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Question 1
Incorrect
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Regarding transportation of iron in the body, the process in which iron is transported from the enterocyte into the blood occurs using which transporter protein:
Your Answer: Heme
Correct Answer: Ferroportin
Explanation:Divalent metal transporter 1 (DMT1) transport several divalent metals including iron across the enterocyte’s cell membrane into the cell. The cell can then release it into the body via the only known iron exporter in mammals, ferroportin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
- Physiology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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Humoral immunity is a major defence against:
Your Answer: Bacterial infections
Correct Answer: Viral infections
Explanation:Humoral immunity is provided by the neutralizing and non-neutralizing antibodies that are formed from the B lymphocytes. This form of immunity is most important in viral infection. Non-neutralizing antibodies increases phagocytosis of the infected cell and inhibit the ability of the virus to replicate.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Immunology
- Physiology
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Question 3
Correct
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Cholinergic vagal supply to the SA and AV nodes results in slowing of the heart rate via:
Your Answer: M2 muscarinic receptors
Explanation:M2 muscarinic receptors are the receptors for the parasympathetic system to the SA and the AV node.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Physiology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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Which of the following is the most common causative organism in infective endocarditis?
Your Answer: Staphylococcus aureus
Correct Answer: Streptococcus viridans
Explanation:Viridans Alpha-haemolytic streptococci, that are present in the mouth are the most frequently isolated microorganisms when the infection is acquired in a community setting. In contrast, Staphylococcus blood stream infections are frequently acquired in a health care setting where they can enter the blood stream through procedures that cause break in the integrity of skin like surgery, catheterisation or during access of long term indwelling catheters or secondary to intravenous injection of recreational drugs.Prosthetic valve endocarditis is commonly caused by Staphylococcus epidermidis as it is capable of growing as a biofilm on plastic surfaces
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Physiology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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Which of the following is not a feature of Liddle’s syndrome?
Your Answer: Alkalosis
Correct Answer: Autosomal recessive inheritance
Explanation:Liddle’s syndrome is a rare autosomal dominant condition characterized by early, and frequently severe, high blood pressure associated with low plasma renin activity, metabolic alkalosis, low blood potassium, and normal to low levels of aldosterone. Liddle syndrome involves abnormal kidney function, with excess reabsorption of sodium and loss of potassium from the renal tubule, and is treated with a combination of low sodium diet and potassium-sparing diuretic drugs (e.g., amiloride).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
- Physiology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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The movement of molecules across the cell membrane relies greatly on active transport. Which of the following statements about active transport is correct?
Your Answer: Secondary active transport derives energy from adenosine triphosphate (ATP)
Correct Answer: Active transport occurs in glucose absorption from the gut
Explanation:The movement of a material against a concentration gradient, i.e. from a low to a high concentration, is known as active transport. Primary active transport is defined as active transport that involves the use of chemical energy, such as adenosine triphosphate (ATP). Secondary active transport occurs when an electrochemical gradient is used. The sodium-potassium pump, calcium ATPase pump, and proton pump are all key active transport systems that use ATP. An electrochemical gradient is used by the sodium-calcium co-transporter, which is an example of secondary active transport. The sodium-dependent hexose transporter SGLUT-1 transports glucose and galactose into enterocytes. Secondary active transport is exemplified here.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cell Biology
- Physiology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 55 year old cardiac patient is comfortable at rest but heavy housework results in fatigue, palpitations or dyspnoea. What New York Heart Association class best describes the severity of their disease?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: NYHA Class II
Explanation:New York Heart Association functional classification:Class I: no limitation is experienced in any activities; there are no symptoms from ordinary activities.Class II: slight, mild limitation of activity; the patient is comfortable at rest or with mild exertion.Class III: marked limitation of any activity; the patient is comfortable only at rest.Class IV: any physical activity brings on discomfort and symptoms occur at rest.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Physiology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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Individuals who are antibody positive for a specific infection at a specific point in time
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sero-Prevalence
Explanation:n immunology, seroconversion is the time period during which a specific antibody develops and becomes detectable in the blood. After seroconversion has occurred, the disease can be detected in blood tests for the antibody. Sero-prevalence includes Individuals who are antibody positive for a specific infection at a specific point in time.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
- Physiology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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Which of the following hormones cause negative feedback on the CRH/ACTH axis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cortisol
Explanation:The hypothalamic–pituitary–adrenal axis, also known as HPA axis is a set of interactions that regulate the secretion of several hormones through negative feedback. Cortisol, for example, is produced by the adrenal cortex, binds to its receptors in the hypothalamus and adenohypophysis and inhibits secretion of corticotropin releasing hormone (CRH) and adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH). The drop in CRH secretion leads to a decrease in ACTH secretion, which in turn causes less cortisol to be secreted.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
- Physiology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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What is the function of secondary messengers?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Communication from extracellular to intracellular signalling pathways
Explanation:First messengers may not physically cross the phospholipid bilayer to initiate changes within the cell directly. This functional limitation necessitates the cell to devise signal transduction mechanisms to transduce first messenger into second messengers, so that the extracellular signal may be propagated intracellularly. Second messengers are intracellular signalling molecules released by the cell to trigger physiological changes such as proliferation, differentiation, migration, survival, and apoptosis. Secondary messengers are therefore one of the initiating components of intracellular signal transduction cascades.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cell Biology
- Physiology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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Question 12
Incorrect
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Which statement about the 2nd heart sound is true?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It is caused by closure of the aortic and pulmonary valves.
Explanation:The second heart sound is produced due to closure of the aortic and pulmonary valves. It is a high pitched dub sound. Splitting may occur due to pathology.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Physiology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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Why is tissue plasminogen activator (tPa) a valuable treatment, used clinically in myocardial infarction and stroke?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It forms plasmin from its inactive precursor
Explanation:tPA is used in some cases of diseases that feature blood clots, such as pulmonary embolism, myocardial infarction, and stroke, in a medical treatment called thrombolysis. The most common use is for ischemic stroke. As an enzyme, it catalyses the conversion of plasminogen to plasmin, the major enzyme responsible for clot breakdown.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
- Physiology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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The parasympathetic function of the facial nerve is:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Secretion of tears from lacrimal glands, secretion of saliva from the sublingual and submandibular salivary glands.
Explanation:Facial nerve (Cranial Nerve VII) has both sensory and motor components so it is a mixed nerve. It carries axons of:General somatic afferent – to skin and the posterior earGeneral visceral efferent – which innervate sublingual, submandibular and lacrimal glands and the mucosa of the nasal cavity.General visceral afferent – provide sensation to soft palate and parts of the nasal cavity.Special visceral efferent – innervate muscles of facial expression and stapedius, the posterior belly of the digastric and the stylohyoid musclesSpecial visceral afferent – provide taste to the anterior two-thirds of the tongue via chorda tympani.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
- Physiology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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Which enzyme deficiency can lead to ammonia intoxication?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ornithine transcarbamylase
Explanation:Ornithine transcarbamylase deficiency also known as OTC deficiency is the most common urea cycle disorder in humans. Ornithine transcarbamylase, the defective enzyme in this disorder is the final enzyme in the proximal portion of the urea cycle, responsible for converting carbamoyl phosphate and ornithine into citrulline. OTC deficiency is inherited in an X-linked recessive manner, meaning males are more commonly affected than females.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolism
- Physiology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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Which of the following is not innervated by the parasympathetic nerve supply?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Radial muscle of iris
Explanation:The sphincter pupillae is supplied by the parasympathetic fibers from the Edinger Westphal nucleus of the oculomotor nerve. The dilator pupillae (radial muscle) is supplied by the postganglionic fibers of the superior cervical sympathetic ganglion. The parasympathetic nerve supply to the salivary glands originate in the parasympathetic nucleus of the facial nerve (superior salivatory nucleus) and the glossopharyngeal nerve (inferior salivatory nucleus). The parasympathetic preganglionic fibers originate in the dorsal nucleus of the vagus nerve and descend into the thorax in the vagus nerve. The fibers terminate by synapsing with postganglionic neurons in the cardiac plexuses. Postganglionic fibers terminate on the sinoatrial and atrioventricular nodes and on the coronary arteries Parasympathetic supply to the stomach is via the vagus nerve.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
- Physiology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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With regard to the cell cycle. In what phase do chromatids get cleaved into chromosomes and pulled apart?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Anaphase
Explanation:Mitosis is the process during which cell division occurs. It is divided into 4 stages:- The first stage is the prophase during which the chromosomes condense, mitotic spindles form and the chromosomes pair which each other. – The second stage is the metaphase during which the chromatids align at the equatorial plane. – The third stage is the anaphase during which the chromatids are separated into 2 daughter chromosomes. – The fourth phase is the telophase during which the chromatids decondense and a new nuclear envelop forms around the each of the daughter chromosomes. Cytokinesis is the process during which the cell cytoplasm divides.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cell Biology
- Physiology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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Which ONE statement about homeostasis is true?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Negative feedback occurs via receptors, comparators and effectors
Explanation:Homeostasis is the property of a system in which variables are regulated so that internal conditions remain relatively constant and stable. Homeostasis is achieved by a negative feedback mechanism. Negative feedback occurs based upon a set point through receptors, comparators and effectors. The ‘set point’ is a NARROW range of values within which normal function occurs. The two body systems that regulate homeostasis are the Nervous system and the Endocrine system. The smooth muscle of the uterus becomes more active towards the end of pregnancy. This is a POSITIVE feedback.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cell Biology
- Physiology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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Which factors increase the end-diastolic volume?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Constriction of veins
Explanation:End diastolic volume is also known as preload. It is the amount of blood the heart contracts against. Constriction of veins will decrease venous pooling and increase venous return, hence increasing the end diastolic volume. Standing will increase venous pooling hence decreasing venous return and end diastolic volume. Raised intrapericardial pressure will also decrease venous return and hence end diastolic volume.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Physiology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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Which of the following causes an increase in venous return?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: An increase in the normal negative intra-thoracic pressure
Explanation:An increase in the normal negative intra-thoracic pressure occurs in inspiration e.g. Kussmaul sign is an inspiratory distention of the jugular veins caused by the inability of the right atrium, encased in its rigid pericardium during constrictive pericarditis, to accommodate the increase in venous return that occurs with inspiration.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Physiology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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The length of DNA is generally measured in terms of the number of:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Base pairs
Explanation:As DNA is made up of nucleotides, its length is measured by the number of base pairs in the DNA molecules.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
- Physiology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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Complement system help dispose waste products after which natural process?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Apoptosis
Explanation:The complement system is a part of the immune system that enhances (complements) the ability of antibodies and phagocytic cells to clear microbes and damaged cells from an organism or apoptosis. It is part of the innate immune system.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Immunology
- Physiology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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Question 24
Incorrect
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Endotoxin
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Composed of Lipid A in liposaccharide in cell wall
Explanation:Lipopolysaccharides (LPS), also known as lipoglycans and endotoxins, are large molecules consisting of a lipid (lipid A) and a polysaccharide composed of O-antigen, outer core and inner core joined by a covalent bond; they are found in the outer membrane of Gram-negative bacteria, and elicit strong immune responses in animals.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
- Physiology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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Which one of the following is most likely to be seen in a patient with multiple endocrine neoplasia (MEN) type I?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Insulinoma
Explanation:Multiple endocrine neoplasia type 1 (MEN-1 syndrome) or Wermer’s syndrome is part of a group of disorders, the multiple endocrine neoplasias, that affect the endocrine system through development of neoplastic lesions in the ‘three P’s’:Parathyroid (>90%): hyperparathyroidism due to parathyroid hyperplasiaPituitary (15-42%)Pancreas (60-70%, e.g. insulinoma, gastrinoma)
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
- Physiology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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Which of the following statements is correct regarding the neuronal action potential?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Initial depolarisation occurs as a result of a Na + influx.
