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  • Question 1 - The following statement is true with regards to the Nernst equation: ...

    Correct

    • The following statement is true with regards to the Nernst equation:

      Your Answer: It is used to calculate the potential difference across a membrane when the individual ions are in equilibrium

      Explanation:

      The Nernst equation is used to calculate the membrane potential at which the ions are in equilibrium across the cell membrane.

      The normal resting membrane potential is -70 mV (not + 70 mV).

      The equation is:
      E = RT/FZ ln {[X]o
      /[X]i}

      Where:
      E is the equilibrium potential
      R is the universal gas constant
      T is the absolute temperature
      F is the Faraday constant
      Z is the valency of the ion
      [X]o is the extracellular concentration of ion X
      [X]i is the intracellular concentration of ion X.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      27.4
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Which of the following statement is correct regarding the difference between dabigatran and...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statement is correct regarding the difference between dabigatran and other anticoagulants?

      Your Answer: Active orally

      Correct Answer: Competitive thrombin inhibitor blocking both free and bound thrombin

      Explanation:

      Dabigatran template is a prodrug and its active metabolite is a direct thrombin inhibitor. It is a synthetic, reversible, non-peptide thrombin inhibitor. This inhibition of thrombin results in a decrease of fibrin and reduces platelet aggregation.

      Drugs like warfarin act by inhibiting the activation of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors. These factors are synthesized by the liver and activated by gamma-carboxylation of glutamate residues with the help of vitamin K. Hydroquinone form of vitamin K is converted to epoxide form in this reaction and regeneration of hydroquinone form by enzyme vitamin K epoxide reductase (VKOR) is required for this activity. Oral anticoagulants prevent this regeneration by inhibiting VKOR, thus vitamin K-dependent factors are not activated. These factors include clotting factors II, VII, IX, and X as well as anti-clotting proteins, protein C and protein S.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      18
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A double blind placebo control clinical trial is done. Which of these is...

    Correct

    • A double blind placebo control clinical trial is done. Which of these is correct about it?

      Your Answer: The clinician assessing the effects of the treatment does not know which treatment the patient has been given

      Explanation:

      A ‘double blind crossover study’ happens when every patient receive both treatments.

      It is incorrect to say that only half of the patients do not know which treatment they receive because in a double blind placebo control clinical trial ALL of the patients are blind to their treatment choice .

      If some of the patients are not treated, they would be aware that they were not being treated and it could not be considered a blind trial.

      In a double blind placebo control clinical trial both the clinician and the patient are blind to the treatment choice. The clinician assessing the effects of the treatment, therefore, does not know which treatment the patient has been given.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      19.2
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 30-year old male has Von Willebrand's disease and attends the hospital to...

    Correct

    • A 30-year old male has Von Willebrand's disease and attends the hospital to get an infusion of desmopressin acetate. The way this works is by stimulating the release of von Willebrand factor from cells, which in turn increases factor VIII and platelet plug formation in clotting.

      In patients that have no clotting abnormalities, the substance that keeps the blood soluble and prevents platelet activation normally is which of these?

      Your Answer: Prostacyclin

      Explanation:

      Even though aprotinin reduces fibrinolysis and therefore bleeding, there is an associated increased risk of death. It was withdrawn in 2007.
      Protein C is dependent upon vitamin K and this may paradoxically increase the risk of thrombosis during the early phases of warfarin treatment.

      The coagulation cascade include two pathways which lead to fibrin formation:
      1. Intrinsic pathway – these components are already present in the blood
      Minor role in clotting
      Subendothelial damage e.g. collagen
      Formation of the primary complex on collagen by high-molecular-weight kininogen (HMWK), prekallikrein, and Factor 12
      Prekallikrein is converted to kallikrein and Factor 12 becomes activated
      Factor 12 activates Factor 11
      Factor 11 activates Factor 9, which with its co-factor Factor 8a form the tenase complex which activates Factor 10

      2. Extrinsic pathway – needs tissue factor that is released by damaged tissue)
      In tissue damage:
      Factor 7 binds to Tissue factor – this complex activates Factor 9
      Activated Factor 9 works with Factor 8 to activate Factor 10

      3. Common pathway
      Activated Factor 10 causes the conversion of prothrombin to thrombin and this hydrolyses fibrinogen peptide bonds to form fibrin. It also activates factor 8 to form links between fibrin molecules.

      4. Fibrinolysis
      Plasminogen is converted to plasmin to facilitate clot resorption

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
      43.6
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 46-year old man was taken to the emergency room due to slow,...

    Correct

    • A 46-year old man was taken to the emergency room due to slow, laboured breathing. A relative reported that he's maintained on codeine 60 mg, taken orally every 6 hours for severe pain from oesophageal cancer. His creatinine was elevated, and glomerular filtration rate was severely decreased at 27 ml/minute.

      Given the scenario above, which of the metabolites of codeine is the culprit for his clinical findings?

      Your Answer: Morphine-6-glucuronide

      Explanation:

      Accumulation of morphine-6-glucuronide is a risk factor for opioid toxicity during morphine treatment. Morphine is metabolized in the liver to morphine-6-glucuronide and morphine-3-glucuronide, both of which are excreted by the kidneys. In the setting of renal failure, these metabolites can accumulate, resulting in a lowering of the seizure threshold. However, it does not occur in all patients with renal insufficiency, which is the most common reason for accumulation of morphine-6-glucuronide; this suggests that other risk factors can contribute to morphine-6-glucuronide toxicity.

      The active metabolites of codeine are morphine and the morphine metabolite morphine-6-glucuronide. The enzyme systems responsible for this metabolism are: CYP2D for codeine and UGT2B7 for morphine, codeine-6-gluronide, and morphine-6-glucuronide. Both of these systems are subject to genetic variation. Some patients are ultrarapid metabolizers of codeine and produce higher levels of morphine and active metabolites in a very short period of time after administration. These increased levels will produce increased side effects, especially drowsiness and central nervous system depression.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      29.4
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 35-year old male is found to be bradycardic in the emergency room....

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year old male is found to be bradycardic in the emergency room. His cardiac muscle will most likely stay in a prolonged phase 4 state of the cardiac action potential. During phase 4 of the cardiac action potential, which of these occurs?

      Your Answer: Rapid potassium influx

      Correct Answer: Na+/K+ ATPase acts

      Explanation:

      Cardiac conduction

      Phase 0 – Rapid depolarization. Opening of fast sodium channels with large influx of sodium

      Phase 1 – Rapid partial depolarization. Opening of potassium channels and efflux of potassium ions. Sodium channels close and influx of sodium ions stop

      Phase 2 – Plateau phase with large influx of calcium ions. Offsets action of potassium channels. The absolute refractory period

      Phase 3 – Repolarization due to potassium efflux after calcium channels close. Relative refractory period

      Phase 4 – Repolarization continues as sodium/potassium pump restores the ionic gradient by pumping out 3 sodium ions in exchange for 2 potassium ions coming into the cell. Relative refractory period

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
      36
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 60-year-old man had previously been diagnosed with Type 2 diabetes. He had...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old man had previously been diagnosed with Type 2 diabetes. He had recently started gliclazide, a sulphonyl urea, as his diabetes was not controlled by metformin alone.

      Now, he presents to his physician with complaints of anxiety, sweating, and palpitations since the morning. On physical examination, he is pale and clammy and has mydriasis and increased bowel sounds.

      Which biological site primarily synthesizes the hormone responsible for this patient's condition?

      Your Answer: Chromaffin cells of the adrenal medulla

      Explanation:

      This patient has been shifted to a sulfonylurea drug whose most common side effect is hypoglycaemia. Similar symptoms can arise in a patient on insulin too. The signs and symptoms are consistent with a hypoglycaemic attack and include tachycardia, altered consciousness, and behaviour. This needs to be treated as an emergency with rapid correction of the blood glucose level using glucose or IV 20% dextrose.

      In a hypoglycaemic attack, the body undergoes stress and releases hormones to increase blood glucose levels. These include:
      Glucagon
      Cortisol
      Adrenaline

      Adrenaline or epinephrine is the hormone responsible for this patient’s condition and is primarily produced in the medulla of the adrenal gland. It functions primarily to raise cardiac output and raise blood glucose levels in the blood.

      Alpha-cells of the islets of Langerhans produce the hormone glucagon, which has opposing effects to insulin.

      Follicular cells of the thyroid gland produce and secrete thyroid hormones. Thyroid hormones can cause similar symptoms, but it is unlikely with the patient’s medical history.

      Post-ganglionic neurons of the sympathetic nervous system use norepinephrine as a neurotransmitter. Adrenaline can be made in these cells, but it is not their primary production site.

      Zona fasciculata of the adrenal cortex is the main site for the production of cortisol.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      35.1
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 30-year-old woman admitted following a tonsillectomy has developed stridor with a respiratory...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman admitted following a tonsillectomy has developed stridor with a respiratory rate of 22 breaths per minute and obstructive movements of the chest and abdomen that is in a see-saw pattern .

      Her SpO2 is 92% on 60% oxygen with pulse rate 120 beats per minute while her blood pressure is 180/90mmHg. She is repeatedly trying to remove the oxygen mask and appears anxious.

      Her pharynx is suctioned and CPAP applied with 100% oxygen via a Mapleson C circuit.

      Which of these is the most appropriate next step in her management?

      Your Answer: Administer intravenous suxamethonium 1 mg/kg

      Correct Answer: Administer intravenous propofol 0.5 mg/kg

      Explanation:

      Continuous closure of the vocal cords resulting in partial or complete airway obstruction is called Laryngospasm. It is a reflex that helps protect against pulmonary aspiration.

      Predisposing factors include: Hyperactive airway disease, Insufficient depth of anaesthesia, Inexperience of the anaesthetist, Airway irritation, Smoking, Shared airway surgery and Paediatric patients

      Its primary treatment includes checking for blood or stomach aspirate in the pharynx, removing any triggering stimulation, relieving any possible supra-glottic component to airway obstruction and application of CPAP with 100% oxygen.

      In this patient, all the above has been done and the next treatment of choice is the administration of a rapidly acting intravenous anaesthetic agent such as propofol (0.5 mg/kg) in increments as it has been reported to relieve laryngospasm in approximately 75% of cases. Administering suxamethonium to an awake patient would be inappropriate at this stage.

      Magnesium and lidocaine are used for prevention rather than acute treatment of laryngospasm. Superior laryngeal nerve blocks have been reported to successfully treat recurrent laryngospasm but it is not the next logical step in index patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      55.9
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Which of the following statements is true regarding drug dose and response? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following statements is true regarding drug dose and response?

      Your Answer: Intrinsic activity determines maximal response

      Explanation:

      There are two types of drug dose-response relationships, namely, the graded dose-response and the quantal dose-response relationships.

      Drug response curves are plotted as percentage response again LOG drug concentration. This graph is sigmoid in shape.

      Agonists are drugs with high affinity and high intrinsic activity. Meanwhile, the antagonist is a drug with high affinity but no intrinsic activity. Intrinsic activity determines the maximal response. The maximal response can be achieved even by activation of a small proportion of receptor sites.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      10.7
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A weakly acidic drug with a pKa of 8.4 is injected intravenously into...

    Incorrect

    • A weakly acidic drug with a pKa of 8.4 is injected intravenously into a patient.

      At a normal physiological pH, the percentage of this drug unionised in the plasma is?

      Your Answer: 10

      Correct Answer: 90

      Explanation:

      Primary FRCA is concerned with two issues. The first is a working knowledge of the Henderson-Hasselbalch equation, and the second is a working knowledge of logarithms and antilogarithms.

      The pH at which the drug exists in 50 percent ionised and 50 percent unionised forms is known as the pKa.

      To calculate the proportion of ionised to unionised form of a drug, use the Henderson-Hasselbalch equation.

      pH = pKa + log ([A-]/[HA])

      or

      pH = pKa + log [(salt)/(acid)]
      pH = pKa + log ([ionised]/[unionised])

      Hence, if the pKa − pH = 0, then 50% of drug is ionised and 50% is unionised.

      In this example:
      7.4 = 8.4 + log ([ionised]/[unionised])
      7.4 − 8.4 = log ([ionised]/[unionised])
      log −1 = log ([ionised]/[unionised])

      Simply put, the antilog is the inverse log calculation. In other words, if you know the logarithm of a number, you can use the antilog to find the value of the number. The antilogarithm’s definition is as follows:

      y = antilog x = 10x

      Antilog to the base 10 of 0 = 1, −1 = 0.1, −2 = 0.01, −3 = 0.001 and, −4 = 0.0001.

      [A-]/[HA] = 0.1

      Assuming that we can apply the approximation [A-] << [HA} then this means the acid is 0.1 x 100% = 10% ionised so the percentage of (non-ionized) acid will be 100% – 10% = 90%

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      47.5
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Arterial pressure waveforms give an indication of the operation of the heart and...

    Correct

    • Arterial pressure waveforms give an indication of the operation of the heart and the patient's clinical state.

      Which of the following listed characteristics of arterial waveforms is most indicative of myocardial contractility?

      Your Answer: Slope of the upstroke of the curve.

      Explanation:

      Arterial pressure waveforms is an invasive form of monitoring cardiac parameters. It provides a lot of information on the performance of the heart from different sections, including:

      Cardiac measurements:

      Heart rate
      Systolic pressure
      Diastolic pressure
      Mean arterial pressure
      Pulse pressure
      Change in pulse amplitude corresponding to respiratory changes
      Slope of anacrotic limb associated with aortic stenosis

      From the shape of the arterial waveform displayed:

      Slope of anacrotic limb represents aortic valve and LVOT flow
      Indications of aortic stenosis (AS): Slurred wave, collapsing wave
      Rapid systolic decline in LVOTO
      Bisferiens wave in HOCM
      Low dicrotic notch in states with poor peripheral resistance
      Position and quality of dicrotic notch as a reflection of the damping coefficient

      For this question, the upstroke slope of the pressure wave is indicative of myocardial contractility and is mathematically represented as:

      dP/dt, which represents a change of pressure with regards to time.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
      18.7
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Which of the following lung parameters can be measured directly using spirometry? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following lung parameters can be measured directly using spirometry?

      Your Answer: Functional residual capacity

      Correct Answer: Vital capacity

      Explanation:

      Spirometry measures the total volume of air that can be forced out in one maximum breath, that is the total lung capacity (TLC), to maximal expiration, that is the residual volume (RV).

      It is conducted using a spirometer which is capable of measuring lung volumes using techniques of dilution.

      During spirometry, the following measurements can be determined:
      Forced vital capacity (FVC)/vital capacity (VC): The maximum volume of air exhaled in one single forced breathe.
      Forced expiratory volume in one second (FEV1)
      FEV1/FVC ratio
      Peak expiratory flow (PEF): the maximum amount of air flow exhaled in one blow.
      Forced expiratory flow (mid expiratory flow): the flow at 25%, 50% and 75% of FVC
      Inspiratory vital capacity (IVC): The maximum volume of air inhaled after a full total expiration.

      Anatomical dead space is measured using a single breath nitrogen washout called the Fowler’s method.

      Residual volume and total lung capacity are both measured using the body plethysmograph or helium dilution

      The functional residual capacity is usually measured using a nitrogen washout or the helium dilution technique.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
      21.9
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A human's resting oxygen consumption (VO2) is typically 3.5 ml/kg/minute (one metabolic equivalent...

    Incorrect

    • A human's resting oxygen consumption (VO2) is typically 3.5 ml/kg/minute (one metabolic equivalent or 1 MET).

      Which of the following options is linked to the highest VO2 when a person is at rest?

      Your Answer: Thyrotoxicosis

      Correct Answer: Neonate

      Explanation:

      The oxygen consumption rate (VO2) at rest is 3.5 ml/kg/minute (one metabolic equivalent or 1 MET).
      3.86 ml/kg/minute thyrotoxicosis

      Young children consume a lot of oxygen: around 7 ml/kg/min when they are born. The metabolic cost of breathing is higher in children than in adults, and it can account for up to 15% of total oxygen consumption. Similarly, an infant’s metabolic rate is nearly twice that of an adult, resulting in a larger alveolar minute volume and a lower FRC.

      At term, oxygen consumption at rest can increase by as much as 40% (5 ml/kg/minute) and can rise to 60% during labour.

      When compared to normal basal metabolism, sepsis syndrome increases VO2 and resting metabolic rate by 30% (4.55 ml/kg/minute). In septicaemic shock, VO2 decreases.

      Dobutamine hydrochloride was infused into 12 healthy male volunteers at a rate of 2 micrograms per minute per kilogramme, gradually increasing to 4 and 6 micrograms per minute per kilogramme. Dobutamine was infused for 20 minutes for each dose. VO2 increased by 10% to 15%. (3.85-4.0 ml/kg/min).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      21.9
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Which of the following is true regarding Noradrenaline (Norepinephrine)? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is true regarding Noradrenaline (Norepinephrine)?

      Your Answer: Sympathomimetic effects work mainly through ?1 but also ? receptors

      Explanation:

      Noradrenaline acts as a sympathomimetic effect via alpha as well as a beta receptor. However, they have weak ?2 action.

      Natural catecholamines are Adrenaline, Noradrenaline, and Dopamine

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      17.9
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - What structure is most critical in providing support for the duodenojejunal flexure? ...

    Incorrect

    • What structure is most critical in providing support for the duodenojejunal flexure?

      Your Answer: Mesentery of the transverse colon

      Correct Answer: Ligament of Treitz

      Explanation:

      The duodenojejunal flexure is the point where the duodenum becomes the jejunum.

      The ligament of Treitz, which arises from the right crus of diaphragm, provides suspension for support.

      Between the ileum and the caecum is the ligament of Treves.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      13
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - An 80-year old lady has a background history of a previous myocardial infarction...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year old lady has a background history of a previous myocardial infarction which has left permanent damage to her heart's conduction system. The part of the conduction system with the highest velocities is damaged, and this has resulted in desynchronisation of the ventricles. The part of the heart that conducts the fastest is which of the following?

      Your Answer: Atrioventricular node

      Correct Answer: Purkinje fibres

      Explanation:

      The electrical conduction system of the heart starts with the SA node which generates spontaneous action potentials.

      This is conducted across both atria by cell to cell conduction, and occurs at around 1 m/s. The only pathway for the action potential to enter the ventricles is through the AV node in a normal heart.
      At this site, conduction is very slow at 0.05ms, which allows for the atria to completely contract and fill the ventricles with blood before the ventricles depolarise and contract.

      The action potentials are conducted through the Bundle of His from the AV node which then splits into the left and right bundle branches. This conduction is very fast, (,2m/s), and brings the action potential to the Purkinje fibres.

      Purkinje fibres are specialised conducting cells which allow for a faster conduction speed of the action potential (,2-4m/s). This allows for a strong synchronized contraction from the ventricle and thus efficient generation of pressure in systole.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
      39.9
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Which of the following statements most accurately describes a drug's efficacy or intrinsic...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements most accurately describes a drug's efficacy or intrinsic activity?

      Your Answer: Is greater for drug X if X is effective in a dose of 100 mcg than for drug Y if Y is effective in a dose of 10 mg

      Correct Answer: Describes the ability of a drug to produce a therapeutic effect

      Explanation:

      An agonist is a molecule with intrinsic efficacy and affinity for a receptor. The ability of a drug-receptor interaction to produce a maximal response is referred to as intrinsic efficacy or activity. Efficacy also refers to a drug’s ability to have a therapeutic or beneficial effect. Although the potencies of morphine and fentanyl differ, they both have the same intrinsic efficacy.

      The amount of drug required to produce a given effect is referred to as potency. If drug X is effective in a dose of 100 mcg, its potency is greater than if drug Y is effective in a dose of 10 mg.

      The therapeutic index, also known as the margin of safety, is a ratio of the lethal or serious side effect dose of a drug divided by the therapeutic dose of the same drug.

      The term bioavailability refers to the ability of a substance to be absorbed. The area under a curve (AUC) of a graphic plot of plasma concentration and time is used to calculate oral bioavailability. It’s used to figure out how much of a drug to take and when to take it.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      7.9
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A young male is operated on for an open inguinal hernia repair. During...

    Incorrect

    • A young male is operated on for an open inguinal hernia repair. During the procedure, the cord is mobilized, and the deep inguinal ring is located.

      What structure forms the lateral wall of the deep inguinal ring?

      Your Answer: External oblique aponeurosis

      Correct Answer: Transversalis fascia

      Explanation:

      The deep inguinal ring is the entrance of the inguinal canal. It is an opening in the transversalis fascia around 1 cm above the inguinal ligament. Therefore, the superolateral wall is made by the transervalis fascia.

      The inferior epigastric vessels run medially to the deep inguinal ring forming its inferomedial border.

      The inguinal canal extends obliquely from the deep inguinal ring to the superficial inguinal ring.
      An indirect inguinal hernia arises through the deep inguinal ring lateral to the inferior epigastric vessels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      21.9
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Among the following options, which one can not be the value of Pearson's...

    Incorrect

    • Among the following options, which one can not be the value of Pearson's correlation coefficient?

      Your Answer: 0

      Correct Answer: 1.5

      Explanation:

      The correlation coefficient gives us the idea about relation between two parameters. i.e. to what extent change in parameter A could prompt a change in parameter B. The numerical value of correlation coefficient could not be greater than 1.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      6.5
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Which of the following statement is true regarding the mechanism of action of...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statement is true regarding the mechanism of action of doxycycline?

      Your Answer: Inhibit protein wall synthesis

      Correct Answer: Inhibit 30S subunit of ribosomes

      Explanation:

      Doxycycline belongs to the family of tetracyclines and inhibits protein synthesis through reversible binding to bacterial 30s ribosomal subunits, which prevent binding of new incoming amino acids (aminoacyl-tRNA) and thus interfere with peptide growth.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      7.7
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - Which of the following is true regarding a laryngoscope? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is true regarding a laryngoscope?

      Your Answer: The McCoy laryngoscope is based on the standard Robertshaw's blade

      Correct Answer: The Wisconsin and Seward are examples of straight blade laryngoscopes

      Explanation:

      Direct laryngoscopy are performed using laryngoscopes and they can be classed according to the shape of the blade as curved or straight.

      Miller, Soper, Wisconsin and Seward are examples of straight blade laryngoscopes. Straight blades are commonly used for intubating neonates and infants but can be used in adults too.

      The tip of the miller blade is advanced over the epiglottis to the tracheal entrance then lifted in order to view the vocal cords.

      The RIGHT-SIDED Macintosh blade is used in adults while the left-sided blade may be used in conditions that make intubation with standard blade difficult e.g. facial deformities.

      The McCoy laryngoscope is based on the STANDARD MACINTOSH blade not Robertshaw’s. It has a lever operated hinged tip, which improves the view during laryngoscopy.

      Polio blade is mounted at an angle of 120-135 degrees to the handle. Originally designed for use during the polio epidemic ​in intubation patients within iron lung ventilators, it is now useful in patients with conditions like breast hypertrophy, barrel chest, and restricted neck mobility.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
      26.6
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - With regards to the internal carotid artery, which of these statements is correct....

    Incorrect

    • With regards to the internal carotid artery, which of these statements is correct.

      Your Answer: Is separated from the external carotid artery by the omohyoid

      Correct Answer: Enters the skull and divides into the anterior and middle cerebral arteries

      Explanation:

      The internal carotid artery passes through the carotid canal in the petrous part of the temporal bone into the cranial cavity. It does NOT groove the sphenoid bone.

      The internal carotid artery gives off no branches in the neck and is a terminal branch of the common carotid artery.

      These structures pass between the external and internal carotid arteries: the styloglossus and stylopharyngeus muscles, the glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX), and the pharyngeal branch of the vagus.

      Accompanied by its sympathetic plexus, the internal carotid artery, passes through the cavernous sinus and is crossed by the abducent nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      12.2
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - Which structure does NOT lie in the posterior triangle of the neck? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which structure does NOT lie in the posterior triangle of the neck?

      Your Answer: Phrenic nerve

      Correct Answer: Internal jugular vein

      Explanation:

      The sternocleidomastoid muscle divides the neck into anterior and posterior triangles on both sides of the neck.

      The posterior triangle has the following boundaries:
      anteriorly – sternocleidomastoid muscle
      posteriorly – trapezius
      roof – investing layer of deep cervical fascia
      floor – prevertebral fascia overlying splenius capitis, levator scapulae, and the scalene muscles

      The contents of the posterior triangle are:
      1. fat
      2. lymph nodes (level V)
      3. accessory nerve
      4. cutaneous branches of the cervical plexus (A major branch of this plexus is the phrenic nerve, which arises from the anterior divisions of spinal nerves C3-C5)
      5. inferior belly of omohyoid
      6. branches of the thyrocervical trunk (transverse cervical and suprascapular arteries)
      7. third part of the subclavian artery
      8. external jugular vein

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      8.7
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 68-year-old man presents worried about his risk of motor neurone disease. No...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old man presents worried about his risk of motor neurone disease. No symptoms have developed, but his father suffered from motor neurone disease. Recently, his cousin has also been diagnosed with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis. He searched the internet for screening tests for motor neurone disease and found a blood test called ‘neuron’, and requests to have it done. You search this blood test and find a prospective study going on evaluating the potential benefits of this blood test. On average, this test diagnosed patients with the disease 8 months earlier than the patients who are diagnosed on the basis of their clinical symptoms. The patients diagnosed using this neuron test also survived, on average, 48 months from the diagnosis, whereas the patients diagnosed clinically survived an average of 39 months from the diagnosis. Considering the clear benefits, you decide to have it done on the patient.

      Which of the following options best relate to the above scenario?

      Your Answer: Lead-time bias

      Explanation:

      Hypochondriasis is an illness anxiety disorder, and describes excessively worriedness about the presence of a disease. While the woman is concerned about her possibility of developing motor neurone disease, she understands that no symptoms have yet appeared. Hypochondriasis involves patients who refuse to accept that they don’t have the disease, even if the results come back negative.

      Late Look Bias occurs when the data is gathered or analysed at an inappropriate time e.g. when many of the subjects suffering from a fatal disease have died. This type of biasness might occur in some retrospective studies of motor neurone disease, but is not applicable to this prospective study.

      In procedure bias, the researcher decides assignment of a treatment versus control and assigns particular patients to one group or the other non-randomly. This is unlikely to have occurred in this case, although it is not mentioned specifically. Of all the options, lead time-bias is a better answer.

      The Hawthorne Effect refers to groups modifying their behaviour simply because they are aware of being observed. Any differences in the behaviour have not been mentioned in the question, and it is highly unlikely that a change in patient’s behaviour would have affected their length of survival in this case.

      The correct option is lead-time bias. Even if the new blood test diagnoses the disease earlier, it doesn’t affect the outcome, as the survival time was still on average 43 months from the onset of symptoms in both groups. With the help of blood test, the disease was only detected 8 months earlier.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      4.5
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - The arterial-venous oxygen (a-vO2) difference is the difference between the oxygen content of...

    Incorrect

    • The arterial-venous oxygen (a-vO2) difference is the difference between the oxygen content of arterial blood (CaO2) and mixed-venous blood (CvO2).

      At rest, which organ has the greatest a-vO2 difference?

      Your Answer: Intestine

      Correct Answer: Heart

      Explanation:

      At rest, the heart has the greatest a-vO2 difference, a high capillary to myocyte ratio, short diffusion distances, and a high mitochondrial density. The flow of blood through the coronary arteries is also tightly controlled. At rest, 70-80 percent of the oxygen available to the cardiac muscle is extracted, increasing to 90 percent during exercise.

      The a-vO2 difference indicates the body’s or an individual organ’s ability to extract oxygen from the blood.

      CaO2 is influenced by a number of factors, including Hb concentration, PaO2 and pulmonary diffusion capacity.

      CvO2 is influenced by a number of factors, including capillary density, regional blood flow, heart, resting skeletal muscle, kidney, intestine and skin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      4
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - Following a traumatic head injury, you are summoned to the emergency department to...

    Correct

    • Following a traumatic head injury, you are summoned to the emergency department to transfer a patient to the CT scanner. With a Glasgow coma score of 3, he has already been intubated and ventilated.

      It is important to ensure that cerebral protection strategies are implemented during the transfer.

      Which of the following methods is the most effective for reducing venous obstruction?

      Your Answer: Position with a head-up tilt of 30°

      Explanation:

      ICP is significant because it influences cerebral perfusion pressure and cerebral blood flow. The normal ICP ranges from 5 to 13 mmHg.

      The components within the skull include the brain (80%/1400 ml), blood (10%/150 ml), and cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) (10%/150 ml).

      Because the skull is a rigid box, if one of the three components increases in volume, one or more of the remaining components must decrease in volume to compensate, or the ICP will rise (Monroe-Kellie hypothesis).

      Primary brain injury occurs as a result of a head injury and is unavoidable unless precautions are taken to reduce the risk of head injury. A reduction in oxygen delivery due to hypoxemia (low arterial PaO2) or anaemia, a reduction in cerebral blood flow due to hypotension or reduced cardiac output, and factors that cause a raised ICP and reduced CPP are all causes of secondary brain injury. Secondary brain injury can be avoided with proper management.

      The most important initial management task is to make certain that:

      There is protection of the airway and the cervical spine
      There is proper ventilation and oxygenation
      Blood pressure and cerebral perfusion pressure are both adequate (CPP).

      Following the implementation of these management principles, additional strategies to reduce ICP and preserve cerebral perfusion are required. The volume of one or more of the contents of the skull can be reduced using techniques that can be used to reduce ICP.

      Reduce the volume of brain tissue
      Blood volume should be reduced.
      CSF volume should be reduced.

      The following are some methods for reducing the volume of brain tissue:
      Abscess removal or tumour resection
      Steroids (especially dexamethasone) are used to treat oedema in the brain.
      To reduce intracellular volume, use mannitol/furosemide or hypertonic saline.
      To increase intracranial volume, a decompressive craniectomy is performed.

      The following are some methods for reducing blood volume:

      Haematomas must be evacuated.
      Barbiturate coma reduces cerebral metabolic rate and oxygen consumption, lowering cerebral blood volume as a result.
      Hypoxemia, hypercarbia, hyperthermia, vasodilator drugs, and hypotension should all be avoided in the arterial system.
      PEEP/airway obstruction/CVP lines in neck: patient positioning with 30° head up, avoid neck compression with ties/excessive rotation, avoid PEEP/airway obstruction/CVP lines in neck

      The following are some methods for reducing CSF volume:

      To reduce CSF volume, an external ventricular drain or a ventriculoperitoneal shunt is inserted (although more a long term measure).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      22.9
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - An air ambulance brought a young boy involved in a fight to the...

    Incorrect

    • An air ambulance brought a young boy involved in a fight to the emergency department.

      On examination, his blood pressure cannot be recorded. He suffers a stab wound to his chest that has penetrated the left atrium and the artery that supplies it.

      Which artery is most likely damaged in this scenario?

      Your Answer: Left anterior descending artery

      Correct Answer: Left coronary artery

      Explanation:

      The left atrium is supplied by the left coronary artery and its major branch the left circumflex.

      The heart receives blood supply from coronary arteries. The right and left coronary arteries branch off the aorta and supply oxygenated blood to all heart muscle parts.

      The left main coronary artery branches into:
      1. Circumflex artery – supplies the left atrium, side, and back of the left ventricle. The left marginal artery arises from the left circumflex artery. It travels along the obtuse margin of the heart.
      The left marginal artery, a branch of the circumflex artery, supplies the left ventricle.
      2. Left Anterior Descending (LAD) artery – supplies the front and bottom of the left ventricle and front of the interventricular septum

      The right coronary artery branches into:
      1. Right marginal artery
      2. Posterior descending artery

      The right coronary artery supplies the right atrium, right ventricle, interatrial septum, and the inferior posterior third of the interventricular septum. It also supplies the atrioventricular node + sinoatrial node in most patients. The posterior descending artery supplies the posterior third of the interventricular septum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      19.5
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - At what site would you palpate to assess the posterior tibial pulse? ...

    Correct

    • At what site would you palpate to assess the posterior tibial pulse?

      Your Answer: Behind and below the medial ankle

      Explanation:

      The posterior tibial artery originates from the popliteal artery in the popliteal fossa. It passes posterior to the popliteus muscle to pierce the soleus muscle. It descends between the tibialis posterior and flexor digitorum longus muscles.

      The posterior tibial artery supplies blood to the posterior compartment of the lower limb. The artery can be palpated posterior to the medial malleolus.

      There are 4 main pulse points for the lower limb:

      1. Femoral pulse 2-3 cm below the mid-inguinal point
      2. Popliteal partially flexed knee to loosen the popliteal fascia
      3. Posterior tibial behind and below the medial ankle
      4. Dorsal pedis dorsum of the foot over the navicular bone

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      23.4
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - You draw a patient's blood sample from the median cubital vein in the...

    Incorrect

    • You draw a patient's blood sample from the median cubital vein in the antecubital fossa.

      Which of the following veins also connects to the cephalic vein other than the median cubital vein?

      Your Answer: Ulnar vein

      Correct Answer: Basilic vein

      Explanation:

      The upper limb venous drainage is divided into superficial and deep. The superficial veins are accessible to draw blood for investigations. The cephalic, basilic, and median cubital veins are superficial veins.

      The median cubital vein connects the cephalic vein and basilic vein. It is located anteriorly in the antecubital fossa and is preferred for venepuncture due to its palpability and ease of access.

      The basilic vein and cephalic vein are the primary veins that drain the upper limb. They begin as the dorsal venous arch. The basilic vein originates from the ulnar side, while the cephalic vein originates from the radial side of the dorsal arch of the upper limb.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      14.7
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - Which of the following statements about the cricoid cartilage is true? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements about the cricoid cartilage is true?

      Your Answer: The upper border is attached to the hyoid bone

      Correct Answer: The lower border is attached to the first tracheal ring

      Explanation:

      The cricoid cartilage is a hyaline cartilage ring surrounding the trachea. It provides support for key phonation muscles.

      The inferior border of the cricoid cartilage is attached to the thyroid cartilage and the inferior border is attached to the first tracheal ring through the cricotracheal ligament.

      Application of pressure to the cricoid cartilage to reduce risk of aspiration of gastric contents (Sellick manoeuvre) does not stop tracheal aspiration and cannot stop regurgitation into the oesophagus.

      A force of 44 newtons to the cricoid cartilage is needed to control regurgitation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Antomy
      5.5
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Physiology (1/2) 50%
Pharmacology (3/7) 43%
Statistical Methods (2/3) 67%
Physiology And Biochemistry (1/3) 33%
Anatomy (2/8) 25%
Pathophysiology (1/3) 33%
Clinical Measurement (1/2) 50%
Anaesthesia Related Apparatus (0/1) 0%
Antomy (0/1) 0%
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