00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Secs)
  • Question 1 - Yasmin®, which contains 3 mg of drospirenone and 30 mcg of ethinyl oestradiol,...

    Correct

    • Yasmin®, which contains 3 mg of drospirenone and 30 mcg of ethinyl oestradiol, has been approved for usage in South Africa.

      Which of the following factors has contributed to it becoming the most popular oral contraceptive pill among South African women?

      Your Answer: It has not weight gain as an adverse effect and may be associated with weight loss

      Explanation:

      Yasmin has been linked to decreased fluid retention and weight gain as a side effect of COCs, which is why most women who experience this side effect prefer Yasmin®.
      Due to its anti-mineralocorticoid properties, drospirenone, unlike earlier progestogens, is associated with no weight gain or even moderate weight loss.
      Yasmin has a similar failure rate to other COCs. No evidence using Yasmin is linked to a lower risk of cervical cancer as a long-term side effect of COCs. Yasmin, like all COCs, can cause spotting and irregular bleeding in the first few months of use.
      Drospirenone, a progesterone component, has antiandrogenic properties and is slightly more successful in treating acne, but the difference is not big enough to make it preferable in terms of acne therapy or prevention when compared to other COCs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      1.9
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 33-year-old lady seeks counsel from your clinic since she has a history...

    Incorrect

    • A 33-year-old lady seeks counsel from your clinic since she has a history of deep vein thrombosis. She was on progesterone-only tablets (POP) until five months ago, when she decided to get pregnant. However, the pregnancy turned out to be ectopic. Thankfully, she made it through. She doesn't want to get pregnant again and asks if she may resume taking the tablets.

      Which of the following is the best piece of advise you could give?

      Your Answer: Tell her she should get pregnant as that is the only option

      Correct Answer: She cannot take progesterone only pills

      Explanation:

      Oestrogen-containing contraceptives are not recommended for this woman since she has a history of DVT. This is most likely why she was started on POP instead of standard combination tablets prior. Progesterone is also contraindicated with a history of ectopic pregnancy and should never be used again. Barrier approaches, for example, could be applied in this woman’s case.
      The following are absolute contraindications to taking just progesterone pills:
      – Pregnancy
      – Breast cancer
      – Vaginal bleeding that hasn’t been diagnosed
      – Ectopic pregnancy history or a high risk of ectopic pregnancy

      Progesterone-only pills have the following relative contraindications:
      – Active viral hepatitis
      – Severe chronic liver disease
      – Malabsorption syndrome
      – Severe arterial disease
      – Successfully treated breast cancer more than 5 years ago
      – Concomitant use of hepatic enzyme inducing medications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      10.4
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 44-year-old lady came to the clinic with a five-year history of urine...

    Incorrect

    • A 44-year-old lady came to the clinic with a five-year history of urine incontinence. With a BMI of 34, she is fat. Her last child, weighing 4.2 kg, was born six years ago.

      She has been using various over-the-counter medicines to treat constipation and gastric reflux for the past three years. She is a non-smoker with normal blood pressure.

      Which of the following is not a risk factor for female urinary incontinence development?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gastro-oesophageal reflux disease

      Explanation:

      Stress UI (SUI) is more common among puerperal women, followed by mixed UI (MUI) and urge UI (UUI). Generally, episodes of urine leakage are infrequent and the amount of urine leakage is small.

      Maternal age greater than 35 years, UI during pregnancy, elevated body mass index (BMI), multiparity, and normal birth are considered risk factors for postpartum UI. A 10-year cohort study developed with the goal of assessing the effect of the first normal birth on urinary symptoms showed that it was associated with an increase in SUI, in addition to UUI, regardless of maternal age or number of births.

      Other factors such as: colour or race, episiotomy, perineal tears, newborn’s head circumference, newborn’s weight, gestational age at birth, smoking, and constipation require further studies in order to prove their association with postpartum UI.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A young woman came to your clinic seeking help. She has been married...

    Incorrect

    • A young woman came to your clinic seeking help. She has been married for two years and has yet to conceive. The following are the findings of blood tests:


      Luteinizing hormone levels are low.
      Low levels of follicle stimulating hormone.
      Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) levels are low.
      Prolactin-high.

      What is the most effective way to deal with infertility?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bromocriptine

      Explanation:

      The most common treatment approach is with the dopamine receptor agonists, bromocriptine, and cabergoline. Bromocriptine normalizes prolactin and decreases tumour size in 80%–90% of patients with microadenomas. Bromocriptine should be given to this patient who has developed hyperprolactinemia anovulation.

      Women with hyperprolactinaemic anovulation are treated with dopamine agonists such as bromocriptine.
      This patient has also developed symptoms of a low-functioning pituitary gland tumour, which bromocriptine will assist to shrink. Before starting bromocriptine, a head MRI scan should be considered to confirm the suspected diagnosis.

      Clomiphene is an oestrogen receptor modulator that is selective. It works by competing with oestrogen receptors in the hypothalamus. This disrupts normal negative feedback mechanisms, causing the release of pituitary gonadotropins, particularly LH, to rise, triggering ovulation.
      When the levels of gonadotropins and oestrogen are normal but the women still have ovulatory dysfunction, it is successful in inducing ovulation. In hypogonadotropic hypogonadism and hypogonadotropic hypogonadism patients, clomiphene is frequently ineffective.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 23 year old female patient with DVT on anticoagulant came to your...

    Incorrect

    • A 23 year old female patient with DVT on anticoagulant came to your clinic for advice. She is on combined OCPs.

      What would you advice her?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Progesterone only pill

      Explanation:

      Women with medical conditions associated with increased risk for thrombosis generally should not use oestrogen-containing contraceptives.

      The majority of evidence identified does not suggest an increase in odds for venous or arterial events with use of most POCs. Limited evidence suggested increased odds of VTE with use of injectables (three studies) and use of POCs for therapeutic indications (two studies, one with POCs unspecified and the other with POPs).

      Discontinuing anticoagulants increases her risk of recurrent DVT.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - a 24 year old female patient comes to your office with a chief...

    Incorrect

    • a 24 year old female patient comes to your office with a chief complaint of painless vaginal bleeding of 1 week duration. She had 3 episodes of bleeding and is on contraceptive pills. Her Pap smear screening is up to date with normal findings.

      Which is the cause for her bleeding?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A cervical ectropion

      Explanation:

      Cervical ectropion occurs when glandular cells develop on the outside of the cervix. Many individuals with cervical ectropion do not experience symptoms.
      However, the primary symptom of cervical ectropion is a red, inflamed patch at the neck of the cervix.
      The transformation zone appears this way because the glandular cells are delicate and irritate easily.
      Other symptoms a woman may experience include:
      pain and bleeding during or after sex
      pain during or after cervical screening
      light discharge of mucus
      spotting between periods
      Symptoms may range from mild to severe when they appear.

      This patient has normal pap smear and is unlikely to have cervical cancer. She has no fever and vaginal discharge which would be the presentation of Chlamydia infection.

      Endometrial cancer affects mainly post menopausal women and presents with vaginal bleeding, weight loss, dysuria and dyspareunia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - During her first month on OCPs, a patient had minimal bleeding at mid...

    Incorrect

    • During her first month on OCPs, a patient had minimal bleeding at mid cycle. What is the most appropriate management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Continue pills as usual.

      Explanation:

      Breakthrough bleeding, or spotting, refers to when vaginal bleeding occurs between menstrual cycles. It may look like light bleeding or brown discharge.

      Spotting is the most common side effect of birth control pills. It happens because the body is adjusting to changing levels of hormones, and the uterus is adjusting to having a thinner lining.

      Taking the pill as prescribed, usually every day and at the same time each day, can help prevent bleeding between periods.

      All other options are incorrect as this is a common side effect and will resolve on its own.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 35 year old known hypertensive female patient comes with a complaint of...

    Incorrect

    • A 35 year old known hypertensive female patient comes with a complaint of irritability around her period. Her breasts are tender, swollen and painful around the time which also contributes to her irritability. She is not active sexually and doesn't plan on having any relationships in the future.

      What is the next step in management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Primrose oil

      Explanation:

      PMS is a condition, which is associated with somatic, emotional and behavioural symptoms during the women menstruation. Oenothera biennis with the common name of “evening primrose” is containing a valuable fixed oil with commercial name of EPO. Evening primrose oil has two types of omega-6-fatty acid including linoleic acid (60%–80%) and γ-linoleic acid (8%–14%). Essential fatty acids are considered as essential compounds for body health, especially among women. Evening primrose oil’s is effective in women health, but the immediate response should not be expected from it, therefore, it should be regularly used up to 4 or 6 months.

      Oral contraceptive pills are only used when other treatments fail.
      SSRI are only indicated in cases of persistent mood changes like depression.
      Local anaesthetics have no role in the management of PMS.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 51-year-old woman comes to your doctor's office for a breast cancer screening....

    Incorrect

    • A 51-year-old woman comes to your doctor's office for a breast cancer screening. For the past year, she has been on combination hormone replacement treatment (HRT). Mammography is the sole accessible form of breast cancer screening, and she is predicted to have dense breast tissue due to HRT.

      Which of the following is the best HRT and breast cancer screening suggestion for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Continue HRT and perform mammography as recommended for other women

      Explanation:

      Among a variety of imaging modalities developed for breast cancer screening, mammography is the best-studied and the only imaging technique that has been shown to decrease mortality as demonstrated in multiple randomized trials. However, it is important to know that, even in the best circumstances, mammography may miss up to 20 percent of underlying breast cancers.

      Women on HRT are likely to have dense breast. Dense breasts are associated with an increased risk of breast cancer and can decrease the sensitivity of mammography for small lesions. Nevertheless, we do not alter our general approach to age- and risk-based screening based on breast density. However, for women with dense breasts, we do prefer digital mammography over film mammography, due to greater sensitivity; digital mammography is the modality typically used for mammography in most locations in the United States.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - You're assessing a 34-year-old lady who suffers from chronic pelvic pain. She experiences...

    Incorrect

    • You're assessing a 34-year-old lady who suffers from chronic pelvic pain. She experiences cyclic pain, mostly throughout her premenstrual and menstrual periods. She has been trying for 15 months to conceive without luck. Her pelvic check-up comes out normal.

      Which of the following tests would be most useful in diagnosing the source of her pain and planning preoperative disease staging?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: MRI

      Explanation:

      Endometriosis is a chronic gynaecological condition affecting women of reproductive age and may cause pelvic pain and infertility. It is characterized by the growth of functional ectopic endometrial glands and stroma outside the uterus and includes three different manifestations: ovarian endometriomas, peritoneal implants, deep pelvic endometriosis. The primary locations are in the pelvis; extra pelvic endometriosis may rarely occur.

      Diagnosis requires a combination of clinical history, invasive and non-invasive techniques. The definitive diagnosis is based on laparoscopy with histological confirmation. Diagnostic imaging is necessary for treatment planning. MRI is as a second-line technique after ultrasound. The MRI appearance of endometriotic lesions is variable and depends on the quantity and age of haemorrhage, the amount of endometrial cells, stroma, smooth muscle proliferation and fibrosis. The purpose of surgery is to achieve complete resection of all endometriotic lesions in the same operation.

      Owing to the possibility to perform a complete assessment of all pelvic compartments at one time, MRI represents the best imaging technique for preoperative staging of endometriosis, in order to choose the more appropriate surgical approach and to plan a multidisciplinary team work.

      Though ESR maybe elevated due to the presence of inflammation, it is not specific for endometriosis and has no role in preoperative staging. The same holds true for any possible CBC finding.

      Transvaginal ultrasound is preferred for diagnosis but doesn’t aid in preoperative staging of endometriosis.

      CA125 values are elevated in severe infiltrative endometriosis but unchanged in mild disease. Relaying on CA125 cause a high rate of false negatives.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - After six weeks of amenorrhoea, a 25-year-old woman appears with stomach discomfort and...

    Incorrect

    • After six weeks of amenorrhoea, a 25-year-old woman appears with stomach discomfort and vaginal bleeding. If she has a tubal ectopic pregnancy, which of the following combinations of physical indications is most likely?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Little guarding but marked rebound tenderness in the suprapubic region.

      Explanation:

      Blood in the peritoneal cavity rarely causes rigidity like that of a board (this is generally only found when chemical or purulent peritonitis is present).

      When there is blood, there is usually a lot of rebound soreness and a lot of guarding.

      A tubal ectopic pregnancy causes discomfort and tenderness in the lower abdomen, but it is not always localised to the side of the disease.

      Shock is uncommon since the diagnosis is usually recognised before there is enough blood loss to elicit such signs.

      Pelvic soreness is more prevalent than a pelvic mass that may be seen on a clinical exam.
      Where a mass is visible, it could be an ectopic pregnancy, but it’s more likely to be a pregnancy surrounded by a blood clot caused by a leaking ectopic pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - What is the Gold standard investigation to diagnose abnormal uterine bleeding? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the Gold standard investigation to diagnose abnormal uterine bleeding?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hysteroscopy along with dilatation and curettage

      Explanation:

      During the last decade hysteroscopy has become the tool of choice for the evaluation of the endometrial cavity, including for assessment of abnormal uterine bleeding (AUB). Many clinicians would consider that, in most patients, the combination of transvaginal sonography and out-patient endometrial biopsy with diagnostic hysteroscopy could replace the need for dilation and curettage. Hysteroscopy was reported to have sensitivity, specificity, negative predictive value and positive predictive value of 94.2, 88.8, 96.3 and 83.1% respectively, in predicting normal or abnormal endometrial histopathology.

      The highest accuracy of hysteroscopy was in diagnosing endometrial polyps, whereas the worst result was in estimating hyperplasia. Therefore, since the incidence of focal lesions in patients with AUB is high, it seems that the most beneficial approach is to proceed with hysteroscopy complemented by endometrial biopsy early in the assessment of AUB.

      Transabdominal and transvaginal ultrasounds can be used but are inferior to hysteroscopy.

      Coagulation profile can only diagnose possible coagulopathies and pregnancy test can only diagnose pregnancy. All other causes can not be identified with these laboratory investigations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 41-year-old lady visits your clinic to talk about the results of her...

    Incorrect

    • A 41-year-old lady visits your clinic to talk about the results of her cervical screening test. According to the study, she has a low-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion as well as HPV non-16 and 18 subtypes. She had never previously had a cervical screening.

      What is the best course of action for her management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Repeat HPV test in 12 months

      Explanation:

      An LSIL Pap test shows mild cellular changes. The risk of a high-grade cervical precancer or cancer after an LSIL Pap test is as high as 19 percent.

      As with an ASC-US Pap test, an LSIL Pap test is evaluated differently depending upon age. For women ages 25 or older, follow-up depends upon the results of human papillomavirus (HPV) testing:

      – Women who test positive for HPV or who have not been tested for HPV should have colposcopy.
      – Women who test negative for HPV can be followed up with a Pap test and HPV test in one year.

      All other options are not acceptable for the above mentioned reasons.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 49-year-old lady presents with amenorrhea of 11-months’ duration. Her periods were previously...

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old lady presents with amenorrhea of 11-months’ duration. Her periods were previously normal and regular. She is planned for an assessment of her FSH (follicle-stimulating hormone) and oestradiol (E2) levels.

      Assuming she has attained menopause, which pattern would most likely be found?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: High FSH and low E2.

      Explanation:

      High FSH and low E2 levels would be expected in menopause. FSH levels would be raised as her body attempts to stimulate ovarian activity and E2 would be low due to reduced ovarian function. The other options would be possible if she was younger, and if occurring with amenorrhea, would warrant further hormonal tests.

      It is often challenging to interpret hormone test results close to the time of menopause, especially if the woman is still experiencing irregular menstruation, as remaining ovarian follicles might still produce oestrogen, causing both bleeding and FSH suppression. Elevation of FSH then can be seen again once the oestrogen level drops. Hence, the results would be influenced by the timing of blood sample collection. Once amenorrhea occurs more consistently, it would be easier to interpret the results.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 26-year-old woman presents with vulvar soreness and oedema. For the past three...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old woman presents with vulvar soreness and oedema. For the past three days, she has been suffering from dyspareunia and difficulty walking. She claims she has never had any sexually transmitted illnesses before. Her companion has no symptoms. She is afebrile and in good health.

      On pelvic examination, a red, heated swelling measuring 4cm in diameter is discovered in the posterior end of the right labia majora. A speculum examination reveals normal-looking mucosa with no obvious discharge. There is no lymphadenopathy in the region.

      Which of the following is the best initial treatment option?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Word catheter

      Explanation:

      The patient is suffering from Bartholin cyst abscess.
      Insertion of an inflatable balloon is a non-surgical procedure that can be performed as an outpatient using a local anaesthetic (LA) injection to numb the area. It involves making a passage from the cyst or abscess through which the pus can drain over 4 weeks. After the LA injection, a small skin cut is made into the cyst or abscess, which allows drainage. A fluid/ pus swab sample may be taken to check for an infection at this stage. A cotton bud is used to break the pockets of abscess/ cyst fluid. A flexible tube (called a Word catheter) with a small, specially designed balloon at its tip is then inserted into the cyst or abscess to create a passage. The balloon is inflated with 3–4mls of sterile fluid to keep the catheter in place. Rarely, a stitch may be used to partly close the cut and hold the balloon in position. It is then left in place for up to 4 weeks; new skin to forms around the passage and the wound heals.

      Marsupialization can be done for drainage but is inferior or word catheter because of the technical challenges and complications. Hot compressions and analgesics alone do not suffice in the presence of an abscess. Antibiotics are given after drainage but are not effective alone when there is a large collection of pus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 30-year-old female patient visits you for a cervical cancer screening. You inform...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old female patient visits you for a cervical cancer screening. You inform her that while Pap smears are no longer performed, Cervical Screening tests are done five times a year.

      She has a cervical screening test, which reveals that she has non-16/18 HPV and low-grade cytology alterations.

      What's would you do next?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Repeat cervical screening test in 12 months

      Explanation:

      An LSIL Pap test shows mild cellular changes. The risk of a high-grade cervical precancer or cancer after an LSIL Pap test is as high as 19 percent.

      As with an ASC-US Pap test, an LSIL Pap test is evaluated differently depending upon age. For women ages 25 or older, follow-up depends upon the results of human papillomavirus (HPV) testing:

      – Women who test positive for HPV or who have not been tested for HPV should have colposcopy.
      – Women who test negative for HPV can be followed up with a Pap test and HPV test in one year.

      Referral to an oncologist is not necessary since there is no established diagnosis of malignancy. All other options are unacceptable.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 23-year-old woman with diffuse pelvic pain and vaginal bleeding presents to the...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old woman with diffuse pelvic pain and vaginal bleeding presents to the emergency room. She claims that it is around the time that she usually has her period. She has previously experienced defecation discomfort, dyspareunia, and dysmenorrhea. The patient claims that she has previously experienced similar symptoms, but that the agony has suddenly become unbearable.

      Her abdomen is soft, with normal bowel sounds and no rebound soreness, according to her physical examination. There is no costovertebral discomfort and the patient does not guard. Blood in the posterior vaginal vault, a closed os, and no palpable masses or cervical motion pain are all findings on her pelvic examination.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Endometriosis

      Explanation:

      Endometriosis is defined as the presence of normal endometrial mucosa (glands and stroma) abnormally implanted in locations other than the uterine cavity. Approximately 30-40% of women with endometriosis will be sub fertile. About one third of women with endometriosis remain asymptomatic. When they do occur, symptoms, such as the following, typically reflect the area of involvement:
      – Dysmenorrhea
      – Heavy or irregular bleeding
      – Pelvic pain
      – Lower abdominal or back pain
      – Dyspareunia
      – Dyschezia (pain on defecation) – Often with cycles of diarrhoea and constipation
      – Bloating, nausea, and vomiting
      – Inguinal pain
      – Pain on micturition and/or urinary frequency
      – Pain during exercise

      Pregnancy, appendicitis, ureteral colic and ruptured ectopic pregnancy all do not present with dysmenorrhea, pain on defecation and dyspareunia. Presence of a non tender, soft abdomen also rules out these conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 27-year-old woman presents to the clinic.

    She explains she has had 2 episodes...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old woman presents to the clinic.

      She explains she has had 2 episodes of postcoital bleeding.

      Her previous medical history reveals she is currently taking the oral contraceptive pill (OCP) and has never had an abnormal pap smear, including one that was performed a year ago.

      What is the most probable cause of her postcoital bleeding?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A cervical ectropion

      Explanation:

      The most likely cause of her postcoital bleeding is cervical ectropion as suggested by her postcoital bleeding, normal pap smears and use of oral contraceptive pills.

      Cervical ectropion is a benign condition that occurs as a result of overexposure to oestrogen. Here, glandular cells (the columnar epithelium) lining the endocervix, begin to grow on the ectocervix, leading to exposure of the columnar cells to the vaginal environment.

      These columnar cells are prone to trauma and bleeding during coitus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - In evaluating a reproductive age woman who presents with amenorrhea, which of the...

    Incorrect

    • In evaluating a reproductive age woman who presents with amenorrhea, which of the following conditions will result in a positive (withdrawal) progesterone challenge test?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Polycystic ovarian syndrome

      Explanation:

      In pregnancy, progesterone is produced by the corpus luteum followed by the placenta- Exogenous progesterone will not lead to withdrawal bleeding. In ovarian failure as well as pituitary failure, no oestrogen stimulation of the endometrium exists, and progesterone cannot cause withdrawal bleeding. With Mullerian agenesis, there is no endometrium. Polycystic ovarian syndrome has an abundance of circulating oestrogen, so the endometrium will proliferate.

      → In pregnancy progesterone withdrawal will not occur since the corpus luteum is producing progesterone- The placenta will take over, starting at 7 weeks, and will be the sole producer of progesterone by 12 weeks.
      → In ovarian failure no oestrogen will be produced; no proliferation of the endometrium will occur.
      → Pituitary failure is an incorrect answer because without gonadotropin stimulation, there will not be enough oestrogen to stimulate the endometrial lining.
      → Mullerian agenesis is an incorrect answer – there is no uterus, thus no bleeding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - As a locum GP at a rural hospital, you are serving female patients...

    Incorrect

    • As a locum GP at a rural hospital, you are serving female patients at the OBGYN department. You have become an expert in diagnosing endometriosis early.

      Which would you say is the most common symptom of endometriosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dysmenorrhoea

      Explanation:

      The following are the most common symptoms for endometriosis, but each woman may experience symptoms differently or some may not exhibit any symptoms at all. Symptoms of endometriosis may include:

      Pain, especially excessive menstrual cramps that may be felt in the abdomen or lower back
      Pain during intercourse
      Abnormal or heavy menstrual flow
      Infertility
      Painful urination during menstrual periods
      Painful bowel movements during menstrual periods
      Other gastrointestinal problems, such as diarrhoea, constipation and/or nausea

      All options can be symptoms of endometriosis but the commonest one is dysmenorrhea.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 25-year-old woman presents to your clinic for her routine annual check-up and...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman presents to your clinic for her routine annual check-up and Pap smear. She has a single partner who uses condoms during contraception. Her menstrual cycle is regular and around four weeks long. Her last menstrual period was 2 weeks ago. She is otherwise healthy with no symptoms suggesting a problem with her genital tract. Per vaginal examination is performed revealing a 4 cm cystic swelling in the right ovary. What would be the best next step of management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: See her again in six weeks and arrange an ultrasound examination if the cyst is still present.

      Explanation:

      Because of the high possibility of spontaneous resolution and the fact that if the cystic mass was verified ultrasonically, a conservative policy would almost probably be proposed for at least another six weeks, an ultrasound examination is not necessary at this time. If the cyst is still present at the six-week check, an ultrasound examination is required, as it is likely that the cyst is a benign tumour or possibly endometriosis. It’s quite improbable that it’s cancer.
      Additional tests, such as computed tomography (CT) examination and potentially surgical removal or drainage, may be required in the future, although not at this time.
      This cyst in a young lady is almost probably of physiological origin, especially given its size. The woman should be informed, but a follow-up examination is required. The most suitable next action is to return in six weeks, as the cyst is most likely physiologic and will most likely dissipate naturally by then. The following appointment should not take place during the same menstrual cycle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - An 20-year-old woman presents to you 6 hours after she was raped on...

    Incorrect

    • An 20-year-old woman presents to you 6 hours after she was raped on day-12 of her menses which usually lasts for 28 days. You have decided to give her Postinor-2 (levonorgestrel 0.75 mg) as a post-intercourse contraceptive. She is requesting information about any potential adverse effects as well as its efficacy.

      Which of the following statements is correct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The treatment fails to prevent pregnancy in 2-3% of women treated.

      Explanation:

      Postinor-2 (levonorgestrel 750pg) is only an emergency contraceptive and is not designed to be a regular form of contraception. If taken within 24 hours, it is estimated to be able to prevent up 97-98% of pregnancies and 58% if given between 48-72 hours post-unprotected intercourse. It can cause vaginal bleeding within a few days of its administration if it is given before day 8-10 of her menstrual cycle. However, if given mid-cycle, it typically doesn’t affect the timing of her next period unless conception occurs. Nausea and vomiting were common when high doses of OCP were used as a post-intercourse contraceptive. Nausea and vomiting still can occur with Postinor-2, but not up to 50% of women. There is currently no evidence to suggest that the levonorgestrel dose would cause a virilising effect on female foetuses.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - One year ago, Pap smear was done at your clinic for a 53...

    Incorrect

    • One year ago, Pap smear was done at your clinic for a 53 year old female patient. HPV type 42 was detected and reported as LSIL. A repeat pap smear after 12 months shows no change.

      What is the next best step in management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer for colposcopy

      Explanation:

      The management of low-grade squamous intraepithelial lesions (LSIL) on cervical cytology in women ages 25 years or older depends upon whether the patient underwent high-risk human papillomavirus (HPV) testing.

      Women in this age group comprise two different populations in terms of cervical cancer screening strategies. Professional organizations recommend that women ages 25 to 29 years be screened with cytology alone, while women 30 years or older should be screened with cytology and HPV co-testing. Thus, the American Society for Colposcopy and Cervical Pathology (ASCCP) prefers that women ages 25 to 29 years are not managed based upon HPV results, even if an HPV test was performed at the time of screening. For women with ages 30 years or older and HPV positive, colposcopy must be performed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - Which is a false statement about endometriosis? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which is a false statement about endometriosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The usual delay in diagnosis is 8 to 10 months with onset in adolescence

      Explanation:

      Endometriosis is found in about one-third of women undergoing laparoscopy for chronic pelvic pain. Published studies show a diagnostic delay of 8.5 years from onset of symptoms to the eventual diagnosis of endometriosis!

      This means that women can suffer for 8.5 years before a diagnosis of endometriosis is made, and appropriate interventions are carried out.

      All other options are true statements about endometriosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - You're looking after a 24-year-old woman who is experiencing pelvic pain. She has...

    Incorrect

    • You're looking after a 24-year-old woman who is experiencing pelvic pain. She has one-sided pain that is widespread and mild, but can be intense at times. Menstruation has been regular. She denies having fever.

      With the exception of a smooth movable adnexal mass on the right side, her pelvic examination seems normal.

      Which of the following is the most likely reason for your discomfort?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ovarian cyst

      Explanation:

      An ovarian cyst is a sac filled with liquid or semiliquid material that arises in an ovary. Although the discovery of an ovarian cyst causes considerable anxiety in women owing to fears of malignancy, the vast majority of these lesions are benign. Most patients with ovarian cysts are asymptomatic, with the cysts being discovered incidentally during ultrasonography or routine pelvic examination. Some cysts, however, may be associated with a range of symptoms, sometimes severe, including the following:

      Pain or discomfort in the lower abdomen

      Severe pain from torsion (twisting) or rupture – Cyst rupture is characterized by sudden, sharp, unilateral pelvic pain; this can be associated with trauma, exercise, or coitus. Cyst rupture can lead to peritoneal signs, abdominal distention, and bleeding (which is usually self-limited)
      Discomfort with intercourse, particularly deep penetration
      Changes in bowel movements such as constipation
      Pelvic pressure causing tenesmus or urinary frequency
      Menstrual irregularities
      Precocious puberty and early menarche in young children
      Abdominal fullness and bloating
      Indigestion, heartburn, or early satiety
      Endometriomas – These are associated with endometriosis, which causes a classic triad of painful and heavy periods and dyspareunia
      Tachycardia and hypotension – These may result from haemorrhage caused by cyst rupture
      Hyperpyrexia – This may result from some complications of ovarian cysts, such as ovarian torsion
      Adnexal or cervical motion tenderness

      Underlying malignancy may be associated with early satiety, weight loss
      achexia, lymphadenopathy, or shortness of breath related to ascites or pleural effusion

      The absence of fever or vaginal discharge rules out PID

      The absence of pain on the right lower quadrant, fever, nausea and vomiting rule out appendicitis.

      The patient has regular menses, no vaginal bleeding no signs of shock that rules out ectopic pregnancy.

      her symptoms are also not consistent with the presentation of leiomyoma. Leiomyoma presents with enlarged uterus, pelvic pressure. It early causes pain when it is complicated with red degeneration which usually occurs in pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 25 year old female with her LRMP 8 weeks ago, presented with...

    Incorrect

    • A 25 year old female with her LRMP 8 weeks ago, presented with severe abdominal pain and per vaginal bleeding. On examination there was tenderness over her left iliac region. Her pulse rate was 110 bpm and blood pressure was 90/65mmHg. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Immediate laparotomy

      Explanation:

      A ruptured ectopic pregnancy is the most probable diagnosis. As she is in shock (tachycardia and hypotension) immediate laparotomy is needed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 28-year-old female patient comes in for a prenatal appointment. She eats only...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old female patient comes in for a prenatal appointment. She eats only vegetables.

      Which of the following is the most appropriate suggestion for folic acid supplementation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: She should be started on folic acid 0.5 mg per day

      Explanation:

      Folate has been in the news because of its connection with a type of birth defect called neural tube defect. Studies have shown that women who have infants with neural tube defects have lower intakes of folate and lower blood folate levels than other women. Folate is needed early in pregnancy (before many women know they are pregnant) for normal neural tube development.

      Many vegan foods including enriched bread, pasta, and cold cereal; dried beans; green leafy vegetables; and orange juice are good sources of folate. Vegan diets tend to be high in folate, however, to be on the safe side, women capable of becoming pregnant should take a supplement or use fortified foods that provide 400 micrograms of folate daily.

      For the above mentioned reasons, all other options are incorrect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - Which stage of the menstrual cycle in best suited for the insertion of...

    Incorrect

    • Which stage of the menstrual cycle in best suited for the insertion of IUD?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: During the first 7 days of your menstrual cycle, which starts with the first day of bleeding

      Explanation:

      it is imperative to elucidate the patient’s risk for current pregnancy and time within her current menstrual cycle prior to IUD insertion. A negative urine pregnancy test is a prerequisite to placement of an IUD. Pregnancies occurring with IUDs in place have an increased incidence of complications, including spontaneous abortion and septic abortion.

      For this reason, many providers prefer to time IUD insertion within the first 5-7 days of the menstrual cycle, further assuring that the patient is not newly pregnant.

      All other options take risk of the patient being pregnant.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 28-year-old lady is complaining of mucopurulent vaginal discharge. On examination, copious amounts...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old lady is complaining of mucopurulent vaginal discharge. On examination, copious amounts of thick mucoid material is found to be draining out of a large cervical erosion. She has had regular pap smears since 16 years of age, which have all been normal. Her last smear was done 4 months prior.

      What is the best next step in her management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cauterisation of the cervix.

      Explanation:

      The best next step in management would be to remove the cervical ectropion using cautery. This would usually be performed under anaesthesia. It can take up to a month to heal following the procedure. Vaginal pessaries and antibiotics are typically not effective.

      Indications for a cone biopsy include an abnormal pap smear, lesion suspected to be a CIN on colposcopic examination that cannot be fully visualised as well if there is a histological discrepancy between the smear and biopsy. Colposcopic examination is also unnecessary at this stage since she has not complained of any abnormal per vaginal bleed nor is her last pap smear abnormal.

      Since the discharge is now affecting the patient’s life, treatment should be given so reassuring her that no treatment is needed is not appropriate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - What is the contraception of choice for epileptics on enzyme inducing antiepileptic drugs?...

    Incorrect

    • What is the contraception of choice for epileptics on enzyme inducing antiepileptic drugs?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine contraceptive device.

      Explanation:

      Clinical decision making which contraceptive regimen is optimal for an individual woman with epilepsy is one of the most challenging tasks when taking care of women with epilepsy. The bidirectional interactive potential of antiepileptic drugs (AEDs) and hormonal contraceptives needs to be taken into account. Enzyme inducing (EI)-AEDs may reduce the contraceptive efficacy of hormonal contraceptives.

      If combined oral contraceptives (COCs) are used in combination with EI-AEDs, it is recommended to choose a COC containing a high progestin dose, well above the dose needed to inhibit ovulation, and to take the COC pill continuously (“long cycle therapy”). But even with the continuous intake of a COC containing a higher progestin dose contraceptive safety cannot be guaranteed, thus additional contraceptive protection may be recommended.

      Progestin-only pills (POPs) are likely to be ineffective, if used in combination with EI-AEDs.

      Subdermal progestogen implants are not recommended in patients on EI-AEDs, because of published high failure rates.

      Depot medroxyprogesterone-acetate (MPA) injections appear to be effective, however they may not be first choice due to serious side effects (delayed return to fertility, impaired bone health).

      The use of intrauterine devices is an alternative method of contraception in the majority of women, with the advantage of no relevant drug–drug interactions. The levonorgestrel intrauterine system (IUS) appears to be effective, even in women taking EI-AEDs. Likelihood of serious side effects is low in the IUS users.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Gynaecology (0/2) 0%
Passmed