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Question 1
Correct
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During thymectomy the surgeon accidentally nicks a vein that lies just posterior to the thymus. Which of the following vessels is likely to be injured?
Your Answer: Left brachiocephalic vein
Explanation:The thymus is located superficially in the anterior mediastinum. The left brachiocephalic vein courses through the mediastinum to join the right brachiocephalic vein and form the superior vena cava on the right side of the thorax. The left brachiocephalic vein, being superficial, courses just deep to the thymus so that it may be susceptible to compression by an adjacent tumour. The left pulmonary vein, left bronchial vein and right pulmonary artery are deep, and enter and exit the lung at its root, thus are not near the thymus. The right superior intercostal vein drains the 2nd to the 4th intercostal spaces and drains into the arch of the azygos vein. It is not, therefore, closely related with the thymus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Thorax
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 47-year-old male smoker, who had been self-medicating with oral steroids for the last two years due to persistent breathlessness presented to the doctor complaining of a productive cough, fever and chest pain. A chest X-ray revealed bilateral patchy opacities. He was diagnosed with bilateral bronchopneumonia. Which of these organisms is most probably causing these findings?
Your Answer: Streptococcus pneumoniae
Correct Answer: Nocardia asteroides
Explanation:Nocardia is a Gram-positive aerobic actinomycete. Several species have been identified but the most common human pathogen is Nocardia asteroides. The predominant clinical finding in the majority of patients affected by nocardiosis is pulmonary disease. Predisposing factors for pulmonary nocardiosis include leukaemia, human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection, organ transplantation, diabetes and receiving prolonged corticosteroids.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathology
- Respiratory
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Question 3
Correct
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A cerebellar tremor can be differentiated from a Parkinsonian tremor in that:
Your Answer: It only occurs during voluntary movements
Explanation:Cerebellar disease leads to intention tremors, which is absent at rest and appears at the onset of voluntary movements. In comparison, Parkinson’s tremor is present at rest. Frequency of tremor is a less reliable means to differentiate between the two as the oscillation amplitude of the tremor is not constant throughout a voluntary action.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
- Physiology
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Question 4
Correct
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Which statement is true regarding the diaphragmatic openings:
Your Answer: The thoracic duct passes through the opening at T12
Explanation:The diaphragmatic openings are:
T8 – opening for the inferior vena cavaand the right phrenic nerve
T10 – opening for the oesophagusand the left gastric artery and vein
T12 – opening for the aorta, the thoracic duct and azygos vein.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 5
Correct
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The chest X-ray of a 72 year old patient reveals the presence of a round lesion containing an air-fluid level in the left lung. These findings are most probably suggestive of:
Your Answer: Lung abscess
Explanation:Lung abscesses are collections of pus within the lung that arise most commonly as a complication of aspiration pneumonia caused by oral anaerobes. Older patients are more at risk due to poor oral hygiene, gingivitis an inability to handle their oral secretions due to other diseases. Chest X-ray most commonly reveals the appearance of an irregularly shaped cavity with an air-fluid level.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathology
- Respiratory
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Question 6
Correct
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Which of the following organs of the abdominal cavity is completely covered by the peritoneum?
Your Answer: Spleen
Explanation:Of the organs listed, the spleen is the only organ that is completely intraperitoneal, that is entirely in the peritoneum. Other completely intraperitoneal organs include the stomach, liver, appendix and the small intestines. The kidney, Inferior vena cava, aorta and the suprarenal glands are all retroperitoneal organs. The pancreas and the duodenum are partially retroperitoneal, with the tail of the pancreas in the peritoneum found in the splenorenal ligament while only the first part of the duodenum is intraperitoneal. For the intraperitoneal organs remember SALTD SPRSS
S = Stomach
A = Appendix
L = Liver
T = Transverse colon
D = Duodenum (only the 1st part)
S = Small intestines
P = Pancreas (only the tail)
R = Rectum (only the upper 3rd)
S = Sigmoid colon
S = Spleen
For retroperitoneal, just remember SADPUCKER:
S = suprarenal glands
A = Aorta and IVC
D = Duodenum (all but the 1st part)
P = Pancreas (all but the tail)
U = Ureter and bladder
C = Colon (ascending and descending)
K = Kidneys
E = Oesophagus
R = Rectum (Lower two-thirds)
For secondarily retroperitoneal remember ‘Pussy Cat Dolls“:
P = Pancreas
C = Colon (only ascending and descending)
D = Duodenum (only parts 2-4) -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 7
Correct
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A 27-year-old woman, who had been taking a combined oral contraceptive for 6 months, presented with inguinal pain and oedema of the left leg. Which of the following investigations would you recommend to help confirm the diagnosis?
