00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Mins)
  • Question 1 - QTc prolongation is associated with which of the following metabolic changes? ...

    Incorrect

    • QTc prolongation is associated with which of the following metabolic changes?

      Your Answer: Hyponatraemia

      Correct Answer: Hypokalaemia

      Explanation:

      Amantadine and QTc Prolongation

      Amantadine is a medication used to treat Parkinson’s disease and influenza. It has been associated with QTc prolongation, which can increase the risk of Torsades de points. Therefore, caution should be exercised when prescribing amantadine to patients with risk factors for QT prolongation. If a patient is already taking amantadine and develops a prolonged QTc interval, the medication should be discontinued and an alternative treatment considered. It is important to monitor the QTc interval in patients taking amantadine, especially those with risk factors for QT prolongation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      49.2
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - What individual utilized the phrases inhibited mania and manic stupor to characterize distinct...

    Incorrect

    • What individual utilized the phrases inhibited mania and manic stupor to characterize distinct mixed affective conditions?

      Your Answer: Schneider

      Correct Answer: Kraepelin

      Explanation:

      Inhibited Mania

      Inhibited mania is one of the six mixed affective states identified by Kraepelin. It is characterized by symptoms of both mania and depression, but with a predominance of depressive features. Patients with inhibited mania may experience feelings of sadness, guilt, and worthlessness, as well as decreased energy and motivation. At the same time, they may also exhibit symptoms of mania, such as increased activity, impulsivity, and irritability.

      Inhibited mania is considered an autonomous mixed episode, meaning that the patient consistently experiences symptoms of both mania and depression. This type of mixed state is associated with a poorer prognosis compared to those occurring between transitions from one mood state to another.

      Treatment for inhibited mania typically involves a combination of mood stabilizers, antidepressants, and psychotherapy. It is important for clinicians to carefully monitor patients with inhibited mania, as they may be at increased risk for suicide and other adverse outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      26
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - For which group of patients is it not recommended to prescribe lithium? ...

    Correct

    • For which group of patients is it not recommended to prescribe lithium?

      Your Answer: Addison’s disease

      Explanation:

      According to a recent study by Ran (2019), lithium carbonate has been found to have a neuroprotective effect in individuals who have experienced a stroke. The study conducted exploratory analyses of neuroanatomical and cognitive outcomes in a poststroke population. It is interesting to note that while lithium is contraindicated in individuals with Addison’s disease, it is only cautioned in individuals with QT prolongation. Hypothyroidism (untreated) is also a contraindication for lithium. Addison’s disease is a condition characterized by inadequate production of cortisol and aldosterone by the adrenal cortex, leading to symptoms such as fatigue, gastrointestinal abnormalities, changes in skin pigmentation, and mood changes. In some cases, acute adrenal failure can occur, which is a serious condition that develops rapidly. The cause of Addison’s disease is often due to the body’s immune system mistakenly attacking the adrenal glands, causing progressive damage to the adrenal cortex.

      Lithium – Pharmacology

      Pharmacokinetics:
      Lithium salts are rapidly absorbed following oral administration and are almost exclusively excreted by the kidneys unchanged. Blood samples for lithium should be taken 12 hours post-dose.

      Ebstein’s:
      Ebstein’s anomaly is a congenital malformation consisting of a prolapse of the tricuspid valve into the right ventricle. It occurs in 1:20,000 of the general population. Initial data suggested it was more common in those using lithium but this had not held to be true.

      Contraindications:
      Addison’s disease, Brugada syndrome, cardiac disease associated with rhythm disorders, clinically significant renal impairment, untreated of untreatable hypothyroidism, low sodium levels.

      Side-effects:
      Common side effects include nausea, tremor, polyuria/polydipsia, rash/dermatitis, blurred vision, dizziness, decreased appetite, drowsiness, metallic taste, and diarrhea. Side-effects are often dose-related.

      Long-term use is associated with hypothyroidism, hyperthyroidism, hypercalcemia/hyperparathyroidism, irreversible nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, and reduced GFR.

      Lithium-induced diabetes insipidus:
      Treatment options include stopping lithium (if feasible), keeping levels within 0.4-0.8 mmol/L, once-daily dose of the drug taken at bedtime, amiloride, thiazide diuretics, indomethacin, and desmopressin.

      Toxicity:
      Lithium salts have a narrow therapeutic/toxic ratio. Risk factors for lithium toxicity include drugs altering renal function, decreased circulating volume, infections, fever, decreased oral intake of water, renal insufficiency, and nephrogenic diabetes insipidus. Features of lithium toxicity include GI symptoms and neuro symptoms.

      Pre-prescribing:
      Before prescribing lithium, renal function, cardiac function, thyroid function, FBC, and BMI should be checked. Women of childbearing age should be advised regarding contraception, and information about toxicity should be provided.

      Monitoring:
      Lithium blood levels should be checked weekly until stable, and then every 3-6 months once stable. Thyroid and renal function should be checked every 6 months. Patients should be issued with an information booklet, alert card, and record book.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      13.6
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - How can it be determined if the study on the effectiveness of a...

    Incorrect

    • How can it be determined if the study on the effectiveness of a new oral treatment for schizophrenia patients in preventing hospital admissions has yielded statistically significant results?

      Your Answer: p-value < 0.5

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Understanding Hypothesis Testing in Statistics

      In statistics, it is not feasible to investigate hypotheses on entire populations. Therefore, researchers take samples and use them to make estimates about the population they are drawn from. However, this leads to uncertainty as there is no guarantee that the sample taken will be truly representative of the population, resulting in potential errors. Statistical hypothesis testing is the process used to determine if claims from samples to populations can be made and with what certainty.

      The null hypothesis (Ho) is the claim that there is no real difference between two groups, while the alternative hypothesis (H1 of Ha) suggests that any difference is due to some non-random chance. The alternative hypothesis can be one-tailed of two-tailed, depending on whether it seeks to establish a difference of a change in one direction.

      Two types of errors may occur when testing the null hypothesis: Type I and Type II errors. Type I error occurs when the null hypothesis is rejected when it is true, while Type II error occurs when the null hypothesis is accepted when it is false. The power of a study is the probability of correctly rejecting the null hypothesis when it is false, and it can be increased by increasing the sample size.

      P-values provide information on statistical significance and help researchers decide if study results have occurred due to chance. The p-value is the probability of obtaining a result that is as large of larger when in reality there is no difference between two groups. The cutoff for the p-value is called the significance level (alpha level), typically set at 0.05. If the p-value is less than the cutoff, the null hypothesis is rejected, and if it is greater or equal to the cut off, the null hypothesis is not rejected. However, the p-value does not indicate clinical significance, which may be too small to be meaningful.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
      38.9
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Which neurotransmitter is released from the postganglionic fibers in the sympathetic division? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which neurotransmitter is released from the postganglionic fibers in the sympathetic division?

      Your Answer: Peptides

      Correct Answer: Noradrenalin

      Explanation:

      Noradrenalin Is the neurotransmitter that is released from the postganglionic fibers of the sympathetic division. It is stored in granules at the sympathetic knobs. It Is a methyl derivative.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neuro-anatomy
      40.6
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Which of the following receptors are found in the liver? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following receptors are found in the liver?

      Your Answer: α1, α2, β1, β2

      Correct Answer: α1, β2

      Explanation:

      Liver consists of the sympathetic Alpha 1 and beta 2 receptors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neuro-anatomy
      12.8
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - The hippocampus is involved in the memory of: ...

    Correct

    • The hippocampus is involved in the memory of:

      Your Answer: Facts

      Explanation:

      The hippocampus plays an important role in forming new memories about experienced events. Some researchers say that hippocampus plays a major role in declarative memory for example memory of facts.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neuro-anatomy
      26.7
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - What hormone is produced by the posterior pituitary gland? ...

    Incorrect

    • What hormone is produced by the posterior pituitary gland?

      Your Answer: Prolactin (PRL)

      Correct Answer: Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)

      Explanation:

      The posterior pituitary secretes antidiuretic hormone (ADH) and oxytocin, while the anterior pituitary secretes human growth hormone (HGH), adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH), prolactin (PRL), thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH), luteinising hormone (LH), and follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      29.5
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - What is the relationship between depression and the HPA axis? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the relationship between depression and the HPA axis?

      Your Answer: HPA axis abnormalities are pathognomonic of depression

      Correct Answer: Major depression is associated with increased levels of corticotropin-releasing factor in the CSF

      Explanation:

      HPA Axis Dysfunction in Mood Disorders

      The HPA axis, which includes regulatory neural inputs and a feedback loop involving the hypothalamus, pituitary, and adrenal glands, plays a central role in the stress response. Excessive secretion of cortisol, a glucocorticoid hormone, can lead to disruptions in cellular functioning and widespread physiologic dysfunction. Dysregulation of the HPA axis is implicated in mood disorders such as depression and bipolar affective disorder.

      In depressed patients, cortisol levels often do not decrease as expected in response to the administration of dexamethasone, a synthetic corticosteroid. This abnormality in the dexamethasone suppression test is thought to be linked to genetic of acquired defects of glucocorticoid receptors. Tricyclic antidepressants have been shown to increase expression of glucocorticoid receptors, whereas this is not the case for SSRIs.

      Early adverse experiences can produce long standing changes in HPA axis regulation, indicating a possible neurobiological mechanism whereby childhood trauma could be translated into increased vulnerability to mood disorder. In major depression, there is hypersecretion of cortisol, corticotropin-releasing factor (CRF), and ACTH, and associated adrenocortical enlargement. HPA abnormalities have also been found in other psychiatric disorders including Alzheimer’s and PTSD.

      In bipolar disorder, dysregulation of ACTH and cortisol response after CRH stimulation have been reported. Abnormal DST results are found more often during depressive episodes in the course of bipolar disorder than in unipolar disorder. Reduced pituitary volume secondary to LHPA stimulation, resulting in pituitary hypoactivity, has been observed in bipolar patients.

      Overall, HPA axis dysfunction is implicated in mood disorders, and understanding the underlying mechanisms may lead to new opportunities for treatments.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      19.8
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - What is the term used to describe an intense and brief emotional reaction...

    Correct

    • What is the term used to describe an intense and brief emotional reaction to a minor trigger?

      Your Answer: Emotional lability

      Explanation:

      Understanding Emotional Lability

      Emotional lability is a condition characterized by an excessive and brief emotional response to a minor stimulus. It is a common symptom of various neurological and psychiatric disorders, including traumatic brain injury, multiple sclerosis, Parkinson’s disease, bipolar disorder, and borderline personality disorder. People with emotional lability may experience sudden and intense mood swings, such as crying, laughing, anger, of irritability, that are out of proportion to the situation.

      One of the most challenging aspects of emotional lability is the lack of control over one’s emotions. Pathological crying of laughing is a common manifestation of emotional lability, where a person may burst into tears of laughter without any apparent reason of context. This can be embarrassing, distressing, and socially isolating, as it may be perceived as a sign of weakness, instability, of immaturity.

      Treatment for emotional lability depends on the underlying cause and severity of the symptoms. In some cases, medication, such as antidepressants, antipsychotics, of mood stabilizers, may be prescribed to regulate the mood and reduce the frequency and intensity of emotional outbursts. Psychotherapy, such as cognitive-behavioral therapy of dialectical behavior therapy, can also help individuals with emotional lability to develop coping skills, emotional regulation strategies, and interpersonal communication skills.

      It is important to note that emotional lability is not a character flaw of a personal weakness, but a medical condition that requires proper diagnosis and treatment. Seeking professional help from a qualified healthcare provider can help individuals with emotional lability to improve their quality of life, enhance their relationships, and regain their emotional stability and resilience.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      37.1
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - The midbrain, medulla and pons, contain the following cranial nerve nuclei? ...

    Correct

    • The midbrain, medulla and pons, contain the following cranial nerve nuclei?

      Your Answer: CN 3 - 12

      Explanation:

      The cranial nerves (with the exception of I and II) originate in the brainstem, which includes the midbrain, the pons, and the medulla.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neuro-anatomy
      271.5
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - What physiological factor is the QTc, calculated using Bazett's formula, corrected for? ...

    Correct

    • What physiological factor is the QTc, calculated using Bazett's formula, corrected for?

      Your Answer: RR interval

      Explanation:

      The Bazett formula adjusts the QT interval for heart rate by taking the square root of the R-R interval and dividing the QT interval by it.

      QTc Prolongation: Risks and Identification

      The QT interval is a measure of the time it takes for the ventricles to repolarize and is calculated from the beginning of the QRS complex to the end of the T wave. However, the QT interval varies with the heart rate, making it difficult to use a single number as a cut-off for a prolonged QT. Instead, a corrected QT interval (QTc) is calculated for each heart rate using various formulas. A QTc over the 99th percentile is considered abnormally prolonged, with approximate values of 470 ms for males and 480 ms for females.

      Prolonged QT intervals can lead to torsade de pointes (TdP), a polymorphic ventricular tachycardia that can be fatal if it degenerates into ventricular fibrillation. TdP is characterized by a twisting of the QRS complexes around an isoelectric line and is often asymptomatic but can also be associated with syncope and death. An accurate diagnosis requires an ECG to be recorded during the event. It is important to note that an increase in the QT interval due to a new conduction block should not be considered indicative of acquired LQTS and risk for TdP.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      153.1
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Which statement about the anatomy of the basal ganglia is accurate? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement about the anatomy of the basal ganglia is accurate?

      Your Answer: The putamen and globus pallidus are collectively referred to as the striatum

      Correct Answer: The subthalamic nucleus is part of the basal ganglia

      Explanation:

      The Basal Ganglia: Functions and Disorders

      The basal ganglia are a group of subcortical structures that play a crucial role in controlling movement and some cognitive processes. The components of the basal ganglia include the striatum (caudate, putamen, nucleus accumbens), subthalamic nucleus, globus pallidus, and substantia nigra (divided into pars compacta and pars reticulata). The putamen and globus pallidus are collectively referred to as the lenticular nucleus.

      The basal ganglia are connected in a complex loop, with the cortex projecting to the striatum, the striatum to the internal segment of the globus pallidus, the internal segment of the globus pallidus to the thalamus, and the thalamus back to the cortex. This loop is responsible for regulating movement and cognitive processes.

      However, problems with the basal ganglia can lead to several conditions. Huntington’s chorea is caused by degeneration of the caudate nucleus, while Wilson’s disease is characterized by copper deposition in the basal ganglia. Parkinson’s disease is associated with degeneration of the substantia nigra, and hemiballism results from damage to the subthalamic nucleus.

      In summary, the basal ganglia are a crucial part of the brain that regulate movement and some cognitive processes. Disorders of the basal ganglia can lead to significant neurological conditions that affect movement and other functions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      57
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - What is the cause of diabetes insipidus induced by lithium? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the cause of diabetes insipidus induced by lithium?

      Your Answer: Unopposed action of atrial natriuretic peptide

      Correct Answer: Impaired action of ADH on principal cells

      Explanation:

      Lithium – Pharmacology

      Pharmacokinetics:
      Lithium salts are rapidly absorbed following oral administration and are almost exclusively excreted by the kidneys unchanged. Blood samples for lithium should be taken 12 hours post-dose.

      Ebstein’s:
      Ebstein’s anomaly is a congenital malformation consisting of a prolapse of the tricuspid valve into the right ventricle. It occurs in 1:20,000 of the general population. Initial data suggested it was more common in those using lithium but this had not held to be true.

      Contraindications:
      Addison’s disease, Brugada syndrome, cardiac disease associated with rhythm disorders, clinically significant renal impairment, untreated of untreatable hypothyroidism, low sodium levels.

      Side-effects:
      Common side effects include nausea, tremor, polyuria/polydipsia, rash/dermatitis, blurred vision, dizziness, decreased appetite, drowsiness, metallic taste, and diarrhea. Side-effects are often dose-related.

      Long-term use is associated with hypothyroidism, hyperthyroidism, hypercalcemia/hyperparathyroidism, irreversible nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, and reduced GFR.

      Lithium-induced diabetes insipidus:
      Treatment options include stopping lithium (if feasible), keeping levels within 0.4-0.8 mmol/L, once-daily dose of the drug taken at bedtime, amiloride, thiazide diuretics, indomethacin, and desmopressin.

      Toxicity:
      Lithium salts have a narrow therapeutic/toxic ratio. Risk factors for lithium toxicity include drugs altering renal function, decreased circulating volume, infections, fever, decreased oral intake of water, renal insufficiency, and nephrogenic diabetes insipidus. Features of lithium toxicity include GI symptoms and neuro symptoms.

      Pre-prescribing:
      Before prescribing lithium, renal function, cardiac function, thyroid function, FBC, and BMI should be checked. Women of childbearing age should be advised regarding contraception, and information about toxicity should be provided.

      Monitoring:
      Lithium blood levels should be checked weekly until stable, and then every 3-6 months once stable. Thyroid and renal function should be checked every 6 months. Patients should be issued with an information booklet, alert card, and record book.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      11.4
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - How can the pattern of inheritance that exhibits a knight's move be described?...

    Correct

    • How can the pattern of inheritance that exhibits a knight's move be described?

      Your Answer: X-linked recessive

      Explanation:

      Inheritance Patterns:

      Autosomal Dominant Conditions:
      – Can be transmitted from one generation to the next (vertical transmission) through all forms of transmission observed (male to male, male to female, female to female).
      – Males and females are affected in equal proportions.
      – Usually, one parent is an affected heterozygote and the other is an unaffected homozygote.
      – If only one parent is affected, there is a 50% chance that a child will inherit the mutated gene.

      Autosomal Recessive Conditions:
      – Males and females are affected in equal proportions.
      – Two copies of the gene must be mutated for a person to be affected.
      – Both parents are usually unaffected heterozygotes.
      – Two unaffected people who each carry one copy of the mutated gene have a 25% chance with each pregnancy of having a child affected by the disorder.

      X-linked Dominant Conditions:
      – Males and females are both affected, with males typically being more severely affected than females.
      – The sons of a man with an X-linked dominant disorder will all be unaffected.
      – A woman with an X-linked dominant disorder has a 50% chance of having an affected fetus.

      X-linked Recessive Conditions:
      – Males are more frequently affected than females.
      – Transmitted through carrier females to their sons (knights move pattern).
      – Affected males cannot pass the condition onto their sons.
      – A woman who is a carrier of an X-linked recessive disorder has a 50% chance of having sons who are affected and a 50% chance of having daughters who are carriers.

      Y-linked Conditions:
      – Every son of an affected father will be affected.
      – Female offspring of affected fathers are never affected.

      Mitochondrial Inheritance:
      – Mitochondria are inherited only in the maternal ova and not in sperm.
      – Males and females are affected, but always being maternally inherited.
      – An affected male does not pass on his mitochondria to his children, so all his children will be unaffected.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      95.4
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Which of the following is not a typical feature of depersonalization? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is not a typical feature of depersonalization?

      Your Answer: The experience is pleasant

      Explanation:

      Depersonalisation is a distressing condition that is solely based on an individual’s perception. It affects one’s auditory and tactile senses, as well as causing a sense of emptiness in their thoughts. Despite this, the person’s awareness remains intact, and they may experience an increased sense of self-awareness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • History And Mental State
      44.6
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 35-year-old man is experiencing anxiety and wants to rate his level of...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man is experiencing anxiety and wants to rate his level of anxiety. Which rating scale would be most suitable for him to use?

      Your Answer: All of the above

      Correct Answer: Beck's depression inventory (BDI)

      Explanation:

      The Beck depression inventory (BDI of BDI-II) was created by Dr. Aaron T. Beck to measure the severity of depression. It consists of 21 multiple choice questions, with each answer being assigned a score from 0-3. The total score ranges from 0-63, with scores of 0-9 indicating minimal depression, 10-18 indicating mild depression, 19-29 indicating moderate depression, and 30-63 indicating severe depression.

      The Hamilton rating scale for depression (HAM-D) is a clinician-rated scale used to monitor the severity of depression and assess the effects of treatment.

      The standard assessment of depressive disorders (SADD) is a semi-structured, clinician-rated instrument developed by the WHO for assessing depressive disorders.

      The Montgomery-Asberg depression rating scale (MADRS) is a clinician-rated diagnostic questionnaire consisting of 10 items used to measure the severity of depressive episodes in patients with mood disorders. Each item can be scored from 0-6, with a maximum score of 60. There is also a self-rated version of MADRS called MADRS-S, which consists of 9 questions and has a maximum score of 54.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Description And Measurement
      51.6
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Which of the following runs in the upper part of the falx cerebri?...

    Correct

    • Which of the following runs in the upper part of the falx cerebri?

      Your Answer: Superior sagittal sinus

      Explanation:

      Falx cerebri is a sickle cell fold of dura between the two hemispheres. Its posterior part blends with the superior part of the tentorium cerebelli. The superior sagittal sinus runs in its upper fixed margin, the inferior sagittal sinus in the free concave margin and the straight sinus along its attachment to the tentorium cerebelli.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neuro-anatomy
      16.8
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - As per the definitions provided by the World Health Organization (WHO), what constitutes...

    Incorrect

    • As per the definitions provided by the World Health Organization (WHO), what constitutes an infant death?

      Your Answer: A live-born infant that dies after one month but before one year

      Correct Answer: A live-born infant that dies within 28 days

      Explanation:

      A neonatal death refers to the death of a newborn baby within 28 days of birth. If the death occurs within the first seven days, it is classified as an early neonatal death, while a death that occurs between seven and 28 days is considered a late neonatal death. A stillbirth is the term used to describe the death of a fetus before birth, but after 24 weeks of gestation. Finally, if a live-born infant dies after one month but before reaching one year of age, it is classified as a postnatal death.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology
      110.8
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Which of the following is not an example of delusional misidentification? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is not an example of delusional misidentification?

      Your Answer: Intermetamorphosis

      Correct Answer: Cotard's syndrome

      Explanation:

      Cotard’s syndrome is a condition where an individual has a false belief that they are deceased of do not exist.

      Delusional Misidentification Syndrome

      Delusional misidentification syndrome refers to a group of disorders where individuals believe that the identity of a person, object, of place has been altered of changed. There are several subtypes of this syndrome, including Capgras syndrome, Fregoli syndrome, intermetamorphosis, subjective doubles, reduplicative paramnesia, mirrored self, delusional companions, and clonal pluralisation of the self. Each subtype is characterised by a specific delusion, such as believing that a loved one has been replaced by an exact double of that a place has been duplicated. These delusions can have a significant impact on an individual’s daily life and require appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      260.7
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Psychopharmacology (2/4) 50%
Classification And Assessment (1/3) 33%
Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice (0/1) 0%
Neuro-anatomy (3/5) 60%
Neurosciences (0/3) 0%
Genetics (1/1) 100%
History And Mental State (1/1) 100%
Description And Measurement (0/1) 0%
Epidemiology (0/1) 0%
Passmed