manoeuvre) does not stop tracheal aspiration and cannot stop regurgitation into the oesophagus.

A force of 44 newtons to the cricoid cartilage is needed to control regurgitation.

The inguinal triangle of Hesselbach is an important clinical landmark on the posterior wall of the inguinal canal. It has the following relations:
Inferiorly – medial third of the inguinal ligament
Medially – lower lateral border of the rectus abdominis
Laterally – inferior epigastric vessels

Direct inguinal hernia is when the bowel bulges directly through the abdominal wall. These hernias usually protrude through Hesselbach’s triangle

An epidemic is declared when the increase in a give disease is above a certain level in a specific interval of time.

An endemic is the general, usual level of a disease in a population at a particular time.

A pandemic is an epidemic that is spread across many countries and continents.

In the neonatal stage, the tongue is usually large and comes to the normal size at the age of 1 year. The vocal cords lie inverse C4 and as it reaches the grown-up position inverse C5/6 by the age of 4 (not 1 year).

Due to the immature cricoid cartilage, the larynx lies more anterior in newborn children. That’s why the cricoid ring is the narrowest part of the paediatric respiratory tract, while in the adults the tightest portion of the respiratory route is vocal cords. The epiglottis is generally expansive and slants at a point of 45 degrees to the laryngeal opening.

The carina is the ridge of the cartilage in the trachea at the level of T2 in newborn (T4 in adults), that separates the openings of right and left main bronchi.

Neonates have a comparatively low number of alveoli and then this number gradually increases to a most extreme by the age of 8 (not 3 years).

Neonates are obligatory nose breathers and any hindrance can cause respiratory issues (e.g., choanal atresia).

Number needed to treat can be defined as the number of patients who need to be treated to prevent one additional bad outcome.

It can be found as:

NNT=1/Absolute Risk Reduction (rounded to the next integer since number of patients can be integer only).

where ARR= (Risk factor associated with the new drug group) — (Risk factor associated with the currently available drug)

So,

ARR= (165/1050)-(132/1044)

ARR= (0.157-0.126)

ARR= 0.031

NNT= 1/0.031

NNT=32.3

The following units are derived SI units of measurement.

Energy or work: kg.m2.s-2
The Joule (J) is the energy transferred to an object when a force of one newton acts on that object in the direction of its motion through a distance of one meter or N.m.

Power: kg.m2.s-3
The Watt (W) = rate of transfer of energy or Joule per second J/s.

Force: kg.m.s-2
One Newton (N) which is the international unit of measure for force = 1 kilogram meter per second squared. 1 Newton of force is the force required to accelerate an object with a mass of 1 kilogram 1 meter per second per second.

Volt: kg.m2.s-3.A-1
The volt (V) is defined as the potential difference across a conductor when a current of one ampere dissipates one watt of power or W/A.

Pressure: kg.m-1.s-2
A pascal (Pa) is force per unit area or N/m2.

Increasing temperature increases the amount of water vapour contained in air; for example, at 20°C, air contains about 17 g/m3, and at 37°C, air contains about 44 g/m3. The wet and dry bulb hygrometer, like the hair hygrometer, measures relative humidity.

Under normal operating conditions, Heat and moisture exchangers (HMEs) allows relative humidity of up to 70% to be achieved. Mucus can impair their performance, and they should not be used for longer than 24 hours.

Hot water bath humidifiers might cause scalding, condensed water in the tubing can interfere with gas flow, and there is a danger of infection.

The ultrasonic humidifier operates at roughly 2 MHz and may attain relative humidity levels much above 100%.

The shaft of the humerus has two prominent features:
1. Deltoid tuberosity – attachment for the deltoid muscle
2. Radial or spiral groove – The radial nerve and profunda brachii artery lie in the groove

Mid-shaft fractures of the humerus usually occur after a direct blow to the upper arm, which can occur after a fall or RTAs. The most important clinical significance of a mid-shaft humeral fracture is an injury to the radial nerve. The radial nerve originates from the brachial plexus and has roots of C5-T1. It crosses the spiral groove on the posterior side of the shaft of the humerus.
On examination, the patient may have a wrist drop, loss or weakness of finger extension, and decreased or absent sensation to the posterior forearm, digits 1 to 3, and the radial half of the fourth digit.

The following parts of the humerus are in direct contact with the indicated
nerves:
Surgical neck: axillary nerve.
Radial groove: radial nerve.
Distal end of humerus: median nerve.
Medial epicondyle: ulnar nerve.

An ipsilateral phrenic nerve block will result from a successful interscalene block (ISB).

The phrenic nerve is the diaphragm’s sole motor supply, and ipsilateral hemidiaphragmatic paresis affects up to 100% of patients who receive ISBs. Phrenic nerve palsy is usually well tolerated and goes unnoticed by healthy people. However, forced vital capacity decreases by approximately 25%, which can produce ventilatory compromise in patients with limited pulmonary reserve, requiring assisted ventilation.