Your Answer: Duplex scan
Explanation:Oral combined contraceptive pill (OCCP) is a drug used for birth control and treating a number of other conditions. Women who take the OCP have a higher risk of developing deep vein thrombosis (DVT), usually in the legs. Duplex ultrasonography is a safe and non-invasive technique which is used for diagnosing the presence of lower extremity thrombi.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Pathology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 49-year-old man, smoker, complains of a persisting and worsening cough over the past few months. He also has noted blood in his sputum. The patient has no other major health conditions. Which of the following investigative procedures should be done first?
Your Answer: Bronchoalveolar lavage
Correct Answer: Sputum cytology
Explanation:Sputum cytology is a diagnostic test used for the examination of sputum under a microscope to determine if abnormal cells are present. It may be used as the first diagnostic procedure to help detect a suspected lung cancer or certain non-cancerous lung conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathology
- Respiratory
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Question 9
Incorrect
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Tumours derived from all three germ-cell layers in new-borns usually occur in which of the following sites?
Your Answer: Abdomen
Correct Answer: Sacrococcygeal area
Explanation:A teratoma is a tumour with tissue or organ components resembling normal derivatives of more than one germ layer. It is derived from all three cell layers. The most common location of teratoma in new-born infants is in the sacrococcygeal area.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neoplasia
- Pathology
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Question 10
Correct
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A 25-year-old woman complains of generalised swelling and particularly puffiness around the eyes which is worst in the morning. Laboratory studies showed:
Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) = 30 mg/dl
Creatinine = 2. 8 mg/dl
Albumin = 2. 0 mg/dl
Alanine transaminase (ALT) = 25 U/l
Bilirubin = 1 mg/dl
Urine analysis shows 3+ albumin and no cells.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Nephrotic syndrome
Explanation:Nephrotic syndrome is a disorder in which the glomeruli have been damaged, characterized by:
– Proteinuria (>3.5 g per 1.73 m2 body surface area per day, or > 40 mg per square meter body surface area per hour in children)
– Hypoalbuminemia (< 2,5 g/dl) – Hyperlipidaemia, and oedema (generalized anasarca).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
- Renal
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Question 11
Correct
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Which of the following arteries is the posterior branch of the external carotid artery?
Your Answer: Superficial temporal
Explanation:The external carotid artery is a branch of the common carotid artery that supplies parts of the neck, head and face. It branches off from the common carotid artery at the level of the thyroid cartilage. The external carotid, at the level of the mandible divides into the maxillary artery and the superficial temporal. The superficial temporal artery is the posterior branch of these two arteries. It starts off, somewhat, as a continuation of the external carotid artery at the substance of the parotid gland. Anterior cerebral and middle cerebral arteries are branches of the internal carotid artery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Head & Neck
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A terrorist running away from the police was shot in the back. The bullet hit his left lung halfway between its apex and the diaphragmatic surface. Which part of the lung was most likely to be injured?
Your Answer: Hilum
Correct Answer: Inferior lobe
Explanation:The oblique fissure of the left lung is so sharp that the posterior surface of the left lung is mostly composed of the inferior lobe so that the point halfway between the apex and the diaphragmatic surface of the lung would result in injury to the inferior lobe.
The hilum is the point on the medial surface of the lung where the structures that form the root of the lung enter and leave the lung.
The lingual on the other hand is part of the superior lobe of the left lung and it is part of the anterior and superior sides of the lung.