Explanation:The resting potential in most neurons has a value of approximately -70 mV. The threshold potential is generally around -55 mV. Initial depolarisation when there is Na+influx through ligand-gated Na+channels. Action potential is an all or nothing response. The size of the action potential is constant and so, the intensity of the stimulus is coded by the frequency of firing of a neuron. K+efflux is responsible for repolarisation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cell Biology
- Physiology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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You see a patient on the ward who is acutely short of breath and perform an ABG. The results are as follows
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Respiratory Acidosis
Explanation:This patient has acidosis as the pH is low <7.35 The pO2 is irrelevant. The pCO2 is raised i.e. the respiratory system is causing acidosis. The patient is acidotic so this is a respiratory acidosis The Base Excess is normal. You would typically expect the base excess to rise but metabolic compensation is slower than respiratory compensation so this picture may be seen acutely.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cell Biology
- Physiology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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The pathway responsible for the discriminative aspect of pain, is called the:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Neospinothalamic tract
Explanation:The spinothalamic tract is an ascending or a sensory tract, responsible for transmission of pain and temperature. The neospinothalamic tract is responsible for fast pain or discriminative pain whereas the palaeospinothalamic tract is responsible for transmission of slow pain.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
- Physiology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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Select one true statement about haemoglobin synthesis…
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Occurs in the cytosol of developing red cells.
Explanation:Haemoglobin (Hb) is synthesized in a complex series of steps. The haem part is synthesized in a series of steps in the mitochondria and the cytosol of immature red blood cells, while the globin protein parts are synthesized by ribosomes in the cytosol. Production of Hb continues in the cell throughout its early development from the proerythroblast to the reticulocyte in the bone marrow.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
- Physiology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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In which organelle is the intrinsic apoptotic pathway initiated?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mitochondria
Explanation:Apoptosis is a programmed form of cell death involving the degradation of cellular constituents by a group of cysteine proteases called caspases. The caspases can be activated through either the intrinsic (mitochondrial mediated) or extrinsic (death receptor mediated) apoptotic pathways. The intrinsic apoptotic pathway is characterized by permeabilization of the mitochondria and release of cytochrome c into the cytoplasm.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cell Biology
- Physiology
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Question 31
Incorrect
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With regards to the deiodinases, where would you find D1?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Liver
Explanation:The liver produces an important amount of T3 by outer ring deiodination thanks to its elevated concentration of type I deiodinase. It can also be found in the kidney.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
- Physiology
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Question 32
Incorrect
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From which of the following cell types are platelets derived?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Megakaryocytes
Explanation:Synthesis of platelets occurs in the bone marrow by fragmentation of megakaryocytes cytoplasm, derived from the common myeloid progenitor cell. The average time for differentiation of the human stem cell to the production of platelets is about 10 days. The major regulator of platelet formation is thrombopoietin and 95% of this is produced by the liver. Normal platelet count is 150 – 450 x 109/L and the normal lifespan of a platelet is about 10 days. Usually about one-third of the marrow output of platelets may be trapped at any one time in the normal spleen.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cell Biology
- Physiology
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Question 33
Incorrect
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Growth hormone deficiency causes?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Decreased epiphyseal growth
Explanation:Growth hormone deficiency is caused by conditions affecting the pituitary gland, such as tumours. Its effects depend on the age of the patient: in infancy and childhood, growth failure is most likely to occur. The epiphyseal plate is the area in long bones where growth occurs, and it is the area affected by growth hormone deficiency. Poor growth/shortness is the main symptom of GH deficiency in children, usually resulting in growth at about half the usual rate for age.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
- Physiology
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Question 34
Incorrect
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At rest, proton pumps are sequestered within the parietal cell in a series of membrane compartments known as:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tubulovesicles
Explanation:The gastric H, K-ATPase pump, which pumps gastric acid (HCl), in the resting state is found in cytoplasmic tubular membranes. In the stimulated state this pump moves from the tubulovesicles to the apical membrane.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal
- Physiology
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Question 35
Incorrect
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In Starling’s law of the heart, the decrease in tension developed by muscle contraction at high degrees of stretch is due to:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Disruption of myocardial fibers
Explanation:Starling law states that the force of contraction is directly proportional to the preload. When the heart muscle is stretched beyond its limit the tension that is developed decreases, this is not due to loss of formation of effective myosin and actin cross bridges. The heart muscles despite being fully stretched is never stretched to this point. The reason for this decreased tension is physical disruption of the myocardial fibers.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Physiology
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Question 36
Incorrect
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What is the reason for a deranged thrombin clotting time?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Heparin therapy
Explanation:Thrombic clotting time is also known as thrombin time. It is clinically performed to determine the therapeutic levels of heparin. After plasma is isolated from the blood, bovine thrombin is added to it and the time it takes from the addition to clot is recorded. The reference interval is usually <21s. deranged results are indicative of heparin therapy, hypofibrinogenemia, hyperfibrinogenaemia or lupus anticoagulant.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
- Physiology
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Question 37
Incorrect
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Which of the following is not secreted by cells in the antrum of the stomach?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hydrochloric acid
Explanation:Cells in the body of the stomach secrete mucus, HCl and pepsinogen. Cells in the antrum secrete pepsinogen, gastrin and mucus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal
- Physiology
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Question 38
Incorrect
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During which stage of sleep is muscle tone in the limbs most reduced?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: REM
Explanation:Rapid eye movement (REM) stage is marked by extensive physiological changes in the body, such as accelerated respiration, increased brain activity and muscle relaxation. People dream during REM sleep, perhaps as a result of excited brain activity and the paralysis of major voluntary muscles.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
- Physiology
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Question 39
Incorrect
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The pyloric sphincter is largely made up of thickening of
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The circular muscle layer
Explanation:The pyloric sphincter, or valve, is a strong ring of smooth muscle (circular muscle layer) at the end of the pyloric canal which lets food pass from the stomach to the duodenum. It controls the outflow of gastric contents into the duodenum. It receives sympathetic innervation from the celiac ganglion.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal
- Physiology
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Question 40
Incorrect
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A 24-year-old athlete drinks a 500 ml hypertonic sports drink before an endurance event he participates in. Which of the following effects will this cause?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The interstitial fluid becomes more concentrated
Explanation:Osmosis is the passive movement of water across a semipermeable membrane from a region of low solute concentration to a region of higher solute concentration. When hypertonic fluid is ingested: The plasma becomes CONCENTRATED. The cells lose water and shrink The intracellular fluid becomes more concentrated. Water and ions move freely from the plasma into the interstitial fluid and the interstitial fluid becomes more concentrated. The increased osmotic potential draws water out of the cells.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cell Biology
- Physiology
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Question 41
Incorrect
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The enzyme responsible for telomeres maintaining their length after cell division is called:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Telomerase reverse transcriptase
Explanation:Telomerase is a reverse transcriptase that uses the RNA template to synthesize DNA in the 5′-3′ direction resulting in extension of the already 3′ end and then translocates it to the newly synthesized end. The GT rich strand is thus elongated.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
- Physiology
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Question 42
Incorrect
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The outer and inner surfaces of the arachnoid mater is covered with:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mesothelial cells
Explanation:The arachnoid mater is one of the three meninges that covers the brain and spinal cord. It is interposed between the two other meninges, the more superficial and much thicker dura mater and the deeper pia mater, from which it is separated by the subarachnoid space. The arachnoid mater consists of a subdural mesothelial layer and a compact central layer
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
- Physiology
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Question 43
Incorrect
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The process whereby DNA fragments are separated by size and charge is called:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Gel electrophoresis
Explanation:Fragments of DNA of varying length can be separated on the basis of their charge and their size by a process called gel electrophoresis. Because DNA contains negatively charged phosphate groups, it will migrate in an electric field toward the positive electrode. Shorter chains migrate more rapidly through the pores of the gel, and thus separation depends on length. DNA bands in the gel can be visualized by various techniques including staining with dyes and autoradiography.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
- Physiology
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Question 44
Incorrect
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In Argyll Robertson pupils…
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: All of the above
Explanation:Argyll Robertson pupils are bilaterally small pupils that accommodate or reduce in size near an object but do not react to light. They do not constrict when exposed to bright light. They are a highly specific sign of neurosyphilis but may be seen in diabetic neuropathy as well.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
- Physiology
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Question 45
Incorrect
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Which is the commonest cardiovascular abnormality seen in an adult patient with Marfan’s syndrome?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Aortic aneurysm
Explanation:Marfan syndrome (MFS) is a genetic disorder of connective tissue. The degree to which people are affected varies. People with Marfan’s tend to be tall, and thin, with long arms, legs, fingers and toes. They also typically have flexible joints and scoliosis. The most serious complications involve the heart and aorta with an increased risk of mitral valve prolapse and aortic aneurysm.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Physiology
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Question 46
Incorrect
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In Jugular vein pressure the “a” wave represents?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Atrial systole
Explanation:The jugular venous pressure (JVP, sometimes referred to as jugular venous pulse) is the indirectly observed pressure over the venous system via visualization of the internal jugular vein. It can be useful in the differentiation of different forms of heart and lung disease. Classically three upward deflections and two downward deflections have been described:The upward deflections are the a (atrial contraction), c (ventricular contraction and resulting bulging of tricuspid into the right atrium during isovolumetric systole) and v = venous filling.The downward deflections of the wave are the x (the atrium relaxes and the tricuspid valve moves downward) and the y descent (filling of ventricle after tricuspid opening).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Physiology
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Question 47
Incorrect
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The AV Node:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It decelerates impulses passing to the ventricles
Explanation:The action potentials in the sinoatrial (SA) and atrioventricular (AV) nodes are largely due to Ca2+, with no contribution by Na+ influx. The depolarization continues to conduct slowly through the atrioventricular (AV) node. The AV node is located in the right posterior portion of the interatrial septum. This is a small, bean-shaped. The atrial conductive system is organized so that the cardiac impulse does not travel from the atria into the ventricles too rapidly; this delay allows the atria to empty before ventricular contraction begins. It is the AV node and its adjacent conductive fibers that delay this transmission into the ventricles. Conduction through the AV Node is represented on the ECG by the PR interval.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Physiology
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Question 48
Incorrect
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Pancreatic juice is usually?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Alkaline
Explanation:Pancreatic juice is alkaline in nature and has a high amount of bicarbonate ions. About 1500 ml is secreted every day. It also contains a large quantity of enzymes in the inactive form.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal
- Physiology
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Question 49
Incorrect
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What is the effect of vasopressin on the kidney?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Increase collecting duct permeability to water
Explanation:Vasopressin, also known as antidiuretic hormone or ADH, which increases water reabsorption in the kidney’s collecting ducts. It works by increasing water permeability in the collecting ducts and distal convoluted tubules. It induces the exocytosis of AQP-CD-laden vesicles, transferring water channels from intracellular vesicles to the apical plasma membrane, therefore allowing more water to be reabsorbed from the urine in the collecting ducts to the blood.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
- Physiology
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Question 50
Incorrect
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What is the principle site of action of adrenocorticotrophic hormone (ACTH)?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Adrenal gland
Explanation:Adrenocorticotropic hormone, also known as ACTH or corticotropin, is a polypeptide tropic hormone. It is synthesized by the corticotropic cells of the anterior pituitary. It works by regulating the secretion of glucocorticoid hormones from the cortex cells in the adrenal gland. It binds to the melanocortin (MC) 2 receptors on the surface of the adrenal zona glomerulosa cells, producing cortisol.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
- Physiology
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Question 51
Incorrect
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During which phase of the cell cycle does DNA synthesis occur?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: S
Explanation:DNA synthesis occurs in the S phase of the cell cycle. In the G1 phase the cell prepares to divide. In G2 the cellular organelles divide and in the M phase mitosis occur. In the G0 phase the cell becomes quiescent and does not divide further
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
- Physiology
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Question 52
Incorrect
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Alveolar epithelial cells:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Type 2 represent 60% of the cells
Explanation:Type I alveolar cells are squamous (giving more surface area to each cell) and cover approximately 90–95% of the alveolar surface. Type I cells are involved in the process of gas exchange between the alveoli and blood. Type II alveolar cells cover a small fraction of the alveolar surface area. Their function is of major importance in the secretion of pulmonary surfactant, which decreases the surface tension within the alveoli. They are also capable of cellular division, giving rise to more type I alveolar cells when the lung tissue is damaged. These cells are granular and roughly cuboidal. Type II alveolar cells are typically found at the blood-air barrier. Although they only comprise <5% of the alveolar surface, they are relatively numerous (60% of alveolar epithelial cells).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
- Respiratory
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-
Question 53
Incorrect
-
Regarding the innervation of the cerebral blood vessels, postganglionic sympathetic neurons have their cell bodies in the:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Superior cervical ganglia
Explanation:The superior cervical ganglion (SCG) is a part of autonomic system which plays a major role in maintaining homeostasis of the body. This ganglion innervates structures in the head and neck and is the largest and the most superiorly located ganglion. The SCG provides sympathetic innervation to structures within the head, including the pineal gland, the blood vessels in the cranial muscles and the brain, the choroid plexus, the eyes, the lacrimal glands, the carotid body, the salivary glands, and the thyroid gland. The postganglionic axons of the SCG innervate the internal carotid artery and form the internal carotid plexus. The internal carotid plexus carries the postganglionic axons of the SCG to the eye, lacrimal gland, mucous membranes of the mouth, nose, and pharynx, and numerous blood-vessels in the head.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
- Physiology
-
-
Question 54
Incorrect
-
Which neurotransmitter is made from hydroxylation and decarboxylation of tryptophan?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Serotonin
Explanation:Serotonin is synthesized from the essential amino acid tryptophan. The rate-limiting step is the conversion of the amino acid to 5-hydroxytryptophan by tryptophan hydroxylase. This is then converted to serotonin by the aromatic L-amino acid decarboxylase.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
- Physiology
-
-
Question 55
Incorrect
-
Which of the following values of bone mineral density measured by DEXA would signify osteopenia?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: T score of -2.2
Explanation:DEXA T Scores:Normal T-score ≥ −1.0Osteopenia −2.5 < T-score < −1.0Osteoporosis T-score ≤ −2.5Severe osteoporosis T-score ≤ −2.5 with fragility fracture
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
- Physiology
-
-
Question 56
Incorrect
-
When observing a JVP, which of the following would lead to prominent v waves?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tricuspid regurgitation
Explanation:The v wave corresponds to Venous filling when the tricuspid valve is closed and venous pressure increases from venous return. In Tricuspid regurgitation there is additional blood from the regurgitant flow and thus this leads to a more prominent V wave.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Physiology
-
-
Question 57
Incorrect
-
Almost all of the protein that appears in the stool is:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Comes from bacteria and cellular debris
Explanation:75% of faecal weight is water. By dry weight 30% of faeces is bacteria,10-20% is fat and 2-3% proteins. Almost all proteins ingested are absorbed in the gut.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal
- Physiology
-
-
Question 58
Incorrect
-
Which of the following is an incorrect statement regarding the structure of DNA?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The two strands of DNA are held together by cysteine bonds.
Explanation:The two strands of DNA are held together by hydrogen bonds formed between the nucleotide bases.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
- Physiology
-
-
Question 59
Incorrect
-
Question 60
Incorrect
-
The process where by DNA fragments are separated by size and charge is called:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Gel electrophoresis
Explanation:Fragments of DNA of varying length can be separated on the basis of their charge and their size by a process called gel electrophoresis. Because DNA contains negatively charged phosphate groups, it will migrate in an electric field toward the positive electrode. Shorter chains migrate more rapidly through the pores of the gel, and thus separation depends on length. DNA bands in the gel can be visualized by various techniques including staining with dyes and autoradiography.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
- Physiology
-
-
Question 61
Incorrect
-
Which one of the following is a cause of a soft second heart sound?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Aortic stenosis
Explanation:Second heart sound (S2) forms the dub of lub-dub and is composed of components A2 and P2. • loud: hypertension• soft: AS• fixed split: physiological split (normally occurs during inhalation), right bundle branch block, pulmonary stenosis, and atrial septal defect.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Physiology
-
-
Question 62
Incorrect
-
Which of the following statements is correct regarding flow through the cardiovascular system?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Turbulent blood flow may be caused by increased cardiac output.
Explanation:Frictional forces at the sides of a vessel cause a drag force on the fluid touching them in laminar blood flow, which creates a velocity gradient where the flow is greatest at the centre. Laminar blood flow may become disrupted and flow may become turbulent at high velocities, especially in large arteries or where the velocity increases sharply at points of sudden narrowing in the vessels, or across valves. There is increased tendency for thrombi formation when there is turbulent blood flow. Clinically, turbulence may be heard as a murmur or a bruit. As a result of elevated cardiac output, there may be turbulent blood flow, even when the cardiac valves are anatomically normal, and as a result, a physiological murmur can be heard. One such example is pregnancy.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cell Biology
- Physiology
-
-
Question 63
Incorrect
-
The approximate incidence of deep venous thrombosis (DVT) in the general population each year is:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 1 per 1000
Explanation:About 1 in 1000 adults per year has DVT, but as of 2011, available data is dominated by North American and European populations. DVT is rare in children, with an incidence of about 1 in 100,000 a year. From childhood to old age, incidence increases by a factor of about 1000, with almost 1% of the elderly experiencing DVTs yearly.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Physiology
-
-
Question 64
Incorrect
-
All of the following are consistent with the indicator dilution method except---
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: In thermodilution, the indicator used is warm saline
Explanation:In thermodilution, the indicator used is cold saline.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Physiology
-
-
Question 65
Incorrect
-
Which of the following conditions is associated with eosinophilia?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ascaris
Explanation:Eosinophilia can be idiopathic (primary) or, more commonly, secondary to another disease. In the Western World, allergic or atopic diseases are the most common causes, especially those of the respiratory or integumentary systems. In the developing world, parasites are the most common cause e.g. Ascaris
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
- Physiology
-
-
Question 66
Incorrect
-
What is the normal duration of PR interval on an electrocardiogram of a healthy individual?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 0.12–0.20 s
Explanation:PR interval extends from the beginning of the P-wave until the beginning of the QRS complex. The normal duration of the PR interval is 0.12-0.20 s. It can be prolonged in first degree heart block, and reduced in Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Physiology
-
-
Question 67
Incorrect
-
Medullary chemoreceptors
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Monitor H+ concentration of the CSF
Explanation:Central chemoreceptors of the central nervous system, located on the ventrolateral medullary surface in the vicinity of the exit of the 9th and 10th cranial nerves, are sensitive to the pH of their environment. These act to detect the changes in pH of nearby cerebral spinal fluid (CSF) that are indicative of altered oxygen or carbon dioxide concentrations available to brain tissues.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
- Respiratory
-
-
Question 68
Incorrect
-
Which one of the following ECG findings is least associated with digoxin use?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prolonged QT interval
Explanation:Digoxin ECG features:• ST depression (‘reverse tick’)• flattened/inverted T waves• Prolonged PR interval• short QT interval• arrhythmias e.g. AV block, bradycardia, ventricular tachycardia or fibrillation (for example paroxysmal atrial tachycardia with A-V block – so-called PAT with block) is said to be pathognomonic (i.e. diagnostic) of digoxin toxicity.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Physiology
-
-
Question 69
Incorrect
-
A trauma victim who has been intubated is tachycardic, hypotensive, and has a poor urine output. You feel she is dehydrated and decide to use a central venous catheter to help you manage her. As part of this, you keep an eye on the waveform of central venous pressure (CVP). Which of the following cardiac cycle phases corresponds to the CVP waveform's 'a wave'?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: End diastole
Explanation:The pressure measured in the right atrium or superior vena cava is known as central venous pressure (CVP). In a spontaneously breathing subject, the usual CVP value is 0-8 cmH2O (0-6 mmHg). The structure of the CVP waveform is as follows: The CVP’s components are listed in the table below: Component of the waveform The cardiac cycle phase. mechanical event mechanical event Diastole Atrial contraction a wave C wave v wave Early systole The tricuspid valve closes and bulges Late Systole Filling of the atrium with systolic blood x descent y descent Mid systole Relaxation of the atrium Early diastole Filling of the ventricles at an early stage
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Physiology
-
-
Question 70
Incorrect
-
What landmark divides the frontal and parietal lobes?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Central sulcus
Explanation:The central sulcus divides the frontal lobe from the parietal lobe. It contains the motor cells for the movement function of the body.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
- Physiology
-
-
Question 71
Incorrect
-
Which of the following is an example of a ketone body?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Acetoacetate
Explanation:Ketone bodies are three water-soluble molecules (acetoacetate, beta-hydroxybutyrate, and their spontaneous breakdown product, acetone) that are produced by the liver from fatty acids during periods of low food intake (fasting), carbohydrate restrictive diets, starvation, prolonged intense exercise, alcoholism or in untreated (or inadequately treated) type 1 diabetes mellitus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolism
- Physiology
-
-
Question 72
Incorrect
-
Which cranial nerve is responsible for the parasympathetic nerve supply of the thorax and upper abdomen?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: CN X
Explanation:Cranial nerve X supplies the structures of the thorax and abdomen. All the rest of the cranial nerves supply the structures in the head and neck
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
- Physiology
-
-
Question 73
Incorrect
-
Which of the following regulates the calcium release channels?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Calstabin 2
Explanation:Ca2+ is released from the SR through a Ca2+ release channel, a cardiac isoform of the ryanodine receptor (RyR2), which controls intracytoplasmic [Ca2+] and, as in vascular smooth-muscle cells, leads to the local changes in intracellular [Ca2+] called calcium sparks. A number of regulatory proteins, including calstabin 2, inhibit RyR2 and, thereby, the release of Ca2+ from the SR.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Physiology
-
-
Question 74
Incorrect
-
Which one of the following is necessary to activate plasminogen to plasmin?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: tPA
Explanation:In circulation, plasminogen adopts a closed, activation resistant conformation. Upon binding to clots, or to the cell surface, plasminogen adopts an open form that can be converted into active plasmin by a variety of enzymes, including tissue plasminogen activator (tPA), urokinase plasminogen activator (uPA), kallikrein, and factor XII (Hageman factor).