Vocal cord palsy occurs when the recurrent laryngeal nerve is inadvertently blocked, causing hoarseness and possibly acute respiratory insufficiency. Unless bilateral laryngeal nerve palsy occurs, which can cause severe laryngeal obstruction, this complication is usually of little consequence.

ISB can also cause cranial nerve X and XII palsy (Tapia’s syndrome). One-sided cord paralysis, aphonia, and the patient’s tongue deviating toward the block’s side are all symptoms.

When a local anaesthetic spreads to the stellate ganglion and its cervical sympathetic nerves, Horner’s syndrome can develop. Ptosis of the eyelid, miosis, and anhidrosis of the face are all symptoms. Horner’s syndrome, on the other hand, may not indicate that the brachial plexus is sufficiently blocked.

The superior laryngeal nerve gives off two branches: the sensory branch which is the internal laryngeal nerve, and the motor branch which is the external laryngeal nerve.

The recurrent laryngeal nerve (RLN) rises from the vagus nerve which supplies the intrinsic muscles of the larynx, except the cricothyroid muscles.

There are two types of drug dose-response relationships, namely, the graded dose-response and the quantal dose-response relationships.

Drug response curves are plotted as percentage response again LOG drug concentration. This graph is sigmoid in shape.

Agonists are drugs with high affinity and high intrinsic activity. Meanwhile, the antagonist is a drug with high affinity but no intrinsic activity. Intrinsic activity determines the maximal response. The maximal response can be achieved even by activation of a small proportion of receptor sites.

Adrenaline is released by the adrenal glands, acts on ? 1 and 2, ? 1 and 2 receptors, and is responsible for fight or flight response.

It acts on ? 2 receptors in skeletal muscle vessels-causing vasodilation.

It acts on ? adrenergic receptors to inhibit insulin secretion by the pancreas. It also stimulates glycogenolysis in the liver and muscle, stimulates glycolysis in muscle.

It acts on ? adrenergic receptors to stimulate glucagon secretion in the pancreas
It also stimulates Adrenocorticotrophic Hormone (ACTH) and stimulates lipolysis by adipose tissue

To denote large measured units, the following SI mathematical prefixes are used:

1 deca = 10 bytes (101)
1 hecto (h) = 100 bytes
1 kilo (k)= 1,000 bytes
1 mega (M) = 1,000,000 bytes
1 giga (G) = 1,000,000,000 bytes
1 Tera (T) = 1,000,000,000,000 bytes
1 Peta (P) = 1,000,000,000,000,000 bytes

Thiopental has the longest elimination half-life of 6-15 hours.

Elimination half-life of other drugs are given as:
– Propofol: 5-12 h
– Methohexitone: 3-5 h
– Ketamine: 2 h
– Etomidate: 1-4 h

Decreased stroke volume causes decreased ejection fraction which results in diastolic dysfunction.
Ejection fraction is not a useful measure in someone with diastolic dysfunction because stroke volume may be reduced whilst end-diastolic volume may be reduced.
Diastolic dysfunction may arise with reduced heart compliance.

Ejection fraction measures of the proportion of blood leaving the ventricles with each beat and is calculated as follows:
Stroke volume / end-diastolic volume.

A healthy ejection fraction is usually taken as 60% (based on a stroke volume of 70ml and end-diastolic volume of 120ml).

Respiratory inspiration causes a decreased pressure in the thoracic cavity, which in turn causes more blood to flow into the atrium.

Sitting up decreases venous because of the action of gravity on blood in the venous system.
Hypotension also decreases venous return.
A less compliant aorta, like in aortic stenosis increases end systolic left ventricular volume which decreases stroke volume.

Systemic vascular resistance = mean arterial pressure / cardiac output.
Increased vascular resistance impedes the flow of blood back to the heart.

Increased venous return increases end diastolic LV volume as there is more blood returning to the ventricles.

Perioperative and postoperative analgesia can both be provided by an inguinal hernia field block. The Iliohypogastric and ilioinguinal nerves, as well as the skin, superficial fascia, and deeper structures, must be blocked for maximum effectiveness. The local anaesthetic should ideally have a long duration of action, be highly concentrated, and have a volume of at least 30 mL.

Plain bupivacaine has a maximum safe dose of 2 mg/kg body weight.

Because the patient weighs 75 kg, 150 mg bupivacaine can be safely administered. Both 30 mL 0.5 percent bupivacaine (150 mg) and 60 mL 0.25 percent bupivacaine (150 mg) are acceptable doses, but 30 mL 0.5 percent bupivacaine represents the optimal volume and strength, potentially providing a denser and longer block.

The maximum safe dose of plain lidocaine has been estimated to be between 3.5 and 5 mg/kg. The patient weighs 75 kg and can receive a maximum of 375 mg using the higher dosage regimen:

There are 200 mg of lidocaine in 10 mL of 2% lidocaine (and therefore 11 mL contains 220 mg)
200 mg of lidocaine is contained in 20 mL of 1% lidocaine.

While alternatives are available, Although the doses of 11 mL lidocaine 2% and 20 mL lidocaine 1% are well within the dose limit, the volumes used are insufficient for effective field block for this surgery.

With 1 in 200,000 epinephrine, the maximum safe dose of lidocaine is 7 mg/kg. The patient can be given 525 mg in this case. Even with epinephrine, 60 mL of 1% lidocaine is 600 mg, which could be considered an overdose.

The AV node has an intrinsic firing rate of 40-60 beats per minute which is clinically significant in cases of damage to the conducting pathways as patients continue to have a ventricular rate of 40-60. Patients who have an AV node supplied by the right coronary are said to be right dominant. The remaining 10% are left dominant and supplied by the left circumflex.

The right coronary artery supplies the right atrium, right ventricle, interatrial septum, and the inferior posterior third of the interventricular septum. It also supplies the atrioventricular node + sinoatrial node in most patients. The posterior descending artery supplies the posterior third of the interventricular septum.

The heart receives blood supply from coronary arteries. The right and left coronary arteries branch off the aorta and supply oxygenated blood to all heart muscle parts.

The left main coronary artery branches into:
1. Circumflex artery – supplies the left atrium, side, and back of the left ventricle. The left marginal artery arises from the left circumflex artery. It travels along the obtuse margin of the heart.
The left marginal artery, a branch of the circumflex artery, supplies the left ventricle.
2. Left Anterior Descending (LAD) artery – supplies the front and bottom of the left ventricle and front of the interventricular septum

The right coronary artery branches into:
1. Right marginal artery
2. Posterior descending artery

The respiratory quotient (RQ) is the ratio of CO2 produced by the body to O2 consumed in a given amount of time.

CO2 produced / O2 consumed = RQ

CO2 is produced at a rate of 200 mL per minute, while O2 is consumed at a rate of 250 mL per minute. An RQ of around 0.8 is typical for a mixed diet.

The RQ will change depending on the energy substrates consumed in the diet. Granulated sugar is a refined carbohydrate that contains 99.999 percent carbohydrate and no lipids, proteins, minerals, or vitamins.

Glucose and other hexose sugars (glucose and other hexose sugars):
RQ=1

Fats:
RQ = 0.7

Proteins:
Approximately 0.9 RQ

Ethyl alcohol is a type of alcohol.

200/300 = 0.67 RQ

For complete oxidation, lipids and alcohol require more oxygen than carbohydrates.

When carbohydrate is converted to fat, the RQ can rise above 1.0. Fat deposition and weight gain are likely to occur in these circumstances.

The arch of aorta gives rise to three main branches:
1. Brachiocephalic artery
2. Left common carotid artery
3. Left subclavian artery

The brachiocephalic artery then gives rise to the right subclavian artery and the right common carotid artery.

The right common carotid artery arises from the brachiocephalic trunk posterior to the sternoclavicular joint.

The coeliac trunk is a branch of the abdominal aorta.
The ascending aorta supplies the coronary arteries.

The upper five cervical segments of the spinal cord give rise to the XI cranial nerve. They connect with a few smaller branches before exiting the skull through the jugular foramen. The sternomastoid and trapezius muscles get their motor supply from the accessory root. Except for the palatoglossus, the hypoglossal nerve supplies motor supply to all tongue muscles.

The inability to shrug the shoulder on the affected side and rotate the head to the side against resistance is caused by damage to the spinal accessory nerve. This is due to the trapezius and sternomastoid muscles’ weakness.

The hypoglossal nerve is damaged, resulting in tongue wasting and inability to move from side to side.

The stylopharyngeus receives motor supply from the glossopharyngeal nerve. It also carries taste sensory fibres from the back third of the tongue, as well as the carotid sinus, carotid body, pharynx, and middle ear.

Motor supply to the larynx, pharynx, and palate; parasympathetic innervation to the heart, lung, and gut; and sensory fibres from the epiglottis and valleculae are all provided by the vagus nerve.

The leading cause of perioperative anaphylaxis in the UK currently are antibiotics. They account for 46% of cases with identified causative agents. Co-amoxiclav and teicoplanin between them account for 89% of antibiotic-induced perioperative anaphylaxis

Neuromuscular blocking agents (NMBAs) are the second leading cause and account for 33% of case.

Chlorhexidine (0.78/100,000 administrations)
Co-amoxiclav (8.7/100,000 administrations)Suxamethonium (11.1/100,000 administrations)
Patent blue dye (14.6/100,000 administrations)
Teicoplanin (16.4/100,000 administrations)

Anaphylaxis to chlorhexidine periop poses a significant risk in the healthcare setting because of its widespread use with some being fatal.