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  • Question 1 - An 80 year-old lady presents to the out patient clinic complaining of chest...

    Incorrect

    • An 80 year-old lady presents to the out patient clinic complaining of chest pain of 2 months' duration with a normal electrocardiogram and cardiac enzymes. A computed tomographic scan is done which reveals a mass lesion involving a structure in the middle mediastinum. Which among the following structures could be involved?

      Your Answer: Aortic arch

      Correct Answer: Ascending aorta

      Explanation:

      The middle mediastinum is the broadest part of the mediastinal cavity containing the heart enclosed in the pericardium, ascending aorta, lower half of the superior vena cava with the azygos vein opening into it, the bifurcation of the trachea and the two bronchi, the pulmonary artery with its branches, pulmonary veins, phrenic nerves and bronchial lymph nodes. The most likely structure involved is the ascending aorta, perhaps with an aneurysm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      26.7
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Below which level of the spinal cord will the inferior gluteal nerve be...

    Incorrect

    • Below which level of the spinal cord will the inferior gluteal nerve be unaffected?

      Your Answer: S2

      Correct Answer: S3

      Explanation:

      The inferior gluteal nerve arises from the dorsal divisions of the fifth lumbar and first and second sacral nerves. According to this fact any lesion at or below the S3 will not affect the inferior gluteal nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      9.5
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 20-year old college student was diagnosed with meningitis that had developed due...

    Correct

    • A 20-year old college student was diagnosed with meningitis that had developed due to an acute cavernous sinus thrombosis from an ear infection. Which of the following superficial venous routes is the usual path that an infected blood clot takes to reach the cavernous sinus?

      Your Answer: Facial vein

      Explanation:

      The facial vein is the usual communication between the cavernous sinus and the pterygoid sinus. It is through this vein that an infected clot can travel to the cavernous sinus and cause infection. The pterygoid plexus is a venous plexus that is situated between the temporalis muscle and lateral pterygoid muscle, and partly between the two pterygoid muscles. The pterygoid plexus is connected to the facial vein by the deep facial vein. This connection is what makes this area where this sinus and the facial vein are located a danger zone. The danger zone or triangle of the face is the area from the corners of the mouth to the nose bridge. The sinus connection in this area makes it possible for infection to reach the cavernous sinus and at times cause meningitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      15.2
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 40-year old woman with portal hypertension has impaired venous drainage of the...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year old woman with portal hypertension has impaired venous drainage of the anal canal above the pectinate line. Thus, there might be an increase in blood flow downward to the systemic venous system via anastomoses with the inferior rectal vein. This is a tributary of?

      Your Answer: Internal iliac vein

      Correct Answer: Internal pudendal vein

      Explanation:

      The inferior rectal vein drains into the internal pudendal vein. In addition the external iliac vein is one of the two branches of the common iliac vein however the internal iliac vein and it’s tributaries (including the pudendal vein) are much more important in draining the pelvic structures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Pelvis
      41.5
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Which of the following is a landmark to identify the site of the...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is a landmark to identify the site of the 2nd costal cartilage?

      Your Answer: Sternal angle

      Explanation:

      The sternal angle is an important part where the second costal cartilage attaches to the sternum. Finding the sternal angle will help in finding the second costal cartilage and intercostal space.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      4.4
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Two boys were playing when one of them brought the forearm of the...

    Incorrect

    • Two boys were playing when one of them brought the forearm of the other behind his back. This resulted in a stretching of the lateral rotator of the arm. Which of the following muscles was most likely to have been involved?

      Your Answer: Teres major

      Correct Answer: Infraspinatus

      Explanation:

      There are two lateral rotators of the arm, the infraspinatus and the teres minor muscles. The infraspinatus muscle receives nerve supply from C5 and C6 via the suprascapular nerve, whilst the teres minor is supplied by C5 via the axillary nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      20.4
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Lateral medullary syndrome, also known as Wallenberg's syndrome is a neurological condition caused...

    Correct

    • Lateral medullary syndrome, also known as Wallenberg's syndrome is a neurological condition caused by ischaemia in the lateral part of the medulla oblongata and is commonly associated with numerous neurological symptoms. Which of the following arteries when occluded leads to this condition?

      Your Answer: Posterior inferior cerebellar

      Explanation:

      The lateral medullary syndrome or Wallenberg’s disease is also known as posterior inferior cerebellar artery syndrome (PICA). This syndrome is a clinical manifestation of the occlusion of the posterior cerebellar artery that results in symptoms of infarction of the lateral medullary oblongata. Other arteries that contribute to blood flow in to this region such are the vertebral artery, superior middle cerebellar and inferior medullary arteries can also result to this syndrome when occluded.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      6.9
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - The ostium of the maxillary sinus opens into which of the following structures?...

    Correct

    • The ostium of the maxillary sinus opens into which of the following structures?

      Your Answer: Middle meatus

      Explanation:

      The maxillary sinuses usually develop symmetrically. The maxillary sinus ostium drains into the infundibulum which joins the hiatus semilunaris and drains into the middle meatus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      8.6
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Which of the following statements is true regarding the umbilical cord? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following statements is true regarding the umbilical cord?

      Your Answer: Is filled with jelly of Wharton

      Explanation:

      The umbilical cord that connects the fetus to the placenta is about 50cm long. This tissue consists of the body stalk and vitelline duct. The former containing the allantoic diverticulum and the umbilical vessels. The latter contains the connection linking the digestive tube and the yolk sac. This cord is wrapped by stratum of ectoderm and gelatinous tissue or jelly of Wharton. The right umbilical vein plus the vitelline vessels and ducts disappear and this at birth the cord has three vessels which are the umbilical vein and two umbilical arteries.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Embryology
      15.1
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A patient who following 20 years of working in the asbestos industry develops...

    Correct

    • A patient who following 20 years of working in the asbestos industry develops malignant mesothelioma and is scheduled for pleuropneumonectomy to remove the entire pleura and lung on the affected side. Which layer would provide a natural cleavage plane for surgical separation of the costal pleura from the thoracic wall?

      Your Answer: Endothoracic fascia

      Explanation:

      The endothoracic fascia is connective tissue that is between the costal parietal pleura and the inner aspect of the chest wall. Removing this layer of connective tissue would make it easy to separate the costal pleura from the thoracic wall.

      Deep fascia: is not found around the lungs. It is a layer of connective tissue that invests a muscle or a group of muscles.

      Parietal pleura: part of the pleura that lines the inner surface of the chest/thoracic cavity.

      Visceral pleura: is the serous membrane that lines the surface of the lungs.

      Transversus thoracis muscle fascia is associated only with the muscle transversus thoracis.

      Peritracheal fascia: a layer of connective tissue that invests the trachea. It is not associated with the thoracic wall or the costal pleura.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      14.6
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Which one of the following groups of lymph nodes is most likely to...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following groups of lymph nodes is most likely to be inflamed due to paronychia involving the big toe?

      Your Answer: External iliac lymph nodes

      Correct Answer: Vertical group of superficial inguinal lymph nodes

      Explanation:

      Paronychia affecting the big toe will result in inflammation of the superficial inguinal lymph nodes as it drains lymph from the big toe.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      15.5
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 20 year lady is brought to the A&E following a road accident....

    Incorrect

    • A 20 year lady is brought to the A&E following a road accident. She is hypotensive and a CT scan of the abdomen reveals a shattered spleen. An emergency splenectomy is performed where the splenic artery is ligated right at its origin. Which of the following arteries will have a diminished blood flow owing to ligation of the splenic artery at its origin?

      Your Answer: Inferior pancreaticoduodenal

      Correct Answer: Left gastroepiploic

      Explanation:

      Ligation of the splenic artery right at its point of origin should cut off blood flow in its branches. The following are the branches of the splenic artery: pancreatic branches, short gastric branches and left gastroepiploic arteries.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      11.5
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Destruction of the ventromedial nucleus of the hypothalamus will result in: ...

    Incorrect

    • Destruction of the ventromedial nucleus of the hypothalamus will result in:

      Your Answer: Loss of vision

      Correct Answer: Loss of satiety

      Explanation:

      The ventromedial nucleus of the hypothalamus is divided into an anterior and a superior part. The anterior part controls the female sexual drive, whereas the superior part is responsible for satiety. Destruction of the superior part of the nucleus will result in overeating, as no signal tells the body that it is satisfied.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      8.6
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Where would you insert the needle when drawing blood from a patient's median...

    Incorrect

    • Where would you insert the needle when drawing blood from a patient's median cubital vein?

      Your Answer: Dorsal surface of the hand

      Correct Answer: Anterior aspect of the elbow

      Explanation:

      The correct answer is to insert it into the anterior aspect of the elbow. If you look at the venous drainage of the upper limb, you will find that there are two main veins, the basilic and the cephalic vein; the connecting branch between these two veins is the median cubital vein. and this vein passes via the cubital fossa which is on the anterior aspect of the forearm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      23.2
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A surgeon performing a Whipple's procedure, that involves mobilizing the head of the...

    Incorrect

    • A surgeon performing a Whipple's procedure, that involves mobilizing the head of the pancreases, accidentally injured a structure immediately posterior to the neck of the pancrease which bled out. Which structure is most likely to have been injured?

      Your Answer: Portal vein

      Correct Answer: Superior mesenteric artery

      Explanation:

      The structure immediately posterior to the neck of the pancreas is the superior mesenteric vein. The neck of the pancreas lies anterior to the superior mesenteric vein, which joins with the splenic vein to form the portal vein.

      The superior mesenteric artery (SMA) is also located in proximity to the neck of the pancreas. Specifically, the SMA emerges from the abdominal aorta just below the level of the pancreas and passes posterior to the neck of the pancreas before it descends into the mesentery to supply the intestines. Thus, both the superior mesenteric vein and the superior mesenteric artery are key vascular structures related to the posterior aspect of the neck of the pancreas.

      Bleeding out would suggest an arterial injury.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      16.4
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 42 - year old male patient with an acute onset headache was...

    Incorrect

    • A 42 - year old male patient with an acute onset headache was brought in to the emergency department with suspicion of a subarachnoid haemorrhage (SAH). The SHO on call decided to have a diagnostic lumbar puncture after computed topography scan failed to support the suspicion. To perform a successful lumbar puncture without causing injury to the spine, which anatomical landmark should guide the SHO to locate the fourth vertebra for insertion of the spinal needle?

      Your Answer: Coccyx

      Correct Answer: Iliac crest

      Explanation:

      The safest spinal level for conducting a lumbar puncture, is at the level of the fourth lumbar vertebra. The anatomical landmark used to locate the fourth lumbar vertebra (L4), is the iliac crest. The needle can safely be inserted either above or below L4. The conus medullaris is at the level of the border of L1 and L2 so L4 is safely distant from it.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      37.3
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A swimmer was struggling to finish his training following an injury to his...

    Incorrect

    • A swimmer was struggling to finish his training following an injury to his right arm. On further examination it was found that any movements involving adduction, medial rotation and extension of her arm were particularly weak. Which nerve in this case was damaged?

      Your Answer: Dorsal scapular

      Correct Answer: Thoracodorsal

      Explanation:

      Weakness on these particular movements indicate that there is a problem with the latissimus dorsi muscle. This muscle is very important particularly in swimming movements and is supplied by the thoracodorsal nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      41.6
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - During a splenectomy procedure of a 45-year old male patient with a bleeding...

    Incorrect

    • During a splenectomy procedure of a 45-year old male patient with a bleeding ruptured spleen, the surgeon decided to clamp the splenic artery near the coeliac trunk to stop the bleeding. Which of the following organ/s parts will be least affected by the clamping?

      Your Answer: Greater curvature of the stomach

      Correct Answer: Duodenum

      Explanation:

      The duodenum is the only organ in the list that would not be affect by the clumping of the splenic artery as it is supplied by common hepatic artery (through the gastroduodenal artery) and the superior mesenteric artery (through the inferior pancreaticoduodenal artery). The splenic artery is the artery that supplies the spleen with oxygenated blood. The splenic artery before reaching the spleen also gives off branches that supply the stomach and the pancreas. The greater curvature and the fundus of the stomach is supplied the short gastric artery which branches off from the splenic artery. The left portion of the greater curvature of the stomach together with the greater omentum is supplied by the left gastro-omental artery of the splenic artery. The body and tail of the pancreas is supplied by branches of the splenic artery through the dorsal and superior pancreatic arteries and the caudal pancreatic arteries respectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      11
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - The superior rectal artery is a continuation of the: ...

    Incorrect

    • The superior rectal artery is a continuation of the:

      Your Answer: Sigmoid artery

      Correct Answer: Inferior mesenteric artery

      Explanation:

      The superior rectal artery or superior haemorrhoidal artery is the continuation of the inferior mesenteric artery. It descends into the pelvis between the layers of the mesentery of the sigmoid colon, crossing the left common iliac artery and vein.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      17.6
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Which of the following structures is not easily palpable? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following structures is not easily palpable?

      Your Answer: Thyroid cartilage

      Correct Answer: Styloid process of the temporal bone

      Explanation:

      The styloid process is a thin, pointed process that projects antero-inferiorly from the base of the petrous temporal bone. It can vary in length from a short, stubby process to a slender, four to five centimetre rod. It forms from the cranial elements of the second pharyngeal arch. The tympanic plate of the temporal bone ensheathes the base of this process. The pointed, projecting portion of the process provides attachment to the stylohyoid and stylomandibular ligaments, and to three muscles – the styloglossus, stylohyoid, and stylopharyngeus. As the styloid process is covered by the various muscles, it is not easily palpable in live subjects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      16.6
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 20-year old cyclist falls off a speeding bike and fractures a structure...

    Correct

    • A 20-year old cyclist falls off a speeding bike and fractures a structure that articulates with the tubercle of the 7th rib. Which structure is fractured?

      Your Answer: Transverse process of vertebra T7

      Explanation:

      A rib tubercle is a projection that is postero-inferior and lateral to the neck of a rib which articulates with the transverse process of the corresponding vertebra i.e. of the same number. Therefore, the tubercle of rib 7 articulates with the transverse process of T7 vertebra. The head of the rib 7, on the other hand, articulates with the 6th vertebra superiorly and the 7th vertebra inferiorly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      11.7
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - Choose the most correct answer regarding the obturator internus muscle. ...

    Incorrect

    • Choose the most correct answer regarding the obturator internus muscle.

      Your Answer: It shares innervation with the obturator externus

      Correct Answer: It emerges from the pelvis through the lesser sciatic foramen

      Explanation:

      The obturator internus arises from the inner surface of the anterolateral wall of the pelvis and the pelvic surface of the obturator membrane. The fibres converge rapidly towards the lesser sciatic foramen and end in four or five tendinous bands and leave the pelvis through the lesser sciatic foramen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      4
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - If your EEG shows waves with a frequency range of 8-12 Hz, the...

    Incorrect

    • If your EEG shows waves with a frequency range of 8-12 Hz, the waves most likely to be seen are:

      Your Answer: Beta

      Correct Answer: Alpha

      Explanation:

      Electroencephalography (EEG) is the neurophysiological measurement of the electrical activity of the brain. It is done by placing electrodes on the scalp or subdurally. In reality, the electrical currents are not measured, but rather the voltage differences between different parts of the brain. Four major types of EEG activity are recognized, which are alpha, beta, delta and theta.

      Alpha waves, also known as Berger’s waves ranges in frequency from 8-12 Hz. Best detected with eyes closed, alpha waves are characteristic of a relaxed, alert state of consciousness. An alpha-like normal variant called mu is sometimes seen over the motor cortex (central scalp) and attenuates with movement or, rather, with the intention to move.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      4.3
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - All the following arteries contribute to the blood supply of the hip joint...

    Incorrect

    • All the following arteries contribute to the blood supply of the hip joint except:

      Your Answer: Foveal artery

      Correct Answer: Pudendal

      Explanation:

      The blood supply to the hip joint is from two main arteries, the medial circumflex femoral and lateral circumflex femoral arteries. These are branches of the deep artery of the thigh, which itself is a branch of the femoral artery. There is contribution of blood supply from the inferior gluteals, foveal and obturator arteries.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      4.6
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - Which ectopic tissue is usually contained in the Meckel's diverticulum? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which ectopic tissue is usually contained in the Meckel's diverticulum?

      Your Answer: Duodenal

      Correct Answer: Gastric

      Explanation:

      The Meckel’s diverticulum is a vestigial remnant of the omphalomesenteric duct. This structure is also referred to as the vitelline and contains two types of ectopic tissue, namely; gastric and pancreatic.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Embryology
      12.5
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - What is the innervation of the tensor tympani muscle? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the innervation of the tensor tympani muscle?

      Your Answer: Facial nerve

      Correct Answer: Trigeminal nerve

      Explanation:

      The tensor veli palatini is innervated by the medial pterygoid nerve, a branch of mandibular nerve, the third branch of the trigeminal nerve (CN V3) – the only muscle of the palate not innervated by the pharyngeal plexus, which is formed by the vagal and glossopharyngeal nerves.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      5.8
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 16 year-old boy was stabbed in the right supraclavicular fossa. The sharp...

    Incorrect

    • A 16 year-old boy was stabbed in the right supraclavicular fossa. The sharp object punctured the portion of the parietal pleura that extends above the first rib. What is the name of this portion of the parietal pleura?

      Your Answer: Costodiaphragmatic recess

      Correct Answer: Cupola

      Explanation:

      Endothoracic fascia: the connective tissue (fascia) that is between the costal parietal pleura and the inner wall of the chest wall.

      Costomediastinal recess: the point where the costal pleura becomes mediastinal pleura.

      Costodiaphragmatic recess: is the lowest point of the pleural sac where the costal pleura becomes diaphragmatic pleura.

      Cupola: the part of the parietal pleura that extends above the first rib level into the root of the neck.

      Costocervical recess: this is a made-up term.

      Peritracheal fascia: a layer of connective tissue that invests the trachea.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      14.6
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - The third branch of the maxillary artery lies in which fossa? ...

    Incorrect

    • The third branch of the maxillary artery lies in which fossa?

      Your Answer: Cranial cavity

      Correct Answer: Pterygopalatine fossa

      Explanation:

      The maxillary artery supplies deep structures of the face. It branches from the external carotid artery just deep to the neck of the mandible. It is divided into three portions:

      – The first or mandibular portion (or bony portion) passes horizontally forward, between the neck of the mandible and the sphenomandibular ligament.

      – The second or pterygoid portion (or muscular portion) runs obliquely forward and upward under cover of the ramus of the mandible, on the surface of the lateral pterygoid muscle; it then passes between the two heads of origin of this muscle and enters the fossa.

      – The third portion lies in the pterygopalatine fossa in relation to the pterygopalatine ganglion. This is considered the terminal branch of the maxillary artery. Branches from the third portion includes: the sphenopalatine artery, descending palatine artery, infraorbital artery, posterior superior alveolar artery, artery of pterygoid canal, pharyngeal artery, middle superior alveolar artery and anterior superior alveolar artery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      3.3
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - The primary area involved in the pathology of Parkinson's disease is: ...

    Incorrect

    • The primary area involved in the pathology of Parkinson's disease is:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Substantia nigra

      Explanation:

      Parkinson’s disease is a degenerative, movement disorder of the central nervous system, and is typically characterized by muscle rigidity, tremor and bradykinesia (in extreme cases, akinesia). Secondary symptoms include high-level cognitive dysfunction and subtle language problems.

      Parkinson’s disease is also called ‘primary Parkinsonism’ or ‘idiopathic Parkinson’s disease and is the most common cause of Parkinsonism, a group of similar symptoms. The disorder is caused due to loss of pigmented dopaminergic cells in the pars compacta region of the substantia nigra.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - Which of the following is a fact worth noting about the development of...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is a fact worth noting about the development of the spleen?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It develops in the dorsal mesogastrium

      Explanation:

      The spleen in the human embryo arises in week 5 of intrauterine life. It appears as a proliferating mesenchyme above the pancreas. The spleen is one the organs that develops in the dorsal mesogastrium. When the stomach changes its position during development, the spleen is made to move behind the stomach and stays in contact with the left kidney. The spleen is found within the peritoneum of the abdominal cavity thus it is an intraperitoneal organ.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Anatomy (17/25) 68%
Thorax (3/4) 75%
Lower Limb (2/4) 50%
Head & Neck (5/7) 71%
Pelvis (0/1) 0%
Upper Limb (2/3) 67%
Embryology (2/2) 100%
Abdomen (3/4) 75%
Neurology (2/3) 67%
Physiology (2/3) 67%
Passmed