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
- Physiology
-
-
Question 75
Incorrect
-
Question 76
Incorrect
-
Question 77
Incorrect
-
Which pair is correct concerning enteroendocrine cells in the GIT mucosa and their products?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: D cells and somatostatin
Explanation:Somatostatin, an inhibitory hormone is secreted form the D cells of the Pancreatic Islets.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal
- Physiology
-
-
Question 78
Incorrect
-
Which one of the following is not part of the WHO diagnostic criteria for the metabolic syndrome?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: High LDL
Explanation:The World Health Organization 1999 criteria require the presence of any one of diabetes mellitus, impaired glucose tolerance, impaired fasting glucose or insulin resistance, AND two of the following:Blood pressure: ≥ 140/90 mmHgDyslipidaemia: triglycerides (TG): ≥ 1.695 mmol/L and high-density lipoprotein cholesterol (HDL-C) ≤ 0.9 mmol/L (male), ≤ 1.0 mmol/L (female)Central obesity: waist: hip ratio > 0.90 (male); > 0.85 (female), or body mass index > 30 kg/m2Microalbuminuria: urinary albumin excretion ratio ≥ 20 µg/min or albumin: creatinine ratio ≥ 30 mg/g
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
- Physiology
-
-
Question 79
Incorrect
-
Which one of the following skin disorders is least commonly associated with hypothyroidism?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pretibial myxoedema
Explanation:Pretibial myxoedema is an infiltrative dermopathy, resulting as a rare complication of Graves’ disease (hyperthyroidism) and very occasionally occurs in non-thyrotoxic Graves’ disease and Hashimoto’s thyroiditis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
- Physiology
-
-
Question 80
Incorrect
-
In the life cycle of plasmodium species:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Merozoites are released from the liver and enter the red blood cell
Explanation:Plasmodium is a genus of parasitic protozoa, many of which cause malaria in their hosts. The parasite always has two hosts in its life cycle: a Dipteran insect host and a vertebrate host. Sexual reproduction always occurs in the insect, making it the definitive host.The life-cycles of Plasmodium species involve several different stages both in the insect and the vertebrate host. These stages include sporozoites, which are injected by the insect vector into the vertebrate host’s blood. Sporozoites infect the host liver, giving rise to merozoites and (in some species) hypnozoites. These move into the blood where they infect red blood cells. In the red blood cells, the parasites can either form more merozoites to infect more red blood cells, or produce gametocytes which are taken up by insects which feed on the vertebrate host. In the insect host, gametocytes merge to sexually reproduce. After sexual reproduction, parasites grow into new sporozoites, which move to the insect’s salivary glands, from which they can infect a vertebrate host bitten by the insect.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
- Physiology
-
-
Question 81
Incorrect
-
Choose the most correct answer, what reduces affinity for oxygen in haemoglobin?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: All the options are true
Explanation:The strength with which oxygen binds to haemoglobin is affected by several factors. These factors shift or reshape the oxyhaemoglobin dissociation curve. A rightward shift indicates that the haemoglobin under study has a decreased affinity for oxygen. The causes of shift to right can be remembered using the mnemonic, CADET, face Right! for CO2 and CO, Acid (H+), 2,3-DPG, Exercise and Temperature.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
- Physiology
-
-
Question 82
Incorrect
-
Vitamin K deficiency can be found in which of the following condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cholestatic jaundice
Explanation:Vitamin K1-deficiency may occur by disturbed intestinal uptake (such as would occur in a bile duct obstruction), by therapeutic or accidental intake of a vitamin K1-antagonist such as warfarin, or, very rarely, by nutritional vitamin K1 deficiency.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
- Physiology
-
-
Question 83
Incorrect
-
Consanguinity shows a strong association with which pattern of inheritance?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Autosomal recessive
Explanation:Consanguinity involves being from the same kinship as another person. It is a common feature of an autosomal recessive mode of inheritance
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
- Physiology
-
-
Question 84
Incorrect
-
What is the most abundant hormone release by the thyroid?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: T4
Explanation:T3 and T4 are the two tyrosine-based hormones produced and secreted by the thyroid gland. Although T3 is the active form of the hormone, and thus, it is much more potent; T4 is the most abundant hormone secreted by the thyroid (93% of the total thyroid secretion) and it also has a longer half life since it binds to proteins much more strongly.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
- Physiology
-
-
Question 85
Incorrect
-
Question 86
Incorrect
-
The myocardium is responsible for creating the force with which the atrial and ventricular muscles contract. It is made up of myocytes, which are heart muscle cells. Which of the following statements about cardiac muscle anatomy is correct?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cardiac myocytes have intercalated discs
Explanation:Typically, granuloma has Langerhan’s cells (large multinucleated cells ) surrounded by epithelioid cell aggregates, T lymphocytes and fibroblasts. Antigen presenting monocytic cells found in the skin are known as Langerhan’s cells.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cell Biology
- Physiology
-
-
Question 87
Incorrect
-
Ventricular depolarization plus ventricular repolarization is shown by the _____ interval
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: QT
Explanation:The QT interval represents ventricular depolarization as well as ventricular repolarization.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Physiology
-
-
Question 88
Incorrect
-
The celiac trunk consists of which arteries?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Left gastric, common hepatic, splenic
Explanation:The celiac trunk is the first major branch of the abdominal aorta. It is 1.25 cm in length. Branching from the aorta at thoracic vertebra 12 (T12). There are three main divisions of the celiac artery:- left gastric artery- common hepatic artery- splenic artery
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Physiology
-
-
Question 89
Incorrect
-
Which of the following statements is not true about mitochondrial chromosomes?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mitochondrial chromosomes play no role in the transmission of disease from generation to generation.
Explanation:All the above mentioned statements are true except that mitochondrial DNA is passed from the mother to the child. If the child inherits the defective mitochondrial gene it will manifest some form of the disease. Commonly inherited diseases related to mitochondrial abnormality are Leber hereditary optic neuropathy and myoclonic epilepsy with ragged red fibers (MERRF).
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
- Physiology
-
-
Question 90
Incorrect
-
Mutation in RB can lead to the formation of which cancer?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Retinoblastoma
Explanation:Patients with a history of autosomal dominant familial retinoblastoma have at least one mutated copy of the RB gene. This predisposes the patient to develop retinoblastoma in one or both the eyes. Patients with a family history should be screened properly so that it can be detected and treated as early as possible.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
- Physiology
-
-
Question 91
Incorrect
-
Which statement is incorrect?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Translation begins when the triplet (UGA) encoding for methionine is encountered.
Explanation:Translation being when the codon for methionine is encountered which is AUG not UGA. This process is known as initiation. All the other options are correct.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
- Physiology
-
-
Question 92
Incorrect
-
Three adjacent nucleotides code for a particular amino acid. These are called codons. How many common amino acids are there and how many potential codon combinations make up the genetic code?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 20 amino acids, 64 codon combinations
Explanation:There are around 20 amino acids and 61 out of the 64 combinations of codon code for these 20 common amino acids.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
- Physiology
-
-
Question 93
Incorrect
-
Antibiotic resistance may happen by:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: By enzymes which inactivate the drug
Explanation:The three main mechanisms of antibiotic resistance are, enzymatic degradation of antibacterial drugs, alteration of bacterial proteins that are antimicrobial targets, and changes in membrane permeability to antibiotics.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
- Physiology
-
-
Question 94
Incorrect
-
The end product of trehalase action on oligosaccharides is
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Two glucose molecules
Explanation:Disaccharides are glycoside hydrolases, enzymes that break down certain types of sugars called disaccharides into simpler sugars called monosaccharides.Examples of disaccharides:Lactase (breaks down lactose into glucose and galactose)Maltase (breaks down maltose into 2 glucoses)Sucrase (breaks down sucrose into glucose and fructose)Trehalase (breaks down trehalose into 2 glucoses)
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal
- Physiology
-
-
Question 95
Incorrect
-
In most somatic cells telomeres progressively shorten as:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The cell divides
Explanation:Telomere length shortens with age. Progressive shortening of telomeres leads to senescence, apoptosis, or oncogenic transformation of somatic cells, affecting the health and lifespan of an individual. Telomeres prevent the chromosomes from shortening and prevent the coding portion of the DNA from being lost, thus allowing the cell to replicate indefinitely. During replication telomeres may be lost resulting in cell death.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
- Physiology
-
-
Question 96
Incorrect
-
Which of the following can trigger parietal cell secretion?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Gastrin
Explanation:The three agonists of parietal cell secretion are gastrin, acetylcholine and histamine. Parietal cells are responsible for the secretion of HCl and intrinsic factor.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal
- Physiology
-
-
Question 97
Incorrect
-
With regards to the Na+/K+ ATPase, which one of the following is correct?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 3 Na+ released into the extracellular fluid
Explanation:Na+/K+ pump or sodium–potassium pump is an enzyme found in the plasma membrane. This pumping is active (i.e. it uses energy from ATP) and is important for cell physiology. Its simple function is to pump 3 sodium ions out for every 2 potassium ions taken in and since they both have equal ionic charges, this creates a electrochemical gradient between a cell and its exterior.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cell Biology
- Physiology
-
-
Question 98
Incorrect
-
Cells responsible for completely renewing the epithelium of the intestine are located:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: At the base of the crypts
Explanation:Epithelial cells are renewed every 4-5 days through a process of renewal and migration. Renewal relies on proliferative cells or stem cells that reside at the crypt base of the intestinal glands. Crypts are epithelial invasions into the underlying connective tissue.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal
- Physiology
-
-
Question 99
Incorrect
-
Vitamin B12 is transported from the enterocytes to the bone marrow by which factor?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Transcobalamin II (TC IIi)
Explanation:B12 must be attached to IF for it to be efficiently absorbed, as receptors on the enterocytes in the terminal ileum of the small bowel only recognize the B12-IF complex. Once the IF/B12 complex is recognized by specialized ileal receptors, it is transported into the portal circulation. The vitamin is then transferred to transcobalamin II (TC-II/B12), which serves as the plasma transporter.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
- Physiology
-
-
Question 100
Incorrect
-
Question 101
Incorrect
-
Which cell secretes parathyroid hormone?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Chief cells
Explanation:Parathyroid chief cells, also known as parathyroid principal cells or parathyroid cells, are the most prevalent type of cell in the parathyroid gland and the only ones present at birth. They secrete parathyroid hormone (PTH).
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
- Physiology
-
-
Question 102
Incorrect
-
Which substance has the lowest taste threshold concentration, in other words which substance can be present in the lowest concentration before taste buds will respond?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Strychnine hydrochloride (bitter)
Explanation:The lowest concentration of a gustatory stimulus to which the taste buds respond is considered to be the threshold concentration for that substance. The threshold concentration for strychnine is 0.0001 mm; this is because it allows the body to detect potentially dangerous substances (bitter plant components) at lower concentrations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
- Physiology
-
-
Question 103
Incorrect
-
Where is Vitamin B12 mainly stored in the body?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Liver
Explanation:The total amount of vitamin B12 stored in body is about 2–5 mg in adults. Around 50% of this is stored in the liver. Approximately 0.1% of this is lost per day by secretions into the gut, as not all these secretions are reabsorbed.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
- Physiology
-
-
Question 104
Incorrect
-
The superior orbital fissure is the site of entry/exit for which of the following group of nerves?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: CN III, IV, V1, VI
Explanation:The superior and inferior divisions of oculomotor nerve (III), trochlear nerve (IV), lacrimal, frontal and nasociliary branches of ophthalmic V1 and the abducens nerve (VI)
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
- Physiology
-
-
Question 105
Incorrect
-
Compact/cortical bone makes up
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The outer layer of most bones and accounts for 80% of bone in the body
Explanation:Cortical, lamellar, or compact bone, is more dense than spongy bone and it forms the rigid, outer layer of bones, also called cortex. It consists of packed osteons, with a central osteonic canal surrounded by concentric rings. Spaces called lacunae are filled with osteocytes, and channels called canaliculi go from the lacunae to the osteonic canal. The strength of cortical bone allows it to support the body and protect organs. It also stores different elements, such as calcium.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
- Physiology
-
-
Question 106
Incorrect
-
During which phase of the cell cycle does transcription of DNA synthesis molecules occur?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: G1
Explanation:DNA synthesis occurs in the S phase of the cell cycle. In the G1 phase the cell prepares to divide. In G2 the cellular organelles divide and in the M phase mitosis occur. In the G0 phase the cell becomes quiescent and does not divide further
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
- Physiology
-
-
Question 107
Incorrect
-
Which of the following factors is not completely produced in the liver?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Factor viii
Explanation:Factor VIII is produced in liver sinusoidal cells and endothelial cells outside of the liver throughout the body. This protein circulates in the bloodstream in an inactive form, bound to another molecule called von Willebrand factor, until an injury that damages blood vessels occurs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal
- Physiology
-
-
Question 108
Incorrect
-
The axons of which neurons serve as the only output from the cerebellar cortex?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Purkinje
Explanation:The cerebellar cortex consist of 3 layers. The molecular layer, the granule cell layer and the Purkinje cell layer in the middle. The Purkinje cells project into the deep cerebellar nuclei. They are the only output cells of the cerebellar cortex.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
- Physiology
-
-
Question 109
Incorrect
-
The cavernous sinus is?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lateral to the body of the sphenoid
Explanation:It is a venous sinus which creates a cavity called the lateral sellar compartment bordered by the temporal bone and the sphenoid bone. There are 2 on either side. It is about 1cm wide and extends from the posterior aspect of the orbit to the petrous part of the temporal bone. They sit on either side or lateral to the sphenoid bone.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
- Physiology
-
-
Question 110
Incorrect
-
The blood supply to the liver is by
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hepatic artery and hepatic portal vein
Explanation:The liver receives a dual blood supply from the hepatic portal vein and hepatic arteries. The hepatic portal vein delivers approximately 75% of the liver’s blood supply, and carries venous blood drained from the spleen, gastrointestinal tract, and its associated organs. The hepatic arteries supply arterial blood to the liver, accounting for the remaining quarter of its blood flow.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal
- Physiology
-
-
Question 111
Incorrect
-
Which of the following organelles form lysosomes?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The Golgi apparatus
Explanation:Lysosomes are formed by the Golgi apparatus or the endoplasmic reticulum. Lysosome releases its enzymes and digests the cell when the cell dies.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cell Biology
- Physiology
-
-
Question 112
Incorrect
-
The following are Gram positive rods:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Clostridia
Explanation:Examples of Gram positive bacilli:Bacillus genusClostridium genusCorynebacterium genusListeria genusPropionibacterium genusExamples of Gram negative bacilli:Bacteroides genusCitrobacter genusEnterobacter genusEscherichia genusPseudomonas genusProteus genusSalmonella genusSerratia genusShigella genusYersinia genus
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
- Physiology
-
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Question 113
Incorrect
-
The bradycardia that occurs in patients with raised intracranial pressure is a result of the?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cushing reflex
Explanation:When intracranial pressure is increased, the blood supply to RVLM neurons is compromised. This results in an increase in their discharge as a result of hypoxia and hypercapnia. The resultant rise in systemic arterial pressure (Cushing reflex) tends to restore the blood flow to the medulla.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Physiology
-
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Question 114
Incorrect
-
Which of the following forms an important constituent of the brush border on the microvilli of the intestinal epithelium?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hydrolases
Explanation:There are certain enzymes which are part of the brush border cells including hydrolases also known as the brush border hydrolases. They perform the final step in digestion of certain nutrients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal
- Physiology
-
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Question 115
Incorrect
-
Which glucose transporter is responsible for the uptake of glucose in ß cells?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: GLUT 2
Explanation:Glucose transporter 2, also known as GLUT2 is a transmembrane carrier protein which is not insulin dependent. It is found in the liver and the pancreatic islet ß cells, where it functions as the primary glucose transporter that allows the transfer of glucose between these organs and blood.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
- Physiology
-
-
Question 116
Incorrect
-
Tumour necrosis factor is a cytokine. What is its major function?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Promotion of inflammation
Explanation:Tumour necrosis factor (TNF) is a cytokine that has a wide variety of functions. It can cause cytolysis of certain tumour cell lines; it is involved in the induction of cachexia; it is a potent pyrogen, causing fever by direct action or by stimulation of interleukin-1 secretion; it can stimulate cell proliferation and induce cell differentiation under certain conditions.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Immunology
- Physiology
-
-
Question 117
Incorrect
-
The thalamus is a large collection of neuronal groups within the diencephalons which participates in:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sensory, motor and limbic
Explanation:The thalamus has multiple functions. It is the relay station for every sensory system (except olfactory, regulates the sleep-wake cycle and consciousness and also relays motor information.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
- Physiology
-
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Question 118
Incorrect
-
What is the function of cytotoxic T cells?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Kill by inserting perforins and by initiating apoptosis
Explanation:Cytotoxic T cells, once activated, approach the infected cell, insert perforins and release granzymes inducing apoptosis.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Immunology
- Physiology
-
-
Question 119
Incorrect
-
The predominant site in the lymph node where T lymphocytes are found is:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Paracortex
Explanation:Paracortex is found between the cortex and the medulla and it is composed of a non-nodular type of arrangement that is mostly made up of T cells.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Immunology
- Physiology
-
-
Question 120
Incorrect
-
Activation of the cool receptor (CMR-1), causes:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer:
Explanation:Cold and Menthol receptor 1 (CMR1) is a protein that in humans is encoded by TRPM8 gene. It is an ion channel which upon activation causes the influx of Na+ and Ca++ ions into the cell that leads to the depolarization and generation of an action potential.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
- Physiology
-
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Question 121
Incorrect
-
Di and tri peptides are absorbed via a different mechanism as amino acids, this is due to the working of which transporter?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: PEPT 1
Explanation:GLUT and SGLT are glucose transporters. Peptides which are longer that four amino acids are not absorbed. There is abundant absorption of di and tri peptidases in the small intestine. They are absorbed into the epithelial cells of the small intestine via a transporter called PepT1 by co-transport with H+ ions.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal
- Physiology
-
-
Question 122
Incorrect
-
Select the correct statement about the microanatomy of the thyroid gland.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The capillaries adjacent to thyroid cells have a fenestrated endothelium.
Explanation:Fenestrated capillaries have a very thin endothelium, which is perforated by numerous fenestrations or pores. Hormones are usually released into these capillaries, reaching their target cells through the circulatory system.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
- Physiology
-
-
Question 123
Incorrect
-
Which of the following do not pass through the cavernous sinus?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: CN 2
Explanation:Oculomotor nerve (N3), trochlear nerve (N4), ophthalmic and mandibular divisions of the trigeminal nerve (N5) pass along its lateral border. The abducent nerve (N6) passes through it along with the internal carotid artery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
- Physiology
-
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Question 124
Incorrect
-
What is the most likely cause of prolonged bleeding time in a 40 year old women admitted for a laparoscopic cholecystectomy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Thrombocytopaenia
Explanation:Bleeding time is related to platelet function, thus a decrease in platelet function, as seen in thrombocytopenia, DIC and von Willebrand disease in which platelet aggregation is defective, leads to an increase in bleeding time. It is not affected by a decrease or deficiency of any other clotting factors. Aspirin and other COX inhibitors prolong bleeding time along with warfarin and heparin.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
- Physiology
-
-
Question 125
Incorrect
-
In both innate and humoral immunity, receptors involved recognize:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The shape of the antigen
Explanation:Antigen receptors recognize the shape of the antigen. They identify specific epitopes and are found on T cells.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Immunology
- Physiology
-
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Question 126
Incorrect
-
Which of the following is untrue about mitochondrial chromosome disorders?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Because mitochondrial chromosomes have no introns in their genes, any point mutation has a low likelihood of having an effect.
Explanation:All are true except for B. Any point mutation in any part of the mitochondrial DNA will lead to a mutated mitochondria and will likewise have its ill effect on the body.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
- Physiology
-
-
Question 127
Incorrect
-
The rate of depolarization of the SA node membrane potential is modulated by the following:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: All of the above
Explanation:Rate of depolarization of the SA node is modulated by all of these.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Physiology
-
-
Question 128
Incorrect
-
Choose the correct answer: The interposed nuclei…
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Are the emboliform and globose nuclei in the paravermis
Explanation:The interposed nuclei are a part of deep cerebellar complex and are composed of the globose nucleus and the emboliform nucleus. It receives afferent fibers from the anterior lobe of the cerebellum and sends output via the superior cerebellar peduncle to the red nucleus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
- Physiology
-
-
Question 129
Incorrect
-
Preload:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Is the degree to which the myocardium is stretched before is contracts
Explanation:Preload is end diastolic volume. It is the degree to which the heart muscle fiber is stretched when it fills up completely just before the heart contracts.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Physiology
-
-
Question 130
Incorrect
-
The net effect of active Vitamin D on calcium and phosphate homeostasis is?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Increase in Ca, increase in phosphate
Explanation:Bone and its metabolism are regulated by several hormones, amongst which is vitamin D. It is heavily involved in the metabolism and homeostasis of calcium and phosphate through several processes. Vitamin D works in the intestine, kidney, bone and parathyroid glands to maintain levels of calcium and phosphate, promoting its absorption, bone resorption, and proper functioning of the parathyroid to maintain adequate serum calcium levels.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
- Physiology
-
-
Question 131
Incorrect
-
Which of the following foods contain Vitamin B 12?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Liver, meat
Explanation:No fungi, plants, nor animals (including humans) are capable of producing vitamin B12. Only bacteria and archaea have the enzymes needed for its synthesis. Proved food sources of B12 are animal products (meat, fish, dairy products).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
- Physiology
-
-
Question 132
Incorrect
-
Which of the following are true when it comes to tumour suppressor genes:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: All of the options are true
Explanation:All of the above mentioned statements are true regarding tumour suppressor genes. Tumour suppressor genes generally follow the two-hit hypothesis, which implies that both alleles that code for a particular protein must be affected before an effect is manifested.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
- Physiology
-
-
Question 133
Incorrect
-
Question 134
Incorrect
-
Pacemaker cells in the SA node and the AV node are connected by?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Gap junctions
Explanation:Gap junctions allows for rapid propagation of the action potential from one cell to the other. The cells of the heart are connected by gap junctions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Physiology
-
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Question 135
Incorrect
-
Absorption of fructose is via:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Facilitated diffusion
Explanation:Dietary fructose may be ingested as a monosaccharide or as a disaccharide. Sucrose is hydrolysed by sucrase to produce equal amounts of glucose and fructose and in this form, is usually completely absorbed. Fructose is mostly absorbed in the small intestine through GLUT-5 transporter mediated facilitative diffusion. This is an energy independent process.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal
- Physiology
-
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Question 136
Incorrect
-
A patient presents with a history of excessive thirst, urination and high fluid intake. His blood sugar is normal. You estimate his osmolarity as part of his work-up. Which of these equations can be used to estimate osmolarity?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 2 (Na + ) + 2 (K + ) + Glucose + Urea
Explanation:Osmolality and osmolarity are measurements of the solute concentration of a solution. Although the two terms are often used interchangeably, there are differences in the definitions, how they are calculated and the units of measurement used. Osmolarity, expressed as mmol/L, is an estimation of the osmolar concentration of plasma. It is proportional to the number of particles per litre of solution. Measured Na+, K+, urea and glucose concentrations are used to calculate the value indirectly. It is unreliable in pseudohyponatremia and hyperproteinaemia. The equations used to calculate osmolarity are: Osmolarity = 2 (Na+) + 2 (K+) + Glucose + Urea (all in mmol/L) OR Osmolarity = 2 (Na+) + Glucose + Urea (all in mmol/L) Doubling of sodium accounts for the negative ions associated with sodium, and the exclusion of potassium approximately allows for the incomplete dissociation of sodium chloride.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cell Biology
- Physiology
-
-
Question 137
Incorrect
-
Near the transcription site of a gene, the site at which RNA polymerase and its cofactors bind is known as the:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Promotor
Explanation:Transcription will begin when the RNA polymerase II binds to the promotor. The promotor is a sequence of 25 nucleotides found upstream from the start site of transcription. This promotor sequence is known as the TATA box. Transcription factors also bond along with RNA polymerase to this site to form a complex. However some may bind to regulatory elements proximal to the promotor site.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
- Physiology
-
-
Question 138
Incorrect
-
What is a characteristic findings on ECG in hyperkalaemia?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tall, tented T waves
Explanation:Hyperkalaemia leads to:- Prolonged PR interval- Small P waves- Tall, tented T waves – Widened QRS complexes and eventually asystole.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Physiology
-
-
Question 139
Incorrect
-
Regarding CSF:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Disruption of arachnoid villi function results in a communicating hydrocephalus
Explanation:In normal adults CSF volume is around 125ml to 150ml. Turnover of the entire volume of cerebrospinal fluid is about 3 to 4 times a day. Composition of CSF is similar to that of plasma except that CSF is nearly protein-free compared with plasma and has different electrolyte levels. Blockage of the foramina causes an obstructive or non-communicating hydrocephalus. Communicating hydrocephalus or non-obstructive hydrocephalus is caused by impaired CSF reabsorption in the absence of any CSF flow obstruction.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
- Physiology
-
-
Question 140
Incorrect
-
Question 141
Incorrect
-
Which area in the GIT lacks Basic Electrical Rhythm
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oesophagus
Explanation:The basal or basic electrical rhythm acts to coordinate peristalsis and are initiated in the interstitial cells of Cajal, specialized pacemaker cells located in the wall of the stomach. Thus below the oesophagus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal
- Physiology
-
-
Question 142
Incorrect
-
The axons of the POST ganglionic neurons are mostly?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: C fibers
Explanation:According to Erlanger- Grasser classification preganglionic fibers are B fibers whereas post ganglionic fibers are C fibers.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
- Physiology
-
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Question 143
Incorrect
-
Inhibition of cell division at the end of G1 occurs through:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Unphosphorolated retinoblastoma protein (uRb)
Explanation:A cell’s decision to enter, or re-enter, the cell cycle is made before S-phase in G1 at what is known as the restriction point, and is determined by the combination of promotional and inhibitory extracellular signals that are received and processed. Ultimately unphosphorylated Rb acts as an inhibitor of G1.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cell Biology
- Physiology
-
-
Question 144
Incorrect
-
Low levels of which of the following arterial blood gas parameters stimulate the peripheral chemoreceptors?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Arterial pO 2
Explanation:Chemoreceptors are activated when the chemical composition of their immediate surroundings changes. Peripheral chemoreceptors, together with central chemoreceptors, regulate respiratory functions. They detect changes in arterial blood oxygen levels. Decreased arterial Po2 (partial pressure of oxygen) reflexly stimulates peripheral chemoreceptors. When peripheral chemoreceptors detect changes in arterial blood oxygen, they will trigger cardiorespiratory changes such as an increase in breathing and blood pressure. These reflexes are important for maintaining homeostasis during hypoxemia.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
- Respiratory
-
-
Question 145
Incorrect
-
In the urea cycle, which substance is formed in the mitochondria?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Carbamoyl phosphate
Explanation:Before the urea cycle begins ammonia is converted to carbamoyl phosphate in the mitochondria.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolism
- Physiology
-
-
Question 146
Incorrect
-
Carbohydrates digestion starts in the
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mouth
Explanation:Digestion begins in the mouth with the secretion of saliva and its digestive enzymes. Food is formed into a bolus by the mechanical mastication and swallowed into the oesophagus from where it enters the stomach through the action of peristalsis.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal
- Physiology
-
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Question 147
Incorrect
-
How does an action potential in the motor end plate rapidly spread to the central portions of the muscle cells?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Transverse tubules
Explanation:When the concentration of intracellular Ca2+rises, muscle contraction occurs. The pathway of an action potential is down tube-shaped invaginations of the sarcolemma called T-tubules (transverse tubules). These penetrate throughout the muscle fibre and lie adjacent to the terminal cisternae of the sarcoplasmic reticulum. The voltage changes in the T-tubules result in the opening of sarcoplasmic reticulum Ca2+channels and there is there is release of stored Ca2+into the sarcoplasm. Thus muscle contraction occurs via excitation-contraction coupling (ECC) mechanism.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cell Biology
- Physiology
-
-
Question 148
Incorrect
-
What is the result of maltase deficiency in the brush border of the small intestine?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Results in increased passage of maltose in stool
Explanation:Maltase is an enzyme produced from the surface cells of the villi, lining the small intestine and aids in hydrolysing the disaccharide maltose, which splits into two molecules of α-glucose. It is done by breaking the glycosidic bond between the ‘first’ carbon of one glucose and the ‘fourth’ carbon of the other (a 1–4 bond). Hence, a deficiency of enzyme maltase will result in the increased passage of maltose in the stool.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal
- Physiology
-
-
Question 149
Incorrect
-
Vagotomy leads to the following:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Irregular and chaotic peristalsis
Explanation:The Vagus nerve is primarily responsible for autonomic regulation involved in heart, lung and gastrointestinal function. The gastric branches supply the stomach. The right branch joins the celiac plexus and supplies the intestines. Vagotomy involves cutting of the vagus nerve or its branches which is a now-obsolete therapy that was performed for peptic ulcer disease. Vagotomy causes a decrease in peristalsis and a change in the emptying patterns of the stomach.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal
- Physiology
-
-
Question 150
Incorrect
-
The isoforms of nitric oxide synthase which are found in the nervous system (NOS1) and endothelial cells (NOS3) are activated by agents that increase which of the following intracellular electrolytes?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ca
Explanation:Synthesis of nitric oxide is stimulated by activation of the NMDA receptors by certain agents. This leads to opening of the Calcium channels and an influx of calcium into the cell. This will activate the nitric oxide synthase. Nitric oxide is produced on demand.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Physiology
-
-
Question 151
Incorrect
-
What type of pump is the Na+/K+ATPase pump?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: An antiporter
Explanation:In order for primary active transport to pump ions against their electrochemical gradient, chemical energy is used in the form of ATP. This is facilitated by the Na+/K+-ATPase antiporter pump, which uses metabolic energy to move 3 Na+ions out of the cell for every 2 K+ions that come in, against their respective electrochemical gradients. As a result, the cell the maintains a high intracellular concentration of K+ions and a low concentration of Na+ions.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cell Biology
- Physiology
-
-
Question 152
Incorrect
-
Xanthines such as caffeine and theophylline are positively inotropic due to:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Inhibition of cAMP breakdown
Explanation:Xanthines exert their positive inotropic effect by inhibiting the breakdown of the cAMP resulting in stronger and sustained contractions.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Physiology
-
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Question 153
Incorrect
-
Which of the following initiates migrating motor complex
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Motilin
Explanation:Migrating motor complexes (MMC) are thought to be partially regulated by motilin, which is initiated in the stomach as a response to vagal stimulation, and does not directly depend on extrinsic nerves.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal
- Physiology
-
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Question 154
Incorrect
-
Where would one normally find venous valves?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Saphenous vein
Explanation:The intima of the limb veins is folded at intervals to form venous valves that prevent retrograde flow. There are no valves present in the very small veins, the great veins, or the veins in the brain and viscera.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Physiology
-
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Question 155
Incorrect
-
Tunica intima is made up of?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Endothelial cells
Explanation:Tunica intima is a single cell thick lining of endothelial cells that lines the inside of the blood vessels. It is the inner most layer of the blood vessel.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Physiology
-
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Question 156
Incorrect
-
Which of the following statements are true regarding human herpesvirus eight
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It is sexually transmitted.
Explanation:Kaposi’s sarcoma-associated herpesvirus (KSHV) is the eighth human herpesvirus or HHV-8. This virus causes Kaposi’s sarcoma, a cancer commonly occurring in AIDS patients, as well as primary effusion lymphoma and some types of multicentric Castleman’s disease. It is one of seven currently known human cancer viruses, or oncoviruses. The mechanisms by which the virus is contracted are not well understood. Healthy individuals can be infected with the virus and show no signs or symptoms, due to the immune system’s ability to keep the infection in check. Infection is of particular concern to the immunosuppressed. Cancer patients receiving chemotherapy, AIDS patients and organ transplant patients are all at a high risk of showing signs of infection. The virus is sexually transmitted.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
- Physiology
-
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Question 157
Incorrect
-
Following an action potential, cytosolic Ca2+ is increased. The binding of free Ca2+ to troponin C results in all of the following except:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Weakening of the troponin i interaction with actin
Explanation:At rest, troponin i is bound to actin and tropomyosin and covers the site where the myosin head interacts with actin. When Calcium enters into the muscle, it binds with troponin C and cause a structural change in troponin i which moves out of the myosin binding site and causes the cross bridges between the actin and myosin filaments to occur.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Physiology
-
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Question 158
Incorrect
-
In a 60kg adult male with normal mean arterial pressure and oxygen consumption, what proportion of the cardiac output at rest goes to the brain?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 10-15%
Explanation:The rate of cerebral blood flow in the adult is typically 750 millilitres per minute, which is 10-15% of the cardiac output. On average around 13.9% of cardiac output is distributed to the brain.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
- Physiology
-
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Question 159
Incorrect
-
Regarding glomus cells, which of the following is true?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Contain catecholamines
Explanation:The carotid body detects changes in the composition of arterial blood flowing through it, mainly the partial pressure of oxygen, but also of carbon dioxide. Furthermore, it is also sensitive to changes in pH and temperature.The carotid body is made up of two types of cells, called glomus cells: Glomus type I/chief cells release a variety of neurotransmitters, including acetylcholine, ATP, and dopamine that trigger EPSPs in synapsed neurons leading to the respiratory centre.Glomus type II/sustentacular cells resemble glia, express the glial marker S100 and act as supporting cells.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
- Respiratory
-
-
Question 160
Incorrect
-
The reflex responses activated by cold are controlled by which area?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Posterior hypothalamus
Explanation:The posterior nucleus of the hypothalamus is responsible for thermoregulation and thermogenesis. Studies have shown that the neurons in the posterior hypothalamus which mediate the reflex of shivering are sensitive to temperature; damage to this nucleus produces hypothermia.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
- Physiology
-
-
Question 161
Incorrect
-
Question 162
Incorrect
-
Question 163
Incorrect
-
Which statement regarding fever is correct:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Body temperature is regulated is by a centre in the floor of the third ventricle
Explanation:The hypothalamus is located on the floor of the third ventricle and is the centre of regulation of body temperature. It uses a set point to regulate other body systems as well. Diurnal variation of temperature is not seen in humans. the principal mediator of fever is interleukin I, although interferon alfa also plays a role. Fever can cause rhabdomyolysis or muscle breakdown
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
- Physiology
-
-
Question 164
Incorrect
-
Visceral afferent fibers are found in the following areas except the…?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Trigeminal nerve
Explanation:The general visceral afferent (GVA) fibers carry impulses from viscera to the central nervous system. The cranial nerves that contain GVA fibers include the facial nerve, the glossopharyngeal nerve and the vagus nerve
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
- Physiology
-
-
Question 165
Incorrect
-
To which protein is T3 mostly bound in the serum?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Albumin
Explanation:In normal man, approximately 0.03 per cent of the total serum T4, and 0.3 per cent of the total serum T3 are present in free or unbound form. The major serum thyroid hormone-binding proteins are: 1) thyroxine-binding globulin [TBG or thyropexin], 2) transthyretin [TTR or thyroxine-binding prealbumin (TBPA)], and 3) albumin (HAS, human serum albumin). TBG has highest affinity for T4, which is 50-fold higher than that of TTR and 7,000-fold higher that of HSA. As a result TBG binds 75% of serum T4, while TTR and HSA binds only 20% and 5%, respectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
- Physiology
-
-
Question 166
Incorrect
-
With regards to the function of the p53 protein produced by the p53 gene, which of the following statements is incorrect?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It permits repair of mutations and other defects in RNA
Explanation:P53 has many mechanisms of anticancer function and plays a role in apoptosis, genomic stability, and inhibition of angiogenesis. In its anti-cancer role, p53 works through several mechanisms:It can activate DNA repair proteins when DNA has sustained damage. Thus, it may be an important factor in aging.It can arrest growth by holding the cell cycle at the G1/S regulation point on DNA damage recognitionIt can initiate apoptosis (i.e., programmed cell death) if DNA damage proves to be irreparable.It is essential for the senescence response to short telomeres.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cell Biology
- Physiology
-
-
Question 167
Incorrect
-
Which of the following prevents auto-digestion of the stomach by gastric secretions:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Trefoil peptides and mucus- bicarbonate layer.
Explanation:Pepsinogen is the inactive form of pepsin, a protein digesting enzyme. Bombesin is a peptide which stimulates gastrin secreting cells in the stomach increasing production of gastric acid. Ecl or enterochromaffin cells are neuroendocrine cells that aid in the production of gastric acid via the release of histamine. Oxyntic cells are also known as parietal cells and are the main cells secreting gastric hydrochloric acid (HCl). Gastric acid and pepsin are harmful agents for the gastric mucosa and can result in autodigestion. It is therefore protected by several agents including bicarbonate which neutralizes the acidity of gastric acid while Trefoil peptides are a component of gastric mucosa that form a gel like layer in the gastric epithelium protecting it from harmful agents.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal
- Physiology
-
-
Question 168
Incorrect
-
Which mechanism of action does Trimethoprim use?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Inhibit Folic Acid metabolism
Explanation:Trimethoprim binds to dihydrofolate reductase and inhibits the reduction of dihydrofolic acid (DHF) to tetrahydrofolic acid (THF). THF is an essential precursor in the thymidine synthesis pathway and interference with this pathway inhibits bacterial DNA synthesis.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
- Physiology
-
-
Question 169
Incorrect
-
Regarding the myofilament molecules, which of the following contains binding sites for calcium that helps to initiate contraction?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Troponin c
Explanation:Troponin T binds the troponin components to tropomyosin. Troponin I inhibits the interaction of myosin with actin and troponin C contains the binding sites for the Ca2+ that helps initiate contraction.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Physiology
-
-
Question 170
Incorrect
-
What is the normal duration of the ST segment?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 0.08 s
Explanation:The ST segment lies between the QRS complex and the T-wave. The normal duration of the ST segment is 0.08 s. ST-segment elevation or depression may indicate myocardial ischaemia or infarction.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Physiology
-
-
Question 171
Incorrect
-
After exercise, O2 debt repay may take up to:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 90 min
Explanation:Physical activity or exercise requires oxygen for production of ATP or energy via aerobic pathways of energy production. When the amount of oxygen that reaches muscles depletes, cells start producing energy anaerobically by partial breakdown of glucose resulting in lactic acid. Lactic acid should be removed from cells as it causes muscle fatigue. Oxygen is needed to oxidize lactic acid in to carbon dioxide and water and this need is known as oxygen debt. The existence of an oxygen debt explains why we continue to breathe deeply and quickly for a while after exercise. This may take up from 60 – 90 mins.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
- Respiratory
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Question 172
Incorrect
-
Male to male transmission is a key factor of which type of inheritance?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Autosomal dominant
Explanation:Autosomal dominant type of inheritance can include both sexes in the same ratio. There is no skipping a generation and father to son transmission is common. The passing of the trait is sex independent.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
- Physiology
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Question 173
Incorrect
-
Closure of the tricuspid valve is marked by which of the following features of the jugular venous waveform?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: c wave
Explanation:The jugular venous pressure (JVP) classically has three upward deflections and two downward deflections. The upward deflections are the a (atrial contraction), c (ventricular contraction and resulting bulging of tricuspid into the right atrium during isovolumetric systole) and v = venous filling. The downward deflections of the wave are the x (the atrium relaxes and the tricuspid valve moves downward) and the y descent (filling of ventricle after tricuspid opening).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Physiology
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Question 174
Incorrect
-
Role of bile salts in digestion of fats include
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reduce surface tension, emulsification and transportation
Explanation:Bile acts to some extent as a surfactant reducing surface tension, helping to emulsify the lipids in food. Bile salt anions are hydrophilic on one side and hydrophobic on the other side; consequently, they tend to aggregate around droplets of lipids (triglycerides and phospholipids) to form micelles, with the hydrophobic sides towards the fat and hydrophilic sides facing outwards. The hydrophilic sides are negatively charged, and this charge prevents fat droplets coated with bile from re-aggregating into larger fat particles.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal
- Physiology
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Question 175
Incorrect
-
Dicrotic notch is produced by which valves?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Aortic
Explanation:The graph of aortic pressure throughout the cardiac cycle displays a small dip (the incisure or dicrotic notch) which coincides with the aortic valve closure. The dip in the graph is immediately followed by a brief rise (the dicrotic wave) then gradual decline.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Physiology
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Question 176
Incorrect
-
The following play a role in regulation of intestinal iron absorption except:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Urinary iron excretion rate
Explanation:The human body’s rate of iron absorption appears to respond to a variety of interdependent factors, including total iron stores, dietary intake, the extent to which the bone marrow is producing new red blood cells, the concentration of haemoglobin in the blood, and the oxygen content of the blood. Classic examples of genetic iron overload includes hereditary hemochromatosis (HH) and the more severe disease juvenile hemochromatosis (JH).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
- Physiology
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Question 177
Incorrect
-
The main breakdown of fatty acids (by B-oxidation) occurs in which part of the cell?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mitochondria
Explanation:Once inside the mitochondria, the β-oxidation of fatty acids occurs via five recurring steps:Activation by ATPOxidation by FAD,Hydration,Oxidation by NAD+,Thiolysis,The final product is acetyl-CoA, the entry molecule for the citric acid cycle.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolism
- Physiology
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Question 178
Incorrect
-
Question 179
Incorrect
-
Which of the following forms the language areas of the cerebral cortex?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: All of the above
Explanation:Broca’s area, Wernicke’s area, the submarginal sulcus and the angular gyrus all form the language areas of the cerebral cortex.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
- Physiology
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Question 180
Incorrect
-
Which of the following is NOT true of the parasympathetic control of the heart?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It can be blocked by beta blockers
Explanation:Parasympathetic fibers do not innervate the Beta receptors on the heart. They are innervated by the sympathetic nerve fibers. Then a beta blocker such as propranolol will block the sympathetic outflow and increase the parasympathetic tone of the heart.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Physiology
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Question 181
Incorrect
-
The TSH receptor produces its effects in the thyrocyte via:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: G-protein coupled activation of adenylyl cyclise and phospholipase c
Explanation:The thyrotropin receptor, also known as TSH receptor, responds to the thyroid stimulating hormone or thyrotropin to stimulate production of T3 and T4. It is a G protein-coupled receptor which leads to stimulation of phospholipase C and adenylyl cyclase, mediated by Gq/11 and Gs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
- Physiology
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Question 182
Incorrect
-
Functions of the glossopharyngeal nerve include the following except:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Proprioceptive input from muscles of the tongue and larynx
Explanation:The glossopharyngeal nerve is a mixed nerve consisting of both sensory and motor fibers. It has several branches and five distinct general functions:Branchial motor- Special visceral efferent- supplies the Stylopharyngeus muscle and superior constrictor muscle.Visceral motor- general visceral efferent- provides parasympathetic innervation of the parotid gland.Visceral sensory- general visceral afferent- carries visceral sensory information from the carotid sinus and carotid body.General sensory- general somatic afferent- provides general sensory information from the inner surface of the tympanic membrane, upper pharynx and posterior one third of the tongue.Visceral afferent- special visceral afferent- provides taste sensation from the posterior one third of the tongue including the circumvallate papillae.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
- Physiology
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Question 183
Incorrect
-
The nucleus ambiguus:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Regulates swallowing, phonation and parasympathetic supply to the heart via CN IX, X and XI
Explanation:Nucleus Ambiguus is a group of large motor neurons found deep in the medullary reticular formation. It contains cell bodies of nerves that are responsible for the innervation of muscles of speech and swallowing which are located in the soft palate, pharynx and larynx. Additionally, it contains cholinergic preganglionic parasympathetic neurons of the heart via CN X, IX and XI
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
- Physiology
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Question 184
Incorrect
-
A typical sleep cycle from stage 1 to the end of REM sleep in a normal adult is approximately how long?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 90 min
Explanation:A single sleep cycle has stages 1, 2, 3, 4 and REM (Rapid eye movement). These stages progress cyclically from 1 through to REM and then begin again with stage 1. A complete sleep cycle takes an average of 90-110 minutes, with each stage lasting between 5 to 15 minutes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
- Physiology
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Question 185
Incorrect
-
In which cell would you find a Nissl body?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bipolar neuron
Explanation:Nissl bodies are the structures of protein synthesis in neurones. They are granular bodies of Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum and ribosomes. Astrocytes, Microglia, Schwann cell, oligodendrocytes are collectively known as glia or supporting cells of the nervous system.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
- Physiology
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Question 186
Incorrect
-
Concerning protein digestion:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Most protein digestion occurs in the duodenum
Explanation:Human pepsinogens can be divided into two immunochemically distinct groups: Pepsinogen I (PG I) and Pepsinogen II (PGII). PG I is secreted mainly by chief cells in the fundic mucosa whereas PGII is secreted by the pyloric glands and the proximal duodenal mucosa. Maximal acid secretion correlates with PG I. Most protein digestion occurs in the duodenum/jejunum. Pepsin functions best in an acidic environment and specifically at a pH of 1.5 to 3.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal
- Physiology
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Question 187
Incorrect
-
On a mountain the atmospheric pressure is 700 mmHg and the humidity close to zero, the partial pressure of oxygen is:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 147 mmHg
Explanation:Natural air includes approximately 21% of oxygen. If humidity is zero, the partial pressure of oxygen is 700 × 21% = 147 mmHg
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
- Respiratory
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Question 188
Incorrect
-
In a normal heart rate at rest, the left ventricular end-diastolic volume is ….
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 100-130 ml
Explanation:In cardiovascular physiology, end-diastolic volume (EDV) is the volume of blood in the right and/or left ventricle at end load or filling in (diastole) or the amount of blood in the ventricles just before systole. Because greater EDVs cause greater distention of the ventricle, EDV is often used synonymously with preload, which refers to the length of the sarcomeres in cardiac muscle prior to contraction (systole). End-diastolic volume: Right = 144 mL(± 23mL) & Left = 142 mL (± 21 mL).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Physiology
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Question 189
Incorrect
-
A lung function test is being performed on a male patient. For this patient, which of the following volumes for functional residual capacity is considered a normal result?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 2.0 L
Explanation:The volume of air that remains in the lungs after a single breath is known as functional residual capacity (FRC). It is calculated by combining the expiratory reserve volume and residual volume. In a 70 kg, average-sized male, a normal functional residual capacity is approximately 2100 mL.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
- Respiratory
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Question 190
Incorrect
-
Dietary starch is mainly:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Amylopectin
Explanation:Dietary starch consists of two types of molecules: the linear and helical amylose and the branched amylopectin. Starch generally contains 20 to 25% amylose and 75 to 80% amylopectin by weight but depends in the plant. Glycogen, the glucose store of animals, is a more branched version of amylopectin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal
- Physiology
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Question 191
Incorrect
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Question 192
Incorrect
-
What is the function of Activated protein C?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Inactivates factor Va
Explanation:Protein C, also known as autoprothrombin IIA and blood coagulation factor XIV, is a zymogen, the activated form of which plays an important role in regulating anticoagulation, inflammation, cell death, and maintaining the permeability of blood vessel walls in humans and other animals. Activated protein C (APC) performs these operations primarily by proteolytically inactivating proteins Factor Va and Factor VIIIa.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
- Physiology
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Question 193
Incorrect
-
Which hormone is associated with the temperature surge in hot flushes?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: LH
Explanation:Luteinizing hormone or LH is a hormone produced by the anterior pituitary gland. Studies have shown surges in LH levels during menopausal hot flushes, suggesting that a pulsatile release of LH is responsible for increased hypothalamic norepinephrine activity, causing the hot flushes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
- Physiology
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Question 194
Incorrect
-
Which of the following is not true regarding mitochondrial chromosome disorders?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Because mitochondrial chromosomes have no introns in their genes, any point mutation has a low likelihood of having an effect.
Explanation:All are true except for B. Any point mutation in any part of the mitochondrial DNA will lead to a mutated mitochondria and will likewise have its ill effect on the body.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
- Physiology
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Question 195
Incorrect
-
The processing of NH3 to urea occurs in:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mitochondria and cytoplasm
Explanation:The urea cycle (also known as the ornithine cycle) is a cycle of biochemical reactions that produces urea ((NH2)2CO) from ammonia (NH3). The urea cycle consists of four enzymatic reactions: one mitochondrial and three cytosolic.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cell Biology
- Physiology
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Question 196
Incorrect
-
Coronary flow is reduced during
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tachycardia
Explanation:Maximum amount of blood flow in the coronary arteries occur during diastole. When the heart rate increases which is also called tachycardia the duration of diastole decreases. Hence the amount of blood flow to the cardiac muscle also decreases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Physiology
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Question 197
Incorrect
-
The predominant receptors in the conduction system are?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Β1
Explanation:The heart is predominately under the control of the parasympathetic system. Nerves from the parasympathetic system activate the B1 receptors on the heart, most specifically on the SA node, AV node and the purkinje system.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Physiology
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Question 198
Incorrect
-
Which cells secrete insulin?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: B cells of the pancreatic islets
Explanation:Insulin is synthesised and stored by the B cells of the pancreatic islets (70% of islet cells), glucagon is synthesised and stored in the A cells (20%) and somatostatin is synthesised and stored in the D cells (10%).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
- Physiology
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Question 199
Incorrect
-
The blood supply to the greater curvature of the stomach is via the:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Right and left gastro-epiploic arteries
Explanation:The blood supply to the greater curvature of the stomach is via the left and the right gastro-epiploic arteries branching from the splenic artery near the hilum.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal
- Physiology
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Question 200
Incorrect
SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY
