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  • Question 1 - The blood test reports of a 56-year-old female are sent for your review....

    Incorrect

    • The blood test reports of a 56-year-old female are sent for your review. She seems acutely sick and has had multiple infections over the past few months. Her complete blood count report shows neutropenia.

      Which one of the following options is true with regards to neutropenia?

      Your Answer: It is defined as a total neutrophil count of < 0.5 x 10 9 /l

      Correct Answer: It can be caused by both radiotherapy and chemotherapy

      Explanation:

      A total neutrophil count of less than 2 x 109/L is defined as neutropenia. It can be caused by the following:
      1. viral infections
      2. SLE
      3. RA
      4. hypersplenism
      5. chemo- and radiotherapy
      6. vitamin B12 and folate deficiency
      7. drug reactions

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      65.5
      Seconds

  • Question 2 - A patient complains of stomach ache. You see a midline scar in the...

    Incorrect

    • A patient complains of stomach ache. You see a midline scar in the epigastric area when you examine the abdomen. Upon further interrogation, the patient reveals that she had a subtotal gastrectomy for recurring stomach ulcers several years ago. The stomach mucosa secretes a variety of vital compounds, and her ability to secrete some of these molecules has been harmed as a result of his surgery.

      The stomach D-cells secrete which of the following substances?

      Your Answer: Pepsinogen

      Correct Answer: Somatostatin

      Explanation:

      Somatostatin-producing cells present in the pyloric antrum, duodenum, and pancreatic islets are known as D-cells or delta-cells. Somatostatin inhibits gastric acid secretion by acting directly on acid-producing parietal cells in the stomach via a G-protein coupled receptor. By suppressing the release of other hormones such as gastrin, secretin, and histamine, somatostatin can indirectly reduce stomach acid output, slowing the digesting process.
      The table below summarizes the many cell types found in the stomach, as well as the substances secreted by each cell type and the function of the secretion:

      Cell type/ Substance secreted/ Function of secretion
      Parietal cells/ Hydrochloric acid/ Kills microbes and activates pepsinogen
      Parietal cells/ Intrinsic factor/Binds to vitamin B12 and facilitates its absorption
      Chief cells/ Pepsinogen/ Protein digestion
      Chief cells/ Gastric lipase/ Fat digestion
      G-cells/ Gastrin/ Stimulates gastric acid secretion
      Enterochromaffin-like cells (ECL cells) /Histamine/ Stimulates gastric acid secretion
      Mucous-neck cells/ Mucous and bicarbonate/ Protects stomach epithelium from acid
      D-cells/ Somatostatin/ Inhibits gastric acid secretion

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal Physiology
      • Physiology
      42
      Seconds

  • Question 3 - Which type of collagen is initially laid down in early wound healing: ...

    Incorrect

    • Which type of collagen is initially laid down in early wound healing:

      Your Answer: V

      Correct Answer: III

      Explanation:

      Fibroblasts migrate to the wound (about 2 – 5 days after wounding), proliferate and secrete extracellular matrix comprising mainly collagen (type III) and fibronectin to plug the gap.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Wound Healing
      9.3
      Seconds

  • Question 4 - Regarding flucloxacillin, which of the following statements is CORRECT: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding flucloxacillin, which of the following statements is CORRECT:

      Your Answer: It is primarily used in infections caused by Streptococci.

      Correct Answer: It is resistant to bacterial beta-lactamases.

      Explanation:

      Flucloxacillin is unique in that it is beta-lactamase stable and it can be used in infections caused by beta-lactamase producing staphylococci e.g. S. aureus. It is acid-stable and can therefore be given by mouth as well as by injection. It is used first line for treatment of widespread impetigo infection, cellulitis, mastitis, osteomyelitis, septic arthritis, severe erysipelas, severe/spreading otitis externa and infective endocarditis caused by staphylococci. The most common adverse effects of flucloxacillin include nausea, vomiting, skin rash, and diarrhoea. Cholestatic jaundice and hepatitis may occur very rarely, up to two months after treatment with flucloxacillin has been stopped. Administration for more than 2 weeks and increasing age are risk factors. First line treatment of animal and human bites is co-amoxiclav.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infections
      • Pharmacology
      40.3
      Seconds

  • Question 5 - You are giving a teaching session to a group of final year medical...

    Incorrect

    • You are giving a teaching session to a group of final year medical students regarding lower limb neurology. Which of the following clinical features would be expected in an obturator nerve palsy:

      Your Answer: Weakness of hip abduction

      Correct Answer: Weakness of hip adduction

      Explanation:

      Damage to the obturator nerve results in weak adduction of the hip with lateral swinging of the limb during walking due to unopposed abduction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      36.6
      Seconds

  • Question 6 - A patient with a stab wound to the axilla arrives to the emergency...

    Incorrect

    • A patient with a stab wound to the axilla arrives to the emergency department. You notice weakness in elbow flexion and forearm supination during your assessment. Which of these nerves has been affected:

      Your Answer: Axillary nerve

      Correct Answer: Musculocutaneous nerve

      Explanation:

      The musculocutaneous nerve is relatively protected in the axilla, hence injury to it is uncommon. A stab wound in the axilla is the most prevalent source of damage. Because of the activities of the pectoralis major and deltoid, the brachioradialis, and the supinator muscles, arm flexion and forearm flexion and supination are diminished but not completely lost. Over the lateral part of the forearm, there is a lack of sensation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      85.5
      Seconds

  • Question 7 - A 30-year-old man presents with diarrhoea, fever, vomiting, and abdominal cramps. A stool...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man presents with diarrhoea, fever, vomiting, and abdominal cramps. A stool culture was ordered and showed growth of Salmonella spp.

      Among the following serotypes of Salmonella spp., which is considered to be the most common cause of salmonella gastroenteritis?

      Your Answer: Serotype B

      Correct Answer: Serotype D

      Explanation:

      A common cause of gastroenteritis, Salmonella enteritidis, and Salmonella typhi, which causes enteric fever, are both group D. Therefore, serotype D Salmonella species are most commonly associated with gastroenteritis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Specific Pathogen Groups
      36
      Seconds

  • Question 8 - Regarding probability distribution, which of the following statements is CORRECT: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding probability distribution, which of the following statements is CORRECT:

      Your Answer: Distribution of data is always unimodal.

      Correct Answer: In a negative skew, the mass of distribution is concentrated on the right.

      Explanation:

      Distribution of data is usually unimodal (one peak) but may be bimodal (two peaks) or uniform (no peaks, each value equally likely). The normal distribution is a symmetrical bell-shaped curve. The mean, median, and mode of a normal distribution are equal. In a positive skew, the right tail is longer and the mass of distribution is concentrated on the left; mean > median > mode. In a negative skew, the left tail is longer and the mass of distribution is concentrated on the right; mean < median < mode.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Medicine
      • Statistics
      28.8
      Seconds

  • Question 9 - A mother has serious concerns about vaccinating her child. She has read about...

    Correct

    • A mother has serious concerns about vaccinating her child. She has read about many contraindications and risks in the papers and would like to discuss them with you.

      One of these is a valid contraindication to vaccination.

      Your Answer: None of the other options

      Explanation:

      The options listed in this question are not true contraindications to vaccination. Therefore, the correct answer is ‘none of the other options’.
      The contraindications to vaccination are:
      Confirmed anaphylactic reaction to a previous dose of the vaccine or a vaccine containing the same antigens.
      A confirmed anaphylactic reaction to another component in the vaccine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Principles Of Microbiology
      83.5
      Seconds

  • Question 10 - A 59-year-old man presents with increased sweating, weight loss, and palpitations. A...

    Incorrect

    • A 59-year-old man presents with increased sweating, weight loss, and palpitations. A series of blood tests done found a very low TSH level and a diagnosis of hyperthyroidism is made.

      What is the commonest cause of hyperthyroidism?

      Your Answer: Drug-induced hyperthyroidism

      Correct Answer: Graves’ disease

      Explanation:

      Hyperthyroidism results from an excess of circulating thyroid hormones. It is commoner in women, and incidence increases with age.

      Hyperthyroidism can be subclassified into:
      Primary hyperthyroidism – the thyroid gland itself is affected
      Secondary hyperthyroidism – the thyroid gland is stimulated by excessive circulating thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH).

      Graves’ disease is the most common cause of hyperthyroidism (estimates are that it causes between 50 and 80% of all cases).

      Although toxic multinodular goitre, thyroiditis,TSH-secreting pituitary adenoma and drug-induced hyperthyroidism also causes hyperthyroidism, the commonest cause is Graves’ disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine Physiology
      • Physiology
      33.3
      Seconds

  • Question 11 - Regarding the penis, which of the following statements is CORRECT: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding the penis, which of the following statements is CORRECT:

      Your Answer: Sensation to the penis is supplied by the genital branch of the genitofemoral nerve.

      Correct Answer: The corpus spongiosum is ventral in the erect penis.

      Explanation:

      Because the anatomical position of the penis is erect, the paired corpora cavernosa are defined as dorsal in the body of the penis and the single corpus spongiosum as ventral. The nerves and vessels lie superficial to the corpus cavernosum. The urethra lies within the corpus spongiosum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      66.1
      Seconds

  • Question 12 - A 50-year-old man, known hypertensive on amlodipine has been visiting his GP with...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old man, known hypertensive on amlodipine has been visiting his GP with symptoms of headache, tiredness, and muscle weakness. His blood test today shows a low potassium level of 2.8 mmol/L, and a slightly raised sodium level at 147 mmol/L.

      What is the MOST LIKELY diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Conn’s syndrome

      Explanation:

      When there are excessive levels of aldosterone independent of the renin-angiotensin aldosterone axis, primary hyperaldosteronism occurs. Secondary hyperaldosteronism occurs due to high renin levels.

      Causes of primary hyperaldosteronism include:
      Conn’s syndrome
      Adrenal hyperplasia
      Adrenal cancer
      Familial aldosteronism

      Causes of secondary hyperaldosteronism include:
      Renal vasoconstriction
      Oedematous disorders
      Drugs – diuretics
      Obstructive renal artery disease

      Although patients are usually asymptomatic, when clinical features are present, classically hyperaldosteronism presents with:
      Hypokalaemia
      Sodium levels can be normal or slightly raised
      Hypertension
      Metabolic alkalosis
      Less common, clinical features are:
      Lethargy
      Headaches
      Intermittent paraesthesia
      Polyuria and polydipsia
      Muscle weakness (from persistent hypokalaemia)
      Tetany and paralysis (rare)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine Physiology
      • Physiology
      88.8
      Seconds

  • Question 13 - In ventricular myocytes, the plateau phase of the action potential comes about through which...

    Incorrect

    • In ventricular myocytes, the plateau phase of the action potential comes about through which of the following:

      Your Answer: Closing of voltage-gated Na + channels

      Correct Answer: Opening of voltage-gated Ca 2+ channels

      Explanation:

      After the intial upstroke of the action potential, Na+channels and currents rapidly inactivate, but in cardiac myocytes, the initial depolarisation activates voltage-gated Ca2+channels (slow L-type channels, threshold approximately – 45 mV) through which Ca2+floods into the cell. The resulting influx of Ca2+prevents the cell from repolarising and causes a plateau phase, that is maintained for about 250 ms until the L-type channels inactivate. The cardiac AP is thus much longer than that in nerve or skeletal muscle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      22.8
      Seconds

  • Question 14 - An 18-year-old student presents with a 1-week history of sore throat, low grade...

    Incorrect

    • An 18-year-old student presents with a 1-week history of sore throat, low grade fever, and malaise. Upon history taking, she noted that she had a fine rash over her body a week ago that quickly fades. Further examination and observation was done and the presence of mild splenomegaly was noted. Her test shows positive for heterophile antibody test, suspecting a diagnosis of infectious mononucleosis.

      Which of the following characteristics is mostly associated with the diagnosis of infectious mononucleosis?

      Your Answer: Strawberry tongue

      Correct Answer: Atypical lymphocytes

      Explanation:

      Epstein-Barr virus causes infectious mononucleosis which is a clinical entity characterized by sore throat, cervical lymph node enlargement, fatigue and fever.

      It is accompanied by atypical large peripheral blood lymphocytes. These atypical lymphocytes, also known as Downey cells, are actually activated CD8 T lymphocytes, most of which are responding to EBV-infected cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Specific Pathogen Groups
      114.2
      Seconds

  • Question 15 - A 22-year-old student presents with severe headache accompanied with nausea and vomiting. Upon...

    Incorrect

    • A 22-year-old student presents with severe headache accompanied with nausea and vomiting. Upon observation and examination, it was noted that he is febrile and Kernig's sign is positive. A diagnosis of meningitis was suspected and a lumbar puncture was to be performed.

      Which of the following statements regarding meningitis is true?

      Your Answer: The meninges are two layers of protective tissue that envelop the brain and spinal cord

      Correct Answer: The dura mater is the outermost layer

      Explanation:

      Meningitis is defined as the inflammation of the meninges due to an infection caused by a bacteria or a virus. Symptoms usually include stiffness of the neck, headache, and fever.
      There are 3 meningeal layers that surround the spinal cord and they are the dura mater, arachnoid matter, and pia mater.

      The dura mater is the outermost and thickest layer out of all the 3 layers.
      The arachnoid atter is the middle layer, and is very thin.
      The third and deepest meningeal layer is the pia mater that is bound tightly to the surface of the spinal cord.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Central Nervous System
      63.7
      Seconds

  • Question 16 - Which of the following nerves supplies innervation to the extensor hallucis longus? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following nerves supplies innervation to the extensor hallucis longus?

      Your Answer: Deep peroneal nerve

      Explanation:

      Extensor hallucis longus is innervated by the deep fibular nerve (root value L5 and S1).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      54.7
      Seconds

  • Question 17 - Which of the following body location is the appropriate site to apply pressure...

    Correct

    • Which of the following body location is the appropriate site to apply pressure when performing a carotid sinus massage?

      Your Answer: Thyroid cartilage

      Explanation:

      The common carotid artery runs through the neck and divides into internal and external carotid arteries on both sides near the upper thyroid cartilage. In emergency situations, carotid sinus massage is also used to diagnose or treat paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia.

      During the procedure, to maximize access to the carotid artery, the patient is put in a supine position with the neck extended (i.e. elevating the chin away from the chest). The carotid sinus is normally positioned inferior to the angle of the jaw, near the arterial impulse, at the level of the thyroid cartilage. For 5 to 10 seconds, pressure is administered to one carotid sinus.

      Although pulsatile pressure applied in a vigorous circular motion may be more effective, continuous pressure is preferred since it is more reproducible. If the predicted reaction is not obtained, the operation is repeated on the opposite side after a one- to two-minute wait.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head And Neck
      22.4
      Seconds

  • Question 18 - Which of the following tracts must be affected if a patient presents with...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following tracts must be affected if a patient presents with decreased pain and temperature sensation in both lower extremities?

      Your Answer: The corticospinal tracts

      Correct Answer: The lateral spinothalamic tract

      Explanation:

      The main function of the spinothalamic tract is to carry pain and temperature via the lateral part of the pathway and crude touch via the anterior part. The spinothalamic tract pathway is an imperative sensory pathway in human survival because it enables one to move away from noxious stimuli by carrying pain and temperature information from the skin to the thalamus where it is processed and transmitted to the primary sensory cortex. The primary sensory cortex communicates with the primary motor cortex, which lies close to it, to generate rapid movement in response to potentially harmful stimuli. Furthermore, the spinothalamic tract has a role in responding to pruritogens, causing us to itch. Interestingly, itching suppresses the spinothalamic tract neuron response to the histamine effect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Central Nervous System
      54.5
      Seconds

  • Question 19 - You are going to prescribe a NSAID to a 50-year-old male patient for...

    Incorrect

    • You are going to prescribe a NSAID to a 50-year-old male patient for his back pain. Which of the following NSAIDs is least likely to cause gastrointestinal side effects:

      Your Answer: Diclofenac

      Correct Answer: Ibuprofen

      Explanation:

      NSAIDs are associated with serious gastrointestinal irritation and drug-induced ulcers.

      Among the NSAIDs included in the choices, ibuprofen has the lowest risk.

      Piroxicam, ketoprofen, and ketorolac trometamol are associated with the highest risk of serious upper gastrointestinal side effects.

      Indomethacin, diclofenac, and naproxen are associated with an intermediate risk of serious upper gastrointestinal side effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      • Pharmacology
      22.7
      Seconds

  • Question 20 - An 85-year-old woman is brought in from her nursing home. She arrives in...

    Incorrect

    • An 85-year-old woman is brought in from her nursing home. She arrives in the Emergency Department and appears confused. The staff member from the nursing home accompanying her informs you that she takes a water tablet.

      From her past medical history and records, you deduce that the water tablet is a loop diuretic.

      Which of the following parts of a nephron does a loop diuretic act on?

      Your Answer: Proximal convoluted tubule

      Correct Answer: Ascending loop of Henlé

      Explanation:

      Loop diuretics are drugs used to manage and treat fluid overload associated with CHF, liver cirrhosis, and renal disease. The drugs commonly used are:
      Furosemide
      Bumetanide
      Torsemide
      Ethacrynic Acid

      Loop diuretics act on the apical membrane of the thick ascending loop of Henle and inhibit the Na-K-Cl cotransporter. This blocks the reabsorption of sodium and chloride and results in salt-water excretion. This relieves congestion and reduces oedema.

      Other diuretics act on the following part of the nephron:
      1. Thiazide diuretics – Na/Cl co-transporter in the distal convoluted tubule
      2. Osmotic diuretics – PCT and the loop of Henle
      3. Aldosterone antagonists – distal convoluted tubule
      4. Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors – inhibit the carbonic anhydrase and act on proximal tubular cells

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      46.7
      Seconds

  • Question 21 - Swelling of the lips, tongue, and face is observed in a 59-year-old African-American...

    Correct

    • Swelling of the lips, tongue, and face is observed in a 59-year-old African-American woman. In the emergency room, she is given intramuscular adrenaline, but her symptoms do not improve. Her GP recently started her on a new medication.

      Which of the following drugs is most likely to have caused her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Ramipril

      Explanation:

      Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are the most common cause of drug-induced angioedema in the United Kingdom and the United States, owing to their widespread use.

      Angioedema is caused by ACE inhibitors in 0.1 to 0.7 percent of patients, with data indicating a persistent and relatively constant risk year after year. People of African descent have a five-fold higher chance of contracting the disease.

      Swelling of the lips, tongue, or face is the most common symptom, but another symptom is episodic abdominal pain due to intestinal angioedema. Itching and urticaria are noticeably absent.

      The mechanism appears to be activated complement or other pro-inflammatory cytokines like prostaglandins and histamine, which cause rapid vasodilation and oedema.

      Other medications that are less frequently linked to angioedema include:
      Angiotensin-receptor blockers (ARBs)
      Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)
      Bupropion (e.g. Zyban and Wellbutrin)
      Beta-lactam antibiotics
      Statins
      Proton pump inhibitors

      The majority of these reactions are minor and can be treated by stopping the drug and prescribing antihistamines.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      27.8
      Seconds

  • Question 22 - Aside from the inability to extend the leg above the knee, which of...

    Correct

    • Aside from the inability to extend the leg above the knee, which of the following clinical symptoms should you anticipate seeing in a patient who had a pelvic and right leg injury as well as femoral nerve damage?

      Your Answer: Loss of sensation over the anterior thigh

      Explanation:

      The femoral nerve runs down the front of the leg from the pelvis. It gives the front of the thigh and a portion of the lower leg sensation.

      Extension of the leg at the knee joint, flexion of the thigh at the hip are produced by muscles that is primarily innervated by the femoral nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      63.3
      Seconds

  • Question 23 - Aldin is a 24-year-old male patient who arrives at the emergency department diagnosed...

    Incorrect

    • Aldin is a 24-year-old male patient who arrives at the emergency department diagnosed with psittacosis based on his symptoms and history of being a pigeon enthusiast. Which of the following is the causative bacteria of psittacosis?

      Your Answer: Legionella pneumophila

      Correct Answer: Chlamydia psittaci

      Explanation:

      Chlamydia psittaci is a microorganism that is commonly found in birds.

      These bacteria can infect people and cause psittacosis. Psittacosis is an infectious disease that may cause high fever and pneumonia associated with headaches, altered mental state, and hepatosplenomegaly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infections
      • Microbiology
      32.3
      Seconds

  • Question 24 - Intrinsic factor is secreted by which of the following cell types in the...

    Incorrect

    • Intrinsic factor is secreted by which of the following cell types in the stomach:

      Your Answer: Chief cells

      Correct Answer: Parietal cells

      Explanation:

      Intrinsic factor is essential for the absorption of the small amounts of vitamin B12 normally present in the diet from the terminal ileum. The parietal cells of the stomach produce intrinsic factor, and following a gastrectomy, the absorption of vitamin B12 will be markedly reduced, and a deficiency state will exist.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Physiology
      30.3
      Seconds

  • Question 25 - A 59-year-old otherwise well woman presents with a history of polydipsia and...

    Incorrect

    • A 59-year-old otherwise well woman presents with a history of polydipsia and polyuria. There is a past history of kidney stones, and blood tests done reveal the following:

      Na: 147 mmol/L (135-147 mmol/L)
      K: 4.0 mmol/L (3.5-5.5 mmol/L)
      Urea: 7.3 mmol/L (2.0-6.6 mmol/L)
      Creatinine: 126 mmol/L (75-125 mmol/L)
      Fasting blood glucose: 5.0 mmol/L (3.4-5.5 mmol/L)
      Corrected calcium: 3.21 mmol/L (2.05-2.60 mmol/L)
      Phosphate: 0.70 mmol/L (0.8-1.4 mmol/L)
      Parathyroid hormone: 189 ng/L (10-60 ng/L)

      The most likely diagnosis is?

      Your Answer: Secondary hyperparathyroidism

      Correct Answer: Primary hyperparathyroidism

      Explanation:

      ​Primary hyperparathyroidism the commonest cause of hypercalcaemia. It is commonest in women aged 50 to 60.
      The commonest cause of primary hyperparathyroidism is a solitary adenoma of the parathyroid gland (approximately 85% of cases).

      Primary hyperparathyroidism may present with features of hypercalcaemia such as polyuria, polydipsia, renal stones, bone and joint pain, constipation, and psychiatric disorders.

      In primary Hyperparathyroidism:
      PTH is elevated
      Calcium is elevated
      Phosphate is lowered

      In secondary Hyperparathyroidism:
      PTH is elevated
      Calcium is low or low-normal
      Phosphate is raised in CRF

      In tertiary Hyperparathyroidism:
      PTH is elevated
      Calcium is elevated
      Phosphate is lowered in CRF

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine Physiology
      • Physiology
      116.7
      Seconds

  • Question 26 - The functional residual capacity (FRC) will be decreased in which of the following:...

    Incorrect

    • The functional residual capacity (FRC) will be decreased in which of the following:

      Your Answer: Emphysema

      Correct Answer: Pulmonary fibrosis

      Explanation:

      Factors decreasing FRC:
      Restrictive ventilatory defects e.g. pulmonary fibrosis
      Posture – lying supine
      Increased intra-abdominal pressure (e.g. obesity, pregnancy, ascites)
      Reduced muscle tone of diaphragm e.g. muscle relaxants in anaesthesia, neuromuscular disease

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory
      40.3
      Seconds

  • Question 27 - What is the main mechanism of action of dopamine as an inotropic sympathomimetic: ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the main mechanism of action of dopamine as an inotropic sympathomimetic:

      Your Answer: Dopamine receptor agonist

      Correct Answer: Beta1-receptor agonist

      Explanation:

      Dopamine is a neurotransmitter and a metabolic precursor of the catecholamines. It acts on beta1-receptors in cardiac muscle increasing cardiac contractility, and increases renal perfusion by stimulating dopamine receptors in the renal vasculature. This is of benefit in cardiogenic shock where deterioration of renal function is common.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Pharmacology
      18.8
      Seconds

  • Question 28 - You suspected typhoid disease in a patient who had recently returned from South...

    Incorrect

    • You suspected typhoid disease in a patient who had recently returned from South America and presented to the emergency department with fever, constipation, and a rose spot rash. Which of the following antibiotics will be administered to this patient?

      Your Answer: Vancomycin

      Correct Answer: Cefotaxime

      Explanation:

      Typhoid fever, often known as enteric fever, is a potentially fatal multi-systemic sickness caused predominantly by Salmonella enterica serotype typhi and, to a lesser extent, paratyphi A, B, and C.

      Cefotaxime is the first-line treatment for typhoid fever (or ceftriaxone). In cases of mild or moderate sickness caused by multiresistant pathogens, azithromycin is an option. If the bacterium is sensitive, ciprofloxacin is an option.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathogens
      30.6
      Seconds

  • Question 29 - Which of the following is the primary indication for loop diuretics? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is the primary indication for loop diuretics?

      Your Answer: Acute pulmonary oedema

      Explanation:

      Loop diuretics have long been the cornerstone of pulmonary oedema treatment, with furosemide being the most commonly used of these drugs. Premedication with drugs that decrease preload (e.g., nitro-glycerine [NTG]) and afterload (e.g., angiotensin-converting enzyme [ACE] inhibitors) before the administration of loop diuretics can prevent adverse hemodynamic changes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Pharmacology
      12.8
      Seconds

  • Question 30 - What is the mechanism of action of cetirizine: ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the mechanism of action of cetirizine:

      Your Answer: H2-receptor antagonist

      Correct Answer: H1-receptor antagonist

      Explanation:

      Cetirizine is a competitive inhibitor at the H1-receptor (an antihistamine).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      • Respiratory
      19.2
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Haematology (0/1) 0%
Pathology (0/2) 0%
Gastrointestinal Physiology (0/1) 0%
Physiology (1/7) 14%
Wound Healing (0/1) 0%
Infections (0/2) 0%
Pharmacology (2/7) 29%
Anatomy (3/8) 38%
Lower Limb (2/3) 67%
Upper Limb (0/1) 0%
Microbiology (1/5) 20%
Specific Pathogen Groups (0/2) 0%
Evidence Based Medicine (0/1) 0%
Statistics (0/1) 0%
Principles Of Microbiology (1/1) 100%
Endocrine Physiology (1/3) 33%
Abdomen (0/1) 0%
Cardiovascular (1/3) 33%
Central Nervous System (0/2) 0%
Head And Neck (1/1) 100%
Musculoskeletal (0/1) 0%
Cardiovascular Pharmacology (1/2) 50%
Gastrointestinal (0/1) 0%
Respiratory (0/2) 0%
Pathogens (0/1) 0%
Passmed
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