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  • Question 1 - An 82 year old male woke up experiencing incoherent speech - he is...

    Correct

    • An 82 year old male woke up experiencing incoherent speech - he is also finding it difficult to find the right words to explain his thoughts. Doctors have examined him, and everything else appears to be normal. They have also found that his comprehension is good. From the list of options, choose the anatomical site which in this instance, is most likely affected.

      Your Answer: Broca’s Area

      Explanation:

      The combination of good comprehension but poor speech quality in this patient is consistent with damage to the Broca’s area. The Wernicke’s area is responsible for the understanding of speech, and so is not consistent with this patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Geriatrics
      • Medicine
      15
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 75 year old man presented to hospital after suffering a stroke. The...

    Incorrect

    • A 75 year old man presented to hospital after suffering a stroke. The doctor admitted him and advised of the Barthel score index. During rehabilitation, which one of the following limitations are best described by Barthel score index?

      Your Answer: It is laborious and takes a long time to perform

      Correct Answer: Floor and ceiling effects

      Explanation:

      Barthel scoring has floor and ceiling effects which is the most widely recognised limitation. Floor effect means that the patient who is bed bound can score initially low, whereas the ceiling effect shows that despite being bed bound, a patient can achieve a maximum score i.e. 100. The test is easy to perform and correlates well with other prognostic scales.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Geriatrics
      • Medicine
      17
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A son has brought his 72-year-old mother to clinic. He is concerned about...

    Incorrect

    • A son has brought his 72-year-old mother to clinic. He is concerned about her short-term memory problems for the past 10 months. He has to remind her to take her medications and she has had two incidents of falling over in the last 10 months. Which of the following assists in the diagnosis of above condition?

      Your Answer: Loss of control of bladder

      Correct Answer: Progressive loss of function

      Explanation:

      The clinical presentation is dementia. To differentiate Alzheimer disease and vascular dementia, the progressive loss of function is important. Progressive loss of function is usually associated with vascular dementia and rest of the responses are associated with Alzheimer disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Geriatrics
      • Medicine
      114.9
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 70-year-old woman is having trouble in speaking following a stroke. Her limbs...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old woman is having trouble in speaking following a stroke. Her limbs are paralyzed, both left upper and lower limbs. Which anatomical site is most likely affected?

      Your Answer: Internal capsule

      Explanation:

      – The given scenario is typical of lesion in internal capsule. – Memory impairment is caused by a hippocampal lesion, – Impairment of arousal, facial paresis, visual field defect, facial paresis, hemiataxia, and hemispacial neglect are just some of the conditions caused by thalamic lesion. – Brainstem stroke on the other hand causes breathing abnormality, altered consciousness, and blood pressure disorder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Geriatrics
      • Medicine
      12.1
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 65-year-old man, after suffering from a pathological rib fracture, complains of recurrent...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old man, after suffering from a pathological rib fracture, complains of recurrent infection. Bone marrow aspiration revealed a calcium level of 3.9 mmol/l and alkaline phosphatase level of 160u/l. What type of cell would be found in abundance in the marrow spear?

      Your Answer: Plasma cells

      Explanation:

      Multiple myeloma or plasma cell myeloma, is a cancer of plasma cells, responsible for producing antibodies. It often, presents early with no symptoms followed by bone pain and pathological fractures (metastases), raised calcium levels, bleeding, frequent infections, and anaemia. It usually occurs around the age of 61 and is more common in men than women.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Geriatrics
      • Medicine
      41.7
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - An 87-year-old woman had to double up her dosage of morphine 60mg into...

    Incorrect

    • An 87-year-old woman had to double up her dosage of morphine 60mg into 120mg twice a day, in addition to another 10mg oral Morphine 6 times a day. What is the best method of management?

      Your Answer: Change to Oxycodone

      Correct Answer: Subcutaneous morphine infusion

      Explanation:

      Stable dose of Morphine is essential for chronic cases of pain that are non-malignant in origin. Using the SC route avoids having to intravenously cannulate a patient and allows for a continuous infusion of drugs over a calculated period of time providing constant dosing A significant advantage is that plasma levels of a drug are much more stable, and appropriate symptom control can be achieved without the toxic effects of the peaks and troughs resulting from episodic drug administration.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Geriatrics
      • Medicine
      111.6
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - An 86 year old woman accidentally inhaled her hearing aid due to her...

    Incorrect

    • An 86 year old woman accidentally inhaled her hearing aid due to her advanced Alzheimer's dementia. Upon clinical examination, her respiratory rate is found to be 35, and thus a bronchoscopy is recommended. According to which of the following would you obtain consent for this patient?

      Your Answer: Relatives/next of kin will have to consent for the patient

      Correct Answer: The procedure does not require a written consent

      Explanation:

      This is an emergency case regarding a patient with impaired cognitive functioning. This is why the procedure does not require a written consent. In any other case where the patient has a normal mental capacity, the consent would be obtained as an informed written consent. In this case however, the suggested procedure is almost a matter of life and death, the doctor being required to act on behalf of the patient to her optimal advantage. Under English law no other person can consent to treatment on behalf of an adult, though it is desirable that next of kin are consulted before treating an adult without consent. Recent legislation gives legal authority to people appointed by the patient, or by the state, or a relative or carer, to consent (or refuse) on behalf of the patient. A mini-mental score may not adequately identify those unable to give consent.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Geriatrics
      • Medicine
      31.7
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 68 year old male presented with swelling in the lower pole of...

    Correct

    • A 68 year old male presented with swelling in the lower pole of his parotid gland. It is revealed that this has been ongoing for the past 10 years. Upon examination, the swelling is firm in consistency. From the list of options, choose the most probable diagnosis for this patient.

      Your Answer: Pleomorphic adenoma

      Explanation:

      A pleomorphic adenoma is also called a benign mixed tumour – this is the most common tumour of the parotid gland. It also causes over a third of all submandibular tumours. This type of a tumour is slow-growing and has no symptoms, which means it has great malignant potentiality.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Geriatrics
      • Medicine
      20.6
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 71-year-old woman residing in a nursing home for a couple of years...

    Incorrect

    • A 71-year-old woman residing in a nursing home for a couple of years complains of drooling of saliva and sudden difficulty in swallowing while eating. She is a known hypertensive on treatment. What would be your next step?

      Your Answer: Ba swallow

      Correct Answer: Endoscopy

      Explanation:

      Dysphagia or difficulty in swallowing. Endoscopy allows for visual examination of the oesophagus and is indicated in patients with dysphagia to determine the underlying aetiology, exclude malignant and premalignant conditions, assess the need for therapy, and perform therapy including dilation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Geriatrics
      • Medicine
      22.9
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 79-year-old woman has a waddling gait. History reveals enuresis and change in...

    Correct

    • A 79-year-old woman has a waddling gait. History reveals enuresis and change in behaviour. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Normal pressure hydrocephalus

      Explanation:

      The waddling gait and behaviour change are attributes of normal pressure hydrocephalus along with loss of bladder control which commonly happens with elder age.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Geriatrics
      • Medicine
      10.7
      Seconds

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Geriatrics (5/10) 50%
Medicine (5/10) 50%
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