The middle lobe is only found on the right lung.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Thorax
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Question 13
Correct
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An amateur body-builder complains of increasing pain in his right shoulder after a few days of intense training. A surgeon aspirates clear fluid from his subdeltoid region. What's the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Bursitis
Explanation:Bursae are potential cavities that contain synovial fluid, found in areas where friction occurs. Their function is to minimise friction and facilitate movement. Bursitis is the inflammation of one or more bursae, and they can occur in the shoulder, elbow, knee, ischium, amongst other joints. Acute bursitis can appear after strenuous exercise or activity, and chronic bursitis can develop following previous bursitis or trauma. Acute bursitis causes pain, tenderness, and swelling.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Orthopaedics
- Pathology
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Question 14
Correct
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A 7-year-old boys undergoes a testicular biopsy after a tumour is found in his right testis. Elements similar to hair and teeth are found in it. What kind of tumour is this?
Your Answer: Teratoma
Explanation:A teratoma is a tumour containing tissue elements that are similar to normal derivatives of more than one germ layer. They usually contain skin, hair, teeth and bone tissue and are more common in children, behaving as a benign tumour. After puberty, they are regarded as malignant and can metastasise.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathology
- Urology
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Question 15
Correct
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Which of the following foramina will the ophthalmic artery pass through in order to reach the eye?
Your Answer: Optic canal
Explanation:The optic foramen is the opening to the optic canal. The canal is located in the sphenoid bone; it is bounded medially by the body of the sphenoid and laterally by the lesser wing of the sphenoid. The superior surface of the sphenoid bone is bounded behind by a ridge, which forms the anterior border of a narrow, transverse groove, the chiasmatic groove (optic groove). The groove ends on either side in the optic foramen, which transmits the optic nerve and ophthalmic artery into the orbital cavity. Compared to the optic nerve, the ophthalmic artery is located inferolaterally within the canal.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Head & Neck
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Question 16
Correct
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13 year old girl developed sun burnt cheeks after spending the day playing on the beach. What is the underlying mechanism to her injury?
Your Answer: Free radical injury
Explanation:Free radicals are a by-product of chemical reactions with an unpaired electron in their outer most shell. They are capable of causing wide spread damage to cells. They can cause autolytic reactions thereby converting the reactants into free radicals. By absorbing sun light, the energy is used to hydrolyse water into hydroxyl (OH) and hydrogen (H) free radicals which can cause injury by lipid peroxidation of membranes, oxidative modification of proteins and damage to the DNA structure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cell Injury & Wound Healing; Dermatology
- Pathology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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Cyclophosphamide is used as a chemotherapy and immunosuppressant agent and is indicated in various diseases. One of the most severe complications of its use is cancer of the:
Your Answer: Liver
Correct Answer: Urinary bladder
Explanation:Cyclophosphamide is used to treat various types of cancer and autoimmune disorders. The main use of cyclophosphamide is in combination with other chemotherapy agents in the treatment of lymphomas, some forms of leukaemia and some solid tumours. Side-effects include nausea and vomiting, bone marrow suppression, stomach ache, diarrhoea, darkening of the skin/nails, alopecia, lethargy, and haemorrhagic cystitis. Cyclophosphamide is itself carcinogenic, potentially causing transitional cell carcinoma of the bladder as a long-term complication.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathology
- Pharmacology
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Question 18
Correct
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A 45-year old farmer was referred to the surgical clinic with complaints of pain in his right hypochondrium. Investigations confirmed the diagnosis of hepatocellular carcinoma with malignant ascites. According to you, what is the most likely cause of HCC in this patient?
Your Answer: Aflatoxin
Explanation:Aflatoxins are naturally occurring toxins produced by the Aspergillus fungus (most often, A. flavus and A. parasiticus). These organisms are common and their native habitat is soil, decaying vegetation and grains. They can contaminate the grain before harvest or after storage, more likely in high-humidity (at least 7%) or high temperature environment of after stressful conditions like drought. Aflatoxins are mycotoxins and also carcinogenic. They get metabolized in the liver to an epoxide, aflatoxin M1. High exposure can lead to acute necrosis, cirrhosis or liver carcinoma. These substances can cause haemorrhage, acute liver damage, oedema, and alteration in digestion, absorption and/or metabolism of nutrients. Although humans are susceptible to these toxins like all other animals, they have a high tolerance level and hence, rarely develop acute aflatoxicosis. However, children are particularly susceptible to exposure leading to growth impairment and delayed development. Chronic exposure carries a high risk of hepatic cancer, due to intercalation of its metabolite aflatoxin M1 into the DNA and alkylation of the bases because of its epoxide moiety.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal; Hepatobiliary
- Pathology
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Question 19
Correct
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During a laparoscopic surgery, the surgeon visualizes the medical umbilical folds on the deep surface of the anterior abdominal wall. What causes the medial umbilical folds?
Your Answer: Obliterated umbilical arteries
Explanation:The medial umbilical ligament is a structure found on the deep surface of the anterior abdominal wall and is covered by the medial umbilical folds. It is a paired structure that represents the remnants of the fetal umbilical artery. They have no role in humans after birth other than to be used as a landmark for exploring the medial inguinal fossa during laparoscopic inguinal hernia repair.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 20
Correct
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Question 21
Incorrect
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The gluteus medius muscle:
Your Answer: Extends the thigh at the hip joint
Correct Answer: Is supplied by the superior gluteal nerve
Explanation:The gluteus medius is situated on the outer surface of the pelvis. It arises from the outer surface of the ilium between the iliac crest and posterior gluteal line above and the anterior gluteal line below. The gluteus medius is supplied by the fourth and fifth lumbar and first sacral nerves through the superior gluteal nerve
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Lower Limb
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A significantly elevated white cell count of 50 x 109/l with 5% blasts and raised leucocyte alkaline phosphatase is seen in which of the following conditions?
Your Answer: Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia
Correct Answer: Leukaemoid reaction
Explanation:Non-neoplastic proliferation of leucocytes causes an increase in leukocyte alkaline phosphatase (LAP). This is referred to as ‘leukemoid reaction’ because of the similarity to leukaemia with an increased white cell count (>50 × 109/l) with immature forms. Causes of leukemoid reaction includes haemorrhage, drugs (glucocorticoids, all-trans retinoic acid etc), infections such as tuberculosis and pertussis, and as a paraneoplastic phenomenon. Leukemoid reaction can also be seen in infancy as a feature of trisomy 21. This is usually a benign condition, but can be a response to a disease state. Differential diagnosis include chronic myelogenous leukaemia (CML).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
- Pathology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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The lateral thoracic artery:
Your Answer: Accompanies the thoracodorsal nerve to the serratus anterior muscle
Correct Answer: Accompanies the long thoracic nerve to the serratus anterior muscle
Explanation:The thoracic nerve, along with the lateral thoracic artery, follow the pectoralis minor to the side of the chest which supplies the serratus anterior and the pectoralis. It then sends branches across the axilla to the axillary glands and subscapularis. The pectoral branch of the thoraco-acromial anastomoses with the internal mammary, subscapular and intercostal arteries, which in women, supply an external mammary branch.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Breast
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Question 24
Correct
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What is the most likely condition a new born infant is likely to suffer from, if he/she was born with incomplete fusion of the embryonic endocardial cushions?
Your Answer: An atrioventricular septal defect
Explanation:The endocardial cushions in the heart are the mesenchymal tissue that make up the part of the atrioventricular valves, atrial septum and ventricular septum. An incomplete fusion of these mesenchymal cells can cause an atrioventricular septal defect. The terms endocardial cushion defect, atrioventricular septal defect and common atrioventricular canal defect can be used interchangeably with one another.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Embryology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man with no history of smoking complains of shortness of breath and persistent cough over the past 8 months. He reveals that in the 1960s he worked for several years as a boiler operator. Chest X-ray shows diffuse lung infiltrates. Which of the following is the most probable cause of these findings?
Your Answer: Silicosis
Correct Answer: Asbestosis
Explanation:Asbestosis is a chronic lung disease which leads to long-term respiratory complications and is caused by the inhalation of asbestos fibres. Symptoms due to long exposure to asbestos usually appear 10 to 40 years after initial exposure and include shortness of breath, cough, weight loss, clubbing of the fingers and chest pain. Typical chest X-ray findings include diffuse lung infiltrates that cause the appearance of shaggy heart borders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathology
- Respiratory
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Question 26
Correct
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The anatomical course of the phrenic nerve passes over the following muscle in the neck?
Your Answer: Anterior scalene
Explanation:The phrenic nerve originates in the neck between C3-C5, mostly C4 spinal root. It enters the thoracic cavity past the heart and lungs to the diaphragm. In the neck, this nerve begins at the lateral border of the anterior scalene muscle, its course then continues inferiorly on the anterior aspect of the anterior scalene muscle as it moves towards the diaphragm.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Head & Neck
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Question 27
Correct
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A 50-year old gentleman who suffered a stroke was brought to the emergency department by his relatives. The patient however denied the presence of paralysis of his left upper and lower limbs. What is the most likely site of the lesion in this patient?
Your Answer: Right posterior parietal cortex
Explanation:A large injury to the non-dominant parietal cortex can make the patient neglect or refuse to acknowledge the presence of paralysis on the contralateral side. This can also involve the perception of the external world. Smaller injuries in this area which involve the precentral gyrus (primary motor cortex) or postcentral gyrus (primary sensory cortex) cause contralateral spastic paralysis or contralateral loss of tactile sensation respectively. A lesion in posterior inferior gyrus of the dominant frontal lobe results in motor aphasia. Involvement of the posterior superior gyrus of the dominant frontal lobe produces sensory aphasia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
- Physiology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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Hormones of the anterior pituitary include which of the following?
Your Answer: Vasopressin
Correct Answer: Prolactin
Explanation:The anterior pituitary gland (adenohypophysis or pars distalis) synthesizes and secretes:
1. FSH (follicle-stimulating hormone)
2. LH (luteinizing hormone)
3. Growth hormone
4. Prolactin
5. ACTH (adrenocorticotropic hormone)
6. TSH (thyroid-stimulating hormone).
The posterior pituitary gland (neurohypophysis) stores and secretes 2 hormones produced by the hypothalamus:
1. ADH (antidiuretic hormone or vasopressin)
2. Oxytocin
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine
- Physiology
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Question 29
Correct
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Which of the following muscles is solely contained in the anterior triangle of the neck and divides the anterior triangle into three smaller triangles?
Your Answer: Digastric
Explanation:The digastric muscle is a small muscle located under the jaw. It lies below the body of the mandible, and extends, in a curved form, from the mastoid process to the symphysis menti. The digastric divides the anterior triangle of the neck into three smaller triangles:
– The submaxillary triangle, bounded above by the lower border of the body of the mandible and a line drawn from its angle to the sternocleidomastoid, below by the posterior belly of the digastric and the stylohyoid and in front by the anterior belly of the digastric
– The carotid triangle, bounded above by the posterior belly of the digastric and stylohyoid, behind by the sternocleidomastoid and below by the omohyoid
– The suprahyoid or submental triangle, bounded laterally by the anterior belly of the digastric, medially by the midline of the neck from the hyoid bone to the symphysis menti and inferiorly by the body of the hyoid bone.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Head & Neck
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Question 30
Correct
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A textbook of cardiac surgery explains that while doing a left pneumonectomy, a surgeon must be careful to avoid injury to a vital structure that leaves an impression on the mediastinal surface of the left lung. Which structure is it referring to?
Your Answer: Aortic arch
Explanation:Structures that leave an impression on the mediastinal surface of the left lung include: the oesophagus, subclavian artery, brachiocephalic vein, first rib, thymus, the heart, the diaphragm, descending aorta and arch of the aorta. The other structures form an impression on the mediastinal aspect of the right lung.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Thorax
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY
