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  • Question 1 - A 22-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with a sore throat, low-grade...

    Correct

    • A 22-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with a sore throat, low-grade fever, and malaise. His partner has infectious mononucleosis, which was recently diagnosed. In this situation, which of the following cells is the most proliferative:

      Your Answer: Lymphocytes

      Explanation:

      Histologic findings in EBV infectious mononucleosis: Oropharyngeal epithelium demonstrates an intense lymphoproliferative response in the cells of the oropharynx. The lymph nodes and spleen show lymphocytic infiltration primarily in the periphery of a lymph node.
      Relative lymphocytosis (≥ 60%) plus atypical lymphocytosis (≥ 10%) are the characteristic findings of Epstein Barr virus (EBV) infectious mononucleosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immune Responses
      • Pathology
      9.9
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 6-year-old girl is brought to the nephrology clinic by her mother due...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old girl is brought to the nephrology clinic by her mother due to facial oedema. Her lab workup shows proteinuria of 7 g/24 hours and serum albumin levels of 15 g/L. A diagnosis of Nephrotic Syndrome is made, and corticosteroid therapy is initiated.

      Which one of the following is the most likely cause of nephrotic syndrome in this patient?

      Your Answer: Membranous glomerulonephritis

      Correct Answer: Minimal change disease

      Explanation:

      Minimal Change Disease is the most common cause of Nephrotic Syndrome in the paediatric population. It may be caused by NSAID use. Electron microscopy shows the fusion of foot processes while light microscopy will appear normal.

      Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis causes Nephrotic Syndrome in adults. It is associated with Heroin use and HIV infection. There is a limited response to steroids, and the disease progresses to end-stage renal failure in 5-10 years.

      Diabetic nephropathy occurs after a long period of diabetes due to the deposition of amyloid protein leading to a decrease in glomerular filtration.

      There is no history of Hepatitis B in this patient and no symptoms of liver disease such as jaundice.

      Membranous glomerulonephritis would present with features of Nephritic Syndrome. These would be oedema, haematuria; red blood cell casts in the urine and hypertension.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Pathology
      • Pathology
      15.6
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - The most important Complement protein for antigen opsonization is: ...

    Correct

    • The most important Complement protein for antigen opsonization is:

      Your Answer: C3b

      Explanation:

      Phagocytosis is largely responsible for depletion of cells coated with antibodies. Cells opsonized by IgG antibodies are recognized by phagocyte Fc receptors, which are specific for the Fc portions of some IgG subclasses. In addition, when IgM or IgG antibodies are deposited on the surfaces of cells, they may activate the complement system by the classical pathway. Complement activation generates by-products, mainly C3b and C4b, which are deposited on the surfaces of the cells and recognized by phagocytes that express receptors for these proteins. The net result is phagocytosis of the opsonized cells and their destruction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immune Responses
      • Pathology
      81.1
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Eosinophils comprise what percentage of circulating white cells: ...

    Incorrect

    • Eosinophils comprise what percentage of circulating white cells:

      Your Answer: 0.2

      Correct Answer: 1 - 3%

      Explanation:

      Eosinophils comprise 1 – 3% of circulating white cells. Eosinophils are similar to neutrophils, except that the cytoplasmic granules are coarser and more deeply red staining, and there are rarely more than three nuclear lobes. They are less motile, but longer lived. They enter inflammatory exudates and have a special role in allergic responses, defence against parasites and removal of fibrin formed during inflammation. Thus they play a role in local immunity and tissue repair.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immune Responses
      • Pathology
      34
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 31-year-old man with sickle-cell disease receives a blood transfusion for symptomatic anaemia....

    Incorrect

    • A 31-year-old man with sickle-cell disease receives a blood transfusion for symptomatic anaemia. He presents to the Emergency Department three weeks later with a rash, fever, and diarrhoea. He has pancytopenia and abnormal liver function results on blood tests.

      Which of the transfusion reactions is most likely to have happened?

      Your Answer: Delayed haemolytic reaction

      Correct Answer: Graft-vs-host disease

      Explanation:

      Blood transfusion can be a life-saving treatment with significant clinical benefits, but it also comes with a number of risks and potential complications, including:
      Immunological side effects
      Errors in administration (episodes of ‘wrong blood’)
      Viruses and Infections (bacterial, viral, possibly prion)
      Immunodilution

      A culture of better safety procedures as well as steps to reduce the use of transfusion has emerged as a result of growing awareness of avoidable risk and improved reporting systems. Transfusion errors, on the other hand, continue to occur, and some serious adverse reactions go unreported.

      Transfusion-associated graft-vs-host disease (TA-GVHD) is a rare blood transfusion complication that causes fever, rash, and diarrhoea 1-4 weeks after the transfusion. Pancytopenia and liver function abnormalities are common laboratory findings.

      TA-GVHD, unlike GVHD following allogeneic marrow transplantation, causes profound marrow aplasia with a mortality rate of >90%. Survival is uncommon, with death occurring within 1-3 weeks of the onset of symptoms.

      Because of immunodeficiency, severe immunosuppression, or shared HLA antigens, viable T lymphocytes in blood components are transfused, engraft, and react against the recipient’s tissues, and the recipient is unable to reject the donor lymphocytes.
      The following is a list of the most common transfusion reactions and complications:

      1) Reaction to a febrile transfusion
      The temperature rises by one degree from the baseline. Chills and malaise are also possible symptoms.
      The most common response (1 in 8 transfusions).
      Cytokines from leukocytes in transfused red cell or platelet components are usually to blame.
      Only supportive. The use of paracetamol is beneficial.

      2) Acute haemolytic reaction is a type of haemolytic reaction that occurs when the
      Fever, chills, pain at the transfusion site, nausea, vomiting, and dark urine are all symptoms of a transfusion reaction.
      Early on, many people report a sense of ‘impending doom.’
      The most serious reaction. ABO incompatibility is frequently caused by a clerical error.
      STOP THE TRANSFUSION OF INFORMATION. IV fluids should be given. It’s possible that diuretics will be required.

      3) Haemolytic reaction that is delayed
      It usually happens 4 to 8 days after a blood transfusion.
      Fever, anaemia, jaundice, and haemoglobinuria are all symptoms that the patient has.
      Positive Coombs test for direct antiglobulin.
      Because of the low titre antibody, it is difficult to detect in a cross-match, and it is unable to cause lysis at the time of transfusion.
      The majority of delayed haemolytic reactions are harmless and do not require treatment.
      Anaemia and renal function should be monitored and treated as needed.

      4) Reaction to allergens
      Foreign plasma proteins are usually to blame, but anti-IgA could also be to blame.
      Urticaria, pruritus, and hives are typical allergic reactions. It’s possible that it’s linked to laryngeal oedema or bronchospasm.
      Anaphylaxis is a rare occurrence.
      Antihistamines can be used to treat allergic reactions symptomatically. It is not necessary to stop transfusions.
      If the patient develops anaphylaxis, the transfusion should be stopped and the patient should be given adrenaline and treated according to the ALS protocol.

      5) TRALI (Transfusion Related Acute Lung Injury)
      Within 6 hours of transfusion, there was a sudden onset of non-cardiogenic pulmonary oedema.
      It’s linked to the presence of antibodies to recipient leukocyte antigens in the donor blood.
      The most common cause of death from transfusion reactions is this.
      STOP THE TRANSFUSION OF INFORMATION. Oxygen should be given to the patient. Around 75% of patients will require aggressive respiratory support.
      The use of diuretics should be avoided.

      6) TACO (Transfusion Associated Circulatory Overload)
      Acute or worsening respiratory distress within 6 hours of a large blood transfusion. Fluid overload and pulmonary and peripheral oedema can be seen. Rapid blood pressure rises are common. BNP is usually 1.5 times higher than it was before the transfusion. It is most common in the elderly and those who have chronic anaemia.

      Blood transfusions should be given slowly, over the course of 3-4 hours.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      74.1
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - How does aspirin mediate its antiplatelet effect: ...

    Correct

    • How does aspirin mediate its antiplatelet effect:

      Your Answer: It irreversibly inhibits cyclo-oxygenase

      Explanation:

      Aspirin irreversibly inhibits cyclooxygenase and blocks the platelet production of thromboxane A2 (TXA2), thus inhibiting platelet aggregation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      8.9
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Mast cells play a significant part in which of the following? ...

    Incorrect

    • Mast cells play a significant part in which of the following?

      Your Answer: Killing tumour cells

      Correct Answer: Allergic disease

      Explanation:

      Mast cells play a central role in the response to allergen challenges. The activation of mast cells results in both an early and a delayed phase of inflammation. Mast cells have been implicated in both physiologic and pathogenic processes. Mast cells are important in defence against some bacteria and viruses and contribute to defence against parasites. They are key effector cells in both innate and acquired immunity and are capable of inducing and amplifying both types of responses. Specifically, mast cells are capable of detecting microbial products through surface pattern recognition receptors, and they are involved in the recruitment of other leukocytes, containment of bacterial infections, and tissue repair.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immune Responses
      • Pathology
      10.9
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Liquefactive necrosis is most commonly seen in which of the following conditions: ...

    Correct

    • Liquefactive necrosis is most commonly seen in which of the following conditions:

      Your Answer: Ischaemic stroke

      Explanation:

      Liquefactive necrosis results in the loss of all cellular structure and the formation of a soft, semi-solid mass. This is commonly seen in the brain after a cerebral infarction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Inflammatory Responses
      • Pathology
      5.5
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Which of the following is NOT a common clinical manifestation of sickle cell...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is NOT a common clinical manifestation of sickle cell disease?

      Your Answer: Iron deficiency

      Explanation:

      Signs and symptoms of Sickle cell disease(SCD):
      Acute and chronic pain: The most common clinical manifestation of SCD is vaso-occlusive crisis; pain crises are the most distinguishing clinical feature of SCD
      Bone pain: Often seen in long bones of extremities, primarily due to bone marrow infarction
      Anaemia: Universally present, chronic, and haemolytic in nature
      Aplastic crisis: Serious complication due to infection with parvovirus B19 (B19V)
      Splenic sequestration: Characterized by the onset of life-threatening anaemia with rapid enlargement of the spleen and high reticulocyte count
      Infection: Organisms that pose the greatest danger include encapsulated respiratory bacteria, particularly Streptococcus pneumoniae; adult infections are predominantly with gram-negative organisms, especially Salmonella
      Growth retardation, delayed sexual maturation, being underweight
      Hand-foot syndrome: This is a dactylitis presenting as bilateral painful and swollen hands and/or feet in children
      Acute chest syndrome: Young children present with chest pain, fever, cough, tachypnoea, leucocytosis, and pulmonary infiltrates in the upper lobes; adults are usually afebrile, dyspnoeic with severe chest pain, with multilobar/lower lobe disease
      Pulmonary hypertension: Increasingly recognized as a serious complication of SCD
      Avascular necrosis of the femoral or humeral head: Due to vascular occlusion
      Central nervous system (CNS) involvement: Most severe manifestation is stroke
      Ophthalmologic involvement: Ptosis, retinal vascular changes, proliferative retinitis
      Cardiac involvement: Dilation of both ventricles and the left atrium
      Gastrointestinal involvement: Cholelithiasis is common in children; liver may become involved
      Genitourinary involvement: Kidneys lose concentrating capacity; priapism is a well-recognized complication of SCD
      Dermatologic involvement: Leg ulcers are a chronic painful problem

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      7.4
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Which of the following blood groups is the universal donor: ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following blood groups is the universal donor:

      Your Answer: O

      Explanation:

      Blood group O has no antigens, but both anti-A and anti-B antibodies and thus is the universal donor.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immune Responses
      • Pathology
      6
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Immune Responses (3/5) 60%
Pathology (6/10) 60%
General Pathology (0/1) 0%
Haematology (2/3) 67%
Inflammatory Responses (1/1) 100%
Passmed