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Question 1
Correct
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After collapsing in his nursing home, a 70-year-old man is brought into the ER. He has diabetes mellitus and is on medication for it. An RBS of 2.0 mmol/L (3.9-5.5 mmol/L) is recorded in the ER.
Out of the following, which medication for diabetes mellitus is LEAST likely responsible for his hypoglycaemic episode?Your Answer: Metformin
Explanation:Metformin is a biguanide used as the first-line to treat type 2 diabetes mellitus. It has a good reputation as it has an extremely low risk of causing hypoglycaemia compared to the other agents for diabetes. It does not affect the insulin secreted by the pancreas or increase insulin levels. Toxicity with metformin can, however, cause lactic acidosis with associated hypoglycaemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine Pharmacology
- Pharmacology
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Question 2
Correct
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A 25-year-old girl just got back from a trip to Northern India. She complains of headaches and intermittent fever. The fever starts with intense chills, then feels very hot, followed by profuse sweating. She is drowsy and is running a fever of 39.0°C. On examination, there are no palpable lymph nodes or rash seen. She has hepatosplenomegaly.
Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Malaria
Explanation:Malaria is a protozoal infection of red blood cells and the liver. It is caused by the parasite belonging to the genus Plasmodium. It is transmitted by the female mosquito Anopheles.
Several species with distinct features:
P. vivax/P. ovale
P. malariae
P. falciparumThe common symptoms of malaria are:
Paroxysms of fever – a cyclical occurrence of:
1) a cold phase – the patient experiences intense chills
2) a hot stage – the patient feels extremely hot
3) a sweating stage – the fever declines and the patient sweats profusely
– Fever recurs at regular intervals (48hrs, 72hrs): Variable by species of PlasmodiumAnaemia (RBC infection)
– Severity varies by species of Plasmodium
– Haemolytic: sometimes jaundiceSplenomegaly
Also nonspecific symptoms:
– Sweating
– fatigue
– malaise
– arthralgias
– headache
– Sometimes cough, vomiting, diarrhoea -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
- Specific Pathogen Groups
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Question 3
Correct
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A 59-year-old woman presents with a history of tiredness and weight gain and a diagnosis of hypothyroidism is suspected.
Which of these changes is likely to appear first in primary hypothyroidism?Your Answer: Increased thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)
Explanation:The earliest biochemical change seen in hypothyroidism is an increase in thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) levels.
Triiodothyronine (T3) and thyroxine (T4) levels are normal in the early stages.
TBG levels are generally unchanged in primary hypothyroidism.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine Physiology
- Physiology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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For a tachyarrhythmia caused by hypovolaemic shock, which of the following is the first-line treatment:
Your Answer: Amiodarone
Correct Answer: Synchronised DC shock
Explanation:If there are any adverse symptoms, immediate cardioversion with synchronized DC shock is recommended. If cardioversion fails to stop the arrhythmia and the symptoms persist, amiodarone 300 mg IV over 10–20 minutes should be administered before attempting another cardioversion. The loading dosage of amiodarone is followed by a 24-hour infusion of 900 mg administered into a large vein.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Pharmacology
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Question 5
Correct
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What type of pump is the Na+/K+ATPase pump?
Your Answer: An antiporter
Explanation:In order for primary active transport to pump ions against their electrochemical gradient, chemical energy is used in the form of ATP. This is facilitated by the Na+/K+-ATPase antiporter pump, which uses metabolic energy to move 3 Na+ions out of the cell for every 2 K+ions that come in, against their respective electrochemical gradients. As a result, the cell the maintains a high intracellular concentration of K+ions and a low concentration of Na+ions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Cellular
- Physiology
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Question 6
Correct
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Regarding meningococcal meningitis, which of the following statements is CORRECT:
Your Answer: Infection occurs most commonly below the age of 5 years.
Explanation:About half of meningococcal disease occurs in children aged less than five years, and babies are at the highest risk because their immune systems have not yet fully developed. There is a second, smaller increase in risk for older adolescents, mainly for social and behavioural reasons. Infection is most common in winter months. Antibiotics should be given as soon as the diagnosis is suspected (ideally cultures should be performed first but this should not delay treatment), and ceftriaxone/cefuroxime is the first line antibiotic. Only healthcare workers who have been directly exposed to large particle droplets/secretions from the respiratory tract of the index case should receive prophylaxis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
- Pathogens
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Question 7
Correct
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A 28-year-old woman in her second trimester is diagnosed with a psychiatric illness. She is started on treatment with a drug. The treatment results in her baby being born with poor tone, feeding problems, hypothyroidism, and a goitre
Out of the following, which drug is most likely responsible for the baby's condition?Your Answer: Lithium
Explanation:In pregnancy and postpartum, lithium is an effective treatment for relapse prevention in bipolar disorder. However, lithium has also been associated with risks during pregnancy for both the mother and the unborn child. Recent large studies have confirmed the association between first-trimester lithium exposure and an increased risk of congenital malformations.
Lithium levels need to be monitored more frequently throughout pregnancy and the postnatal period.
If given in the 1st-trimester, lithium is associated with a risk of fetal cardiac malformations, such as Ebstein’s anomaly.
If given in the 2nd and 3rd-trimesters, there is a risk of the following:
1. hypotonia
2. lethargy
3. feeding problems
4. hypothyroidism
5. goitre
6. nephrogenic diabetes insipidus in the neonate -
This question is part of the following fields:
- CNS Pharmacology
- Pharmacology
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Question 8
Correct
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A 5-year-old girl presents in a paediatric clinic with symptoms of viral gastroenteritis. You encourage the mother to treat the child at home with oral rehydration therapy (ORT), e.g. dioralyte.
Out of the following, which statement is FALSE regarding the use of ORT in the management of gastroenteritis?Your Answer: ORT is sugar-free
Explanation:One of the major complications of gastroenteritis is dehydration. Choosing the correct fluid replacement therapy is essential according to a patient’s hydration status.
Oral rehydration therapy (ORT) refers to the restitution of water and electrolyte deficits in dehydrated patients using an oral rehydration salt (ORS) solution. It is a fluid replacement strategy that is less invasive than other strategies for fluid replacement and has successfully lowered the mortality rate of diarrhoea in developing countries.
Some characteristics of Oral rehydration solutions are:
– slightly hypo-osmolar (about 250 mmol/litre) to prevent the possible induction of osmotic diarrhoea.
– contain glucose (e.g. 90 mmol/L in dioralyte). The addition of glucose improves sodium and water absorption in the bowel and prevents hypoglycaemia.
– also contains essential mineral saltsCurrent NICE guidance recommends that 50 ml/kg is given over 4 hours to treat mild dehydration.
Once rehydrated, a child should continue with their usual daily fluid intake plus 200 ml ORT after each loose stool. In an infant, give ORT at 1-1.5 x the normal feed volume and in an adult, give 200-400 ml after each loose stool. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Fluids & Electrolytes
- Pharmacology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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Regarding likelihood ratios, which of the following statements is INCORRECT:
Your Answer: A test with a low negative likelihood ratio is good at increasing certainty about the absence of a disorder.
Correct Answer: Likelihood ratios, like predictive values, are affected by the prevalence of the disease in the population.
Explanation:A likelihood ratio is a measure of the diagnostic value of a test. Likelihood ratios show how many times more likely patients with a disease are to have a particular test result than patients without the disease. Likelihood ratios are more useful than predictive values because they are calculated from sensitivity and specificity and therefore remain constant even when the prevalence of the disorder changes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Medicine
- Statistics
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Question 10
Incorrect
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What is the approximate lifespan of the mature erythrocyte:
Your Answer: 90 days
Correct Answer: 120 days
Explanation:Erythrocytes have a normal lifespan of about 120 days. Mature erythrocytes are biconcave discs with no nucleus, ribosomes or mitochondria but with the ability to generate energy as ATP by the anaerobic glycolytic pathway. The red cell membrane consists of a bipolar lipid layer with a membrane skeleton of penetrating and integral proteins anchoring carbohydrate surface antigens. The shape and flexibility of red cells allows them to deform easily and pass through capillaries.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Cellular
- Physiology
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Question 11
Correct
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Regarding dermatophytes, which of the following statement is CORRECT:
Your Answer: Diagnosis is made from microscopy and culture of skin scrapings, hair samples or nail clippings.
Explanation:Diagnosis is made from microscopy and culture of skin scrapings, hair samples or nail clippings depending on the site of infection. The lesions of ringworm typically have a dark outer ring with a pale centre. Tinea capitis is ringworm affecting the head and scalp. Spread is via direct skin contact. Treatment is usually topical, oral antifungals are reserved for refractory infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
- Pathogens
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Question 12
Correct
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Which of the following acts to inhibit antidiuretic hormone (ADH) release from the posterior pituitary:
Your Answer: Atrial natriuretic peptide
Explanation:ADH release is inhibited by low plasma osmolality, alcohol, caffeine, glucocorticoids and atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP).
ADH release is stimulated primarily by raised plasma osmolality detected by osmoreceptors in the anterior hypothalamus. Other factors that increase ADH release include: extracellular fluid volume depletion, angiotensin II, nausea, pain, stress, exercise, emotion, hypoglycaemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine
- Physiology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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Superficial fibular nerve palsy results in which of the following clinical features:
Your Answer: Loss of eversion and weakness of dorsiflexion of the foot
Correct Answer: Loss of eversion of the foot
Explanation:Damage to the superficial fibular nerve results in loss of eversion of the foot and loss of sensation over the lower anterolateral leg and the dorsum of the foot.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Lower Limb
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Question 14
Correct
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A 32-old woman comes for a follow-up visit after being discharged on medications for her newly diagnosed epilepsy. She now complains of a tremor in her arm when she holds a tray in her hand. You examine the patient and notice she has developed postural tremors.
Which of the following medications for epilepsy is most likely responsible for this tremor?Your Answer: Sodium valproate
Explanation:A postural tumour is observed when a person maintains a position against gravity, such as holding the arms outstretched. (The patient holding her tray against gravity)
Sodium valproate is the most commonly prescribed medication for epilepsy. It is commonly associated with tremors as valproate-induced tremors occur in around 6-45% of patients. The tremors are commonly postural, but a resting tremor may also occur.
Approximately 25% of patients taking sodium valproate are found to develop a tremor within 3-12 months of initiating therapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- CNS Pharmacology
- Pharmacology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 43 year old lady who has a previous medical history of hyperthyroidism presents to the emergency room with sweating, palpitations and agitation. On examination, she is tachycardic, hypertensive and hyperpyrexic. She recently had a stomach bug and has not been able to take her medication regularly. The best medication to immediately treat her symptoms is which of the following?
Your Answer: Carbimazole
Correct Answer: Propranolol
Explanation:There is a high suspicion of a thyroid crisis in this patient and emergent treatment should be initiated even before the results of TFT’s have returned. Antiadrenergic drugs like IV propranolol should be administered immediately to minimise sympathomimetic symptoms. Antithyroid medications like propylthiouracil or carbimazole should be administered to block further synthesis of thyroid hormones. After thionamide therapy has been started to prevent stimulation of new hormone synthesis, there should then be delayed administration of oral iodine solution. Hydrocortisone administration is also recommended as it treats possible relative adrenal insufficiency while also decreases peripheral conversion of T4 to T3.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine
- Pharmacology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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Which of the following is an example of discrete data:
Your Answer: Disease staging system
Correct Answer: Number of children
Explanation:Discrete data is quantitative data that can only take whole numerical values e.g. number of children, number of days missed from work.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Medicine
- Statistics
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Question 17
Correct
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Which statement concerning aerosol transmission is true?
Your Answer: They can be spread via ventilation systems in hospitals
Explanation:Aerosols are airborne particles less than 5 µm in size containing infective organisms.
They usually cause infection of both the upper and/or lower respiratory tract.
The organisms can remain suspended in the air for long periods and also survive outside the body.
They can be transmitted through the ventilation systems and can spread over great distances.
Some examples of organisms transmitted by the aerosol route include: Varicella zoster virus, Mycobacterium tuberculosis and measles virus
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
- Principles Of Microbiology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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All of the following statements are considered true regarding nominal variables, except:
Your Answer: They are categorical variables
Correct Answer: The central tendency of a nominal variable is given by its median
Explanation:A nominal variable is a type of variable that is used to name, label or categorize particular attributes that are being measured. It takes qualitative values representing different categories, and there is no intrinsic ordering of these categories.
A nominal variable is one of the 2 types of categorical variables and is the simplest among all the measurement variables. Some examples of nominal variables include gender, name, phone, etc.A nominal variable is qualitative, which means numbers are used here only to categorize or identify objects. They can also take quantitative values. However, these quantitative values do not have numeric properties. That is, arithmetic operations cannot be performed on them. If the variable is nominal, the mode is the only measure of central tendency to use.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Medicine
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Question 19
Correct
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A patient with abdominal pain, vomiting and bloody diarrhoea develops a low platelet count and deranged renal function. A diagnosis of haemolytic uraemic syndrome is made.
Which of the following organisms is a recognised cause of haemolytic uraemic syndrome? Select ONE answer only.Your Answer: Escherichia coli
Explanation:E.Colistrain 0157 causes enterohaemorrhagic diarrhoea and can be followed by haemolytic uraemic syndrome (renal failure, haemolytic anaemia and thrombocytopenia).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
- Specific Pathogen Groups
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Question 20
Incorrect
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Which of the following is NOT a typical cerebellar sign:
Your Answer: Scanning/staccato speech
Correct Answer: Hypertonia
Explanation:Hypotonia means decreased muscle tone. It can be a condition on its own, called benign congenital hypotonia, or it can be indicative of another problem where there is progressive loss of muscle tone, such as muscular dystrophy or cerebral palsy. It is usually detected during infancy. Hypotonia is characteristic of cerebellar dysfunction.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Central Nervous System
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Question 21
Correct
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A possible diagnosis of Cushing's illness is being investigated in an overweight patient with resistant hypertension. A CRH (corticotropin-releasing hormone) test is scheduled.
Which of the following statements about corticotropin-releasing hormone is correct?Your Answer: It is produced by cells within the paraventricular nucleus of the hypothalamus
Explanation:Corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH) is a neurotransmitter and peptide hormone. It is generated by cells in the hypothalamic paraventricular nucleus (PVN) and released into the hypothalamo-hypophyseal portal system at the median eminence through neurosecretory terminals of these neurons. Stress causes the release of CRH.
The CRH is carried to the anterior pituitary through the hypothalamo-hypophyseal portal system, where it activates corticotrophs to release adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH). Cortisol, glucocorticoids, mineralocorticoids, and DHEA are all produced in response to ACTH.
Excessive CRH production causes the size and quantity of corticotrophs in the anterior pituitary to expand, which can lead to the creation of a corticotrope tumour that generates too much ACTH.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine Physiology
- Physiology
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Question 22
Correct
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A 61-year-old man complains of crushing chest pain that radiates to his left arm and jaw. An ECG is taken, and the lateral leads show extensive ST depression. His blood pressure is currently 190/123 mmHg, and as part of his treatment, you intend to begin drug therapy to lower it.
Which of the following is the INITIAL drug treatment for this patient's BP reduction?Your Answer: Glyceryl trinitrate
Explanation:End-organ damage (e.g. encephalopathy, intracranial haemorrhage, acute myocardial infarction or ischaemia, dissection, pulmonary oedema, nephropathy, eclampsia, papilledema, and/or angiopathic haemolytic anaemia) characterises a hypertensive emergency (also known as ‘accelerated hypertension’ or malignant hypertension’ It’s a life-threatening condition that necessitates rapid blood pressure reduction to avoid end-organ damage and a negative outcome.
In the presence of cardiac ischaemia, hypertensive emergencies require immediate treatment to prevent myocardial infarction.
Similarly, if myonecrosis occurs in the presence of an existing infarction, prompt treatment is required to prevent further myonecrosis. When thrombolysis is used as the primary reperfusion therapy for acute myocardial infarction, blood pressure control is especially important.
An intravenous nitrate is the drug of choice in this situation (e.g. GTN). These have a dual purpose in that they can help patients with ischaemic chest pain manage their symptoms. Because lowering blood pressure with nitrates isn’t always enough to achieve optimal results, intravenous beta-blockers are frequently used as a supplement. For this, intravenous atenolol and metoprolol are commonly used.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Pharmacology
- Pharmacology
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Question 23
Correct
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You are reviewing a patient complaining of loss of vision. Previous images shows a lesion at the optic chiasm. What type of visual field defect are you most likely to see in a lesion at the optic chiasm:
Your Answer: Bitemporal hemianopia
Explanation:A lesion at the optic chiasm will result in a bitemporal hemianopia.
A lesion of the optic nerve will result in ipsilateral monocular visual loss.
A lesion of the optic tract will result in a contralateral homonymous hemianopia. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Central Nervous System
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Question 24
Correct
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Hepatitis A is transmitted by which of the following routes:
Your Answer: Faecal-oral route
Explanation:Hepatitis A transmission is by the faecal-oral route; the virus is excreted in bile and shed in the faeces of infected people.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
- Pathogens
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Question 25
Correct
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The renal team is currently prescribing erythropoietin to a patient with chronic kidney disease.
Which of the following statements about erythropoietin is correct?Your Answer: It protects red blood cell progenitors from apoptosis
Explanation:Erythropoietin is a glycoprotein hormone that regulates the formation of red blood cells (red cell production). It is mostly produced by interstitial fibroblasts in the kidney, which are located near the PCT. It is also produced in the liver’s perisinusoidal cells, however this is more common during the foetal and perinatal periods.
The kidneys produce and secrete erythropoietin in response to hypoxia. On red blood cells, erythropoietin has two main effects:
– It encourages stem cells in the bone marrow to produce more red blood cells.
– It protects red blood cell progenitors and precursors from apoptosis by targeting them in the bone marrow.
As a result of the increased red cell mass, the oxygen-carrying capacity and oxygen delivery increase. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
- Renal Physiology
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Question 26
Correct
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Question 27
Correct
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Which of the following nerves is responsible for the symptoms of a patient with history of recurrent herpes simplex outbreaks on his face and presents with ophthalmic herpes zoster and a painful vesicle on the tip of his nose?
Your Answer: Nasociliary nerve
Explanation:Hutchinson sign relates to involvement of the tip of the nose from facial herpes zoster. It implies involvement of the external nasal branch of the nasociliary nerve which is a branch of the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve.
The nasociliary branch of the trigeminal nerve innervates the apex and lateral aspect of the nose, as well as the cornea. Therefore, lesions on the side or tip of the nose should raise suspicion of ocular involvement.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
- Specific Pathogen Groups
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Question 28
Correct
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Ipratropium bromide should be used with caution in patients with which of the following conditions:
Your Answer: Prostatic hyperplasia
Explanation:Ipratropium bromide is an antimuscarinic drug used in the management of acute asthma and COPD. It can provide short-term relief in chronic asthma, but short-acting β2agonists act more quickly and are preferred.
The BTS guidelines recommend that nebulised ipratropium bromide (0.5 mg 4-6 hourly) can be added to β2agonist treatment for patients with acute severe or life-threatening asthma or those with a poor initial response to β2 agonist therapy.
The aerosol inhalation of ipratropium can be used for short-term relief in mild chronic obstructive pulmonary disease in patients who are not already using a long-acting antimuscarinic drug (e.g. tiotropium).Its maximum effect occurs 30-60 minutes after use; its duration of action is 3-6 hours, and bronchodilation can usually be maintained with treatment three times per day.
The commonest side effect of ipratropium bromide is dry mouth. It can also trigger acute closed-angle glaucoma in susceptible patients. Tremor is commonly seen with β2agonists but not with antimuscarinics. Ipratropium bromide should be used with caution in: Men with prostatic hyperplasia and bladder-outflow obstruction (worsened urinary retention has been reported in elderly men), People with chronic kidney disease (CKD) stages 3 and above (because of the risk of drug toxicity), People with angle-closure glaucoma (nebulised mist of antimuscarinic drugs can precipitate or worsen acute angle-closure glaucoma) -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
- Respiratory
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Question 29
Correct
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You come across a 60-year-old woman with a history of chronic pancreatitis. Today she is complaining of epigastric pain. She has blood tests done especially to review her cholecystokinin levels.
Which of the following is a cholecystokinin (CCK) releasing site?Your Answer: I-cells in the upper small intestine
Explanation:The I-cells in the duodenum generate and release cholecystokinin (CCK), a peptide hormone. It has a crucial role in the digestion process as a hormonal regulator.
CCK cells are concentrated in the proximal small intestine, and when food is consumed, the hormone is produced into the bloodstream. The presence of partly digested lipids and proteins in the duodenum is one of the most powerful stimulus for CCK synthesis.
CCK’s key physiological effects include:
Encourages the pancreas to release digesting enzymes into the small intestine.
Stimulates gallbladder contraction and sphincter of Oddi relaxation, resulting in bile delivery into the duodenum.
Gastric emptying is inhibited, and gastric acid output is reduced.
Satiety induction is a process that involves inducing a feeling of fullness. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal Physiology
- Physiology
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Question 30
Correct
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A 45-year-old man, a known case of epilepsy, visits his neurologist with complaints of red, swollen gums.
Which of the following medications is most likely responsible for his symptoms?Your Answer: Phenytoin
Explanation:Phenytoin is a commonly used antiepileptic drug. A well-recognized side-effect of phenytoin is gingival enlargement and occurs in about 50% of patients receiving phenytoin. It is believed that reduced folate levels may cause this, and evidence suggests that folic acid supplementation may help prevent this in patients starting phenytoin.
As evidence suggests, drug-induced gingival enlargement may also improve by substituting with other anticonvulsant drugs and reinforcing a good oral hygiene regimen. Surgical excision of hyperplastic gingiva is often necessary to correct the aesthetic and functional impairment associated with this condition to manage it successfully.
Phenytoin is also the only anticonvulsant therapy associated with the development of Dupuytren’s contracture.
Other side effects are:
1. Ataxia
2. Drug-induced lupus
3. Hirsutism
4. Pruritic rash
5. Megaloblastic anaemia
6. Nystagmus -
This question is part of the following fields:
- CNS Pharmacology
- Pharmacology
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Question 31
Correct
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Compliance is greater in all but which one of the following:
Your Answer: Pulmonary oedema
Explanation:Compliance changes at different lung volumes. Initially at lower lung volumes the compliance of the lung is poor and greater pressure change is required to cause a change in volume. This occurs if the lungs become collapsed for a period of time. At functional residual capacity (FRC) compliance is optimal since the elastic recoil of the lung tending towards collapse is balanced by the tendency of the chest wall to spring outwards. At higher lung volumes the compliance of the lung again becomes less as the lung becomes stiffer. At all volumes, the base of the lung has a greater compliance than the apex. Patients with emphysema have increased compliance. Compliance is affected by a person’s age, sex and height.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
- Respiratory
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Question 32
Incorrect
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Regarding endothelin-1, which of the following statements is INCORRECT:
Your Answer: Endothelin-1 release is stimulated by angiotensin II and antidiuretic hormone.
Correct Answer: Endothelin-1 release is inhibited by noradrenaline.
Explanation:Endothelin-1 (ET-1) is an extremely potent vasoconstrictor peptide which is released from the endothelium in the presence of many other vasoconstrictors, including angiotensin II, antidiuretic hormone (ADH) and noradrenaline, and may be increased in disease and hypoxia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Physiology
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Question 33
Correct
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You examine a 34-year-old lady with symptoms that are consistent with acute sinusitis. You're thinking about giving her doxycycline for treatment.
What is doxycycline's mechanism of action?Your Answer: Inhibition of protein synthesis
Explanation:Doxycycline and other tetracycline antibiotics attach to the 30S subunit of the bacterial ribosome, preventing aminoacyl-tRNA binding and so protein synthesis beginning.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infections
- Pharmacology
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Question 34
Correct
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A young patient presents with the features of an easily recognisable infectious disease.
Which of the following infectious diseases typically has an incubation period of less than 1 week? Select ONE answer only.Your Answer: Cholera
Explanation:Cholera has an incubation period of 12 hours to 6 days.
Other infectious disease that have an incubation period of less than 1 week include:
Staphylococcal enteritis (1-6 hours)
Salmonella enteritis (12-24 hours)
Botulism (18-36 hours)
Gas gangrene (6 hours to 4 days)
Scarlet fever (1-4 days)
Diphtheria (2-5 days)
Gonorrhoea (3-5 days)
Yellow fever (3-6 days)
Meningococcaemia (1-7 days)
Brucellosis has an incubation period of 7-21 days.
Measles has an incubation period of 14-18 days.
Falciparum malaria usually has an incubation period of 7-14 days. The other forms of malaria have a longer incubation period of 12-40 days.
Rubella has an incubation period of 14-21 days. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
- Specific Pathogen Groups
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Question 35
Correct
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You note that the prostate of a 60-year-old patient is enlarged during the examination. You suspect BPH. Anatomically, the prostate has four main lobes. Which of the lobes is affected by benign prostatic hypertrophy?
Your Answer: Median lobe
Explanation:Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH), also known as benign prostatic hypertrophy, is characterized by an enlarged prostate gland.
The prostate is divided into four major lobes. The median lobe is the most commonly affected by benign prostatic enlargement, resulting in urethral obstruction and urine symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 36
Incorrect
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Question 37
Incorrect
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A 17-year-old male presenting in the department has a history of C3 deficiency.
C3 deficiency is associated with all of the following EXCEPT?Your Answer: Membranous glomerulonephritis
Correct Answer: Hereditary angioedema
Explanation:C1-inhibitor deficiency is the cause of hereditary angioedema not C3 deficiency,
All the other statements are correct
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Pathology
- Pathology
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Question 38
Correct
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A 25-year-old guy who has had a knee-high plaster cast on his left leg for the past 5 weeks arrives at the emergency department complaining of numbness on the dorsum of his left foot and an inability to dorsiflex or evert his foot. You know that his symptoms are due to fibular nerve compression. Where is the fibular nerve located?
Your Answer: Neck of fibula
Explanation:Dorsiflexion and eversion of the foot are innervated by the deep fibular nerve and the superficial fibular nerve, respectively.
The common fibular nerve runs obliquely downward along the lateral border of the popliteal fossa (medial to the biceps femoris) before branching at the neck of the fibula.
Thus, it is prone to being affected during an impact injury or fracture to the bone or leg. Casts that are placed too high can also compress the fibular nerve.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Lower Limb
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Question 39
Correct
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A 54-year-old woman presents with polyuria and polydipsia. She is known to suffer from bipolar disorder, which has been well controlled by the use of lithium for many years.
What is the SINGLE most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus
Explanation:Diabetes insipidus is the inability to produce concentrated urine. It is characterised by the presence of excessive thirst, polyuria and polydipsia. There are two distinct types of diabetes insipidus:
Cranial (central) diabetes insipidus and;
Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus
Cranial diabetes insipidus is caused by a deficiency of vasopressin (anti-diuretic hormone). Patients with cranial diabetes insipidus can have a urine output as high as 10-15 litres per 24 hours, but adequate fluid intake allows most patients to maintain normonatraemia. 30% of cases are idiopathic, and a further 30% are secondary to head injuries. Other causes include neurosurgery, brain tumours, meningitis, granulomatous disease (e.g. sarcoidosis) and drugs, such as naloxone and phenytoin. A very rare inherited form also exists that is associated with diabetes mellitus, optic atrophy, nerve deafness and bladder atonia.
Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus is caused by renal resistance to the action of vasopressin. As with cranial diabetes insipidus, urine output is markedly elevated. Serum sodium levels can be maintained by secondary polydipsia or can be elevated. Causes of nephrogenic diabetes insipidus include chronic renal disease, metabolic disorders (e.g. hypercalcaemia and hypokalaemia) and drugs, including long-term lithium usage and demeclocycline.
In view of the history of long-term lithium use, in this case, nephrogenic diabetes insipidus is the most likely diagnosis. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
- Renal Physiology
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Question 40
Incorrect
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Digoxin is contraindicated in all of the following EXCEPT for:
Your Answer: Ventricular tachycardia
Correct Answer: Asthma
Explanation:Digoxin is contraindicated in:Supraventricular arrhythmias associated with accessory conduction pathways e.g. Wolff-Parkinson-White syndromeVentricular tachycardia or fibrillationHeart conduction problems e.g. second degree or intermittent complete heart blockHypertrophic cardiomyopathy (unless concomitant atrial fibrillation and heart failure but should be used with caution)
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Pharmacology
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Question 41
Correct
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An 11-year-old boy was brought to the emergency room due to fever and pain in the ears. Upon physical examination, it was observed that the mastoid area is erythematous and there is a presence of a boggy, tender mass. A diagnosis of acute mastoiditis was made.
Which of the following parts of the temporal bone is most likely involved?Your Answer: Petrous part
Explanation:Mastoiditis is the inflammation of a portion of the temporal bone referred to as the mastoid air cells. The mastoid air cells are epithelium lined bone septations that are continuous with the middle ear cavity.
The temporal bone is composed of four parts: the mastoid process, the petrous pyramid, the squamous, and tympanic portions. The mastoid process and the petrous pyramid are the portions of particular interest because of the prevalence of suppurations within these parts of the temporal bone.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Head And Neck
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Question 42
Incorrect
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Gastrin primarily acts to perform which of the following functions:
Your Answer: Stimulate pancreatic enzyme secretion
Correct Answer: Stimulate gastric acid secretion
Explanation:Gastrin primarily  acts to stimulate acid secretion from parietal cells (both directly and indirectly by stimulating release of histamine from ECL cells).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal
- Physiology
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Question 43
Correct
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You examine a 43-year-old woman who was referred to you by a friend. She suffers from a variety of medical conditions and takes a variety of medications, including amitriptyline.
Which of the following is NOT a contraindication to amitriptyline treatment?Your Answer: Breastfeeding
Explanation:Amitriptyline is a tricyclic antidepressant (TCA) that is most commonly used to treat depression, but it can also be used to treat anxiety disorders, chronic pain, and attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD). It inhibits reuptake, raising serotonin and noradrenaline levels while also inhibiting acetylcholine action.
TCAs have a number of drawbacks, including:
Acute Porphyria
Arrhythmias
During bipolar disorder’s manic phase
Heart block
After a myocardial infarction, there is an immediate recovery period.TCA levels in breast milk are too low to be harmful, and use can be continued while breastfeeding.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- CNS Pharmacology
- Pharmacology
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Question 44
Correct
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A 43-year old male is taken to the Emergency Room for a lacerated wound on the abdomen, situated above the umbilicus. A short segment of the small bowel has herniated through the wound.
Which of these anatomic structures is the most superficial structure injured in the case above?Your Answer: Camper’s fascia
Explanation:The following structures are the layers of the anterior abdominal wall from the most superficial to the deepest layer:
Skin
Fatty layer of the superficial fascia (Camper’s fascia)
Membranous layer of the superficial fascia (Scarpa’s fascia)
Aponeurosis of the external and internal oblique muscles
Rectus abdominis muscle
Aponeurosis of the internal oblique and transversus abdominis
Fascia transversalis
Extraperitoneal fat
Parietal peritoneum -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen And Pelvis
- Anatomy
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Question 45
Correct
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The renal corpuscle, consisting of the Bowman's capsule and the glomerulus is found where in the kidney:
Your Answer: The cortex
Explanation:All nephrons have their renal corpuscles in the renal cortex. Cortical nephrons have their renal corpuscles in the outer part of the cortex and relatively short loops of Henle. Juxtamedullary nephrons have their corpuscles in the inner third of the cortex, close to the corticomedullary junction, with long loops of Henle extending into the renal medulla.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
- Renal
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Question 46
Correct
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Which of the following lifestyle changes is not likely to improve symptoms of gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD):
Your Answer: Lowering the head of the bed
Explanation:The following approaches have some benefit in adult patients with reflux:
Weight loss or weight management for individuals who are overweight
Head of bed elevation is important for individuals with nocturnal or laryngeal symptoms, but its value for other situations is unclear.
The following lifestyle approaches also are used frequently. There is some evidence that these lifestyle changes improve laboratory measures of reflux (such as lower oesophageal sphincter pressure).
Dietary modification – A practical approach is to avoid a core group of reflux-inducing foods, including chocolate, peppermint, and alcohol, which may reduce lower oesophageal sphincter pressure. Acidic beverages, including colas with caffeine and orange juice also may exacerbate symptoms.
Avoiding the supine position soon after eating.
Promotion of salivation by either chewing gum or using oral lozenges. Salivation neutralizes refluxed acid, thereby increasing the rate of oesophageal acid clearance.
Avoidance of tobacco (including passive exposure to tobacco smoke) and alcohol. Nicotine and alcohol reduce lower oesophageal sphincter pressure, and smoking also diminishes salivation. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal
- Pharmacology
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Question 47
Incorrect
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Which of the following best describes the typical rash of measles:
Your Answer: The typical rash of measles starts on the trunk and spreads upwards towards the neck and face.
Correct Answer: The typical rash of measles is maculopapular, starting behind the ears and spreading downwards to the trunk.
Explanation:A prodromal 2 – 4 day coryzal illness (fever, cough, conjunctivitis, irritability) normally occurs associated with Koplik’s spots (small white papules found on the buccal mucosa near the first premolars), before a morbilliform maculopapular rash appears, first behind the ears and then spreading downwards to whole body.The rash peels off or fades about about 7 – 10 days. The chickenpox rash is characterised by a maculopapular rash progressing to vesicles and then crusting over. Scarlet fever is characterised by a sandpaper like rash associated with a strawberry tongue.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
- Pathogens
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Question 48
Correct
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Nitrous oxide is associated with which of the following adverse effects:
Your Answer: Megaloblastic anaemia
Explanation:Exposure to nitrous oxide for prolonged periods, either by continuous or by intermittent administration, may result in megaloblastic anaemia as a result of interference with the action of vitamin B12; neurological toxic effects can occur without preceding overt haematological changes. Depression of white cell formation may also occur.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia
- Pharmacology
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Question 49
Correct
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Red cell protein expression is induced by which of the following pathogens:
Your Answer: Plasmodium falciparum
Explanation:Plasmodium falciparum induces the expression of red cell protein, making cerebral malaria more severe. Bacteria may invade a host passively through micro traumata or macro traumata in the skin or mucosa. On the other hand, bacteria that invade
through intact mucosa first, adhere to this anatomical barrier, then actively
breach it. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
- Principles
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Question 50
Correct
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A 52-year-old man presents to the emergency room with chest pain. He was recently released from the hospital after receiving abciximab during coronary angioplasty.
Which of the following is NOT a contraindication to abciximab (ReoPro) treatment?Your Answer: Major surgery within the last 6 months
Explanation:Abciximab (ReoPro) is a glycoprotein IIb/IIIa receptor antagonist that is a chimeric monoclonal antibody. It is primarily used during and after coronary artery procedures such as angioplasty to inhibit platelet aggregation.
The use of abciximab is contraindicated in the following situations:
Internal bleeding is present.
Within the last two months, you’ve had major surgery, intracranial surgery, or trauma.
Stroke in the previous two years
Intracranial tumour
Aneurysm or arteriovenous malformation
Haemorrhagic diathesis is a type of haemorrhagic diathesis.
Vasculitis
Retinopathy caused by hypertension -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Pharmacology
- Pharmacology
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY
