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  • Question 1 - A 10-year-old girl presented with a sore throat for the past three days....

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old girl presented with a sore throat for the past three days. She was taking ibuprofen and paracetamol over the counter for the pain. She was started on phenoxymethylpenicillin V following a diagnosis of tonsillitis.The next day she presents with a painful rash and feels unwell. On examination, she has extensive papular and plaque lesions. On palpation the papules desquamate. What is this sign called?

      Your Answer: Cullen's sign

      Correct Answer: Nikolskys sign

      Explanation:

      The sign being elicited in this patient is Nikolsky’s sign. Based on the findings, the patient is suffering from toxic epidermal necrolysis.Nikolskys sign: Rubbing the skin causes exfoliation of the outer layer and usually blistering within a few minutes. Other options:- Cullen’s sign: Periumbilical bruising due to intra-abdominal haemorrhage. If the discolouration is seen in the flanks, it is called Cullen’s sign. Underlying pathology includes ruptured ectopic pregnancy and haemorrhagic pancreatitis. – Forscheimer’s sign: It is a fleeting exanthem that is seen as small, red spots (petechiae) on the soft palate. Associated with rubella and glandular fever. Gorlin’s sign: It is the ability to touch the tip of the nose with the tongue. Increased incidence in children with connective tissue disorder, e.g. Ehler Danlos syndrome. – Auspitzs sign: These are small bleeding points are left behind when psoriatic scales are lifted off. It is not a very sensitive or specific sign. Other cutaneous signs include:- Hair collar sign: It is a collar of hypertrichosis around an area of cranial dysraphism.- Hertoghe’s sign (Queen Anne’s sign): It is the loss of lateral one-third of eye-brows. It is associated with numerous conditions, including lupus, HIV, and hypothyroidism. – Dariers sign: It is the swelling, itching and erythema that occurs after stroking skin lesions of a patient with systemic mastocytosis or urticarial pigmentosa. – Dermatographism: Rubbing the skin causes a raised, urticarial lesion. – Koebners phenomenon: It is the appearance of new skin lesions in areas of trauma.- Breakfast, lunch, and dinner sign: Linear pathway of a group of three to five papules caused by the common bed bug, Cimex lectularius. – Buttonhole sign: In type 1 neurofibromatosis, neurofibromas can be invaginated with the finger back into the subcutis. The nodule will reappear after the release of pressure. The sign is also positive for dermatofibromas. – Crowe’s sign: Axillary freckling seen in type I neurofibromatosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      479.1
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 15-year-old girl has a 5-day history of fever, general malaise and headache...

    Correct

    • A 15-year-old girl has a 5-day history of fever, general malaise and headache and has developed diffuse raised oedematous papules. These lesions are typical of erythema multiforme. Which one of the following is true?

      Your Answer: The lesions will heal without scarring

      Explanation:

      Erythema multiforme lesions typically heal without scarring. Other options:- In erythema multiforme, lesions are typically symmetrical and acral, i.e. on the hands, feet and limbs. – HSV is a common cause of erythema multiforme in children, accounting for at least 50% of cases| the lesions typically have damaged skin in the centre and are dusky and bullous (in contrast to urticaria, where the centre of the lesion is normal).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      76
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Children with eczema herpeticum exhibit which of the following features? ...

    Incorrect

    • Children with eczema herpeticum exhibit which of the following features?

      Your Answer: The blisters are polymorphic

      Correct Answer: Atopic children have reduced immunity to the herpes simplex virus

      Explanation:

      Eczema herpeticum is a form of Kaposi varicelliform eruption, characterized by extensive vesicular skin eruptions that arise from a pre-existing skin condition, usually atopic dermatitis. The most common pathogen is the herpes simplex virus type 1, which has a higher propensity of attacking the epidermis already damaged by atopic dermatitis. The incubation period of the illness is 5-14 days. The eruption is initially small, monomorphic, dome-shaped papulovesicles that rupture to form tiny punched-out ulcers. It is diagnosed by taking viral swabs for culture.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      105.4
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 9-year-old girl complains of perioral blisters and a burning sensation of her...

    Incorrect

    • A 9-year-old girl complains of perioral blisters and a burning sensation of her face. Some of the blisters are crusted and some are weeping. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Shingles

      Correct Answer: Impetigo

      Explanation:

      Impetigo appears more commonly on the face than other exposed areas like the limbs. Its blisters are clustered and may have a fluid discharge.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      77.6
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 16-month-old girl with eczema is on the following treatment regimen: Oilatum in...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-month-old girl with eczema is on the following treatment regimen: Oilatum in baths| Baby' shampoo and soap and E45 cream to affected areas four times daily. Additionally, the mother uses 'non-biological' washing powder.The child often scratches the affected areas, sometimes even in her sleep. On examination, her skin is erythematous, excoriated, and lichenified over the knees, thighs, and flexor surfaces of the elbows.Which of the following would be the most appropriate next step in the management of this child?

      Your Answer: Use 1% hydrocortisone to affected areas and continue with other measures

      Correct Answer: Use E45 cream instead of soap| advise using a greasier emollient and try an antihistamine at night

      Explanation:

      The most appropriate next step in the management of this patient would be to use E45 cream instead of soap. Using a greasier emollient and an antihistamine at night can also be trialled..Management of eczema:Treatment of eczema can be problematic, and thus, parents should be advised regarding simple, everyday measures that can relieve the symptoms. These include:- Using non-biological washing powder- Wearing cotton clothes as opposed to artificial fibres- Avoiding the use of soaps or shampoos and using E45 Cream as an alternative.- Additional use of bath oil (e.g. Oilatum) is found to be beneficial.- Regular emollient use is recommended and essential. The aim is to keep the skin from feeling dry at any time of day. Sedating with older types of antihistamines at night does not help to reduce itching, but when used in large doses, they occasionally provide a sedative effect which may improve sleep. If all these measures are in use, but the eczema is still not controlled, the escalation of treatment would be appropriate. Note: There is no evidence for the benefit of topical antibiotics.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      184.7
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Which of the following does not cause a scaly scalp? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following does not cause a scaly scalp?

      Your Answer: Cutaneous lupus erythematous

      Explanation:

      Pityriasis amiantacea: This condition is characterized by thick, asbestos-like scales on the scalp and is often associated with psoriasis or seborrheic dermatitis.

      Infantile seborrhoeic dermatitis: Also known as cradle cap, this condition causes greasy, yellowish scales on the scalp.

      Tinea capitis: A fungal infection of the scalp that leads to scaling, hair loss, and sometimes redness and swelling.

      Cutaneous lupus erythematosus: While lupus can cause skin lesions, it is less commonly associated with a scaly scalp compared to the other conditions listed. It can cause hair loss and erythema, but significant scaling is not a primary feature.

      Scalp psoriasis: This condition is well-known for causing thick, silvery scales on the scalp

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      48.2
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Erythema multiforme is NOT triggered by which of the given infectious diseases? ...

    Correct

    • Erythema multiforme is NOT triggered by which of the given infectious diseases?

      Your Answer: Norovirus

      Explanation:

      Certain infections and medications cause characteristic skin lesions, which are the result of hypersensitivity reactions to these agents. A skin rash characterized by the eruption of macules, papules, and target-like circular lesions is referred to as erythema multiforme. The target or iris lesions appear rounded with a red centre surrounded by a pale ring, which in turn is surrounded by a dark red outer ring. These are acute and self-limiting with a propensity for distal extremities. The most common infectious cause is the infection with herpes simplex virus 1 and 2 to a lesser extent. Other notable infectious causes of erythema multiforme include Mycoplasma pneumoniae, cytomegalovirus, HIV, hepatitis c virus, varicella zoster virus, adenovirus, and some fungal infections. Norovirus infection has not been implicated in the aetiology of erythema multiforme.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      91.5
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 4 year old child was brought in by his mother with complaints...

    Incorrect

    • A 4 year old child was brought in by his mother with complaints of vesicular eruption over his palms, soles and oral mucosa for the last 5 days. He was slightly febrile. There were no other signs. The most likely causative organism in this case would be?

      Your Answer: Cytomegalovirus

      Correct Answer: Coxsackie

      Explanation:

      This patient is most likely suffering from hand, foot mouth disease which is caused by coxsackie virus A16. Its incubation period ranges from 5-7 days and only symptomatic treatment is required.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      94.8
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 5 year old girl presents with a wart-like lesion on her thigh...

    Incorrect

    • A 5 year old girl presents with a wart-like lesion on her thigh and a hyperpigmented, rhabdoid whorl rash. She has a history of seizures since she was three years old and warts similar to the one she has now. Family history reveals the mother had two in utero stillbirths. The doctor observes small vesicles on the anterior surface of her left wrist. Other findings include mild scoliosis, thin wiry hair, and peg-shaped teeth. Her gait is normal and she is otherwise healthy. Ruth Griffiths score reveals a reduced sub quotient in terms of social skills, performance, and language and hearing skills. The doctor takes a biopsy sample which shows many intradermal eosinophils in the absence of inflammatory cells. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Herpes simplex infection

      Correct Answer: Incontinentia pigmenti

      Explanation:

      Incontinentia pigmenti is a genetic condition that affects females more than males. It usually manifests in the skin but can affect other parts of the body as well. It presents with a blistering rash that may evolve into wart-like growths. Hyperpigmentation and hair loss are also present, as well as eye and teeth abnormalities. Clinically there are three phases: 1- the bullous phase – crops of vesicles appear in the first 2 weeks of life|2- the papular phase – warty papules that flatten out over the skin| and 3- the hyperpigmented phase – pigmentary changes in the form of whorls and streaks that are hypo- and hyperpigmented in nature.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      171.3
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Which of the following disorders are NOT associated with hypertrichosis? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following disorders are NOT associated with hypertrichosis?

      Your Answer: Psoriasis

      Explanation:

      Among the given options, psoriasis is not associated with hypertrichosis.The causes of hypertrichosis include:- Drugs: minoxidil, ciclosporin, and diazoxide.- Congenital hypertrichosis lanuginosa and congenital hypertrichosis terminalis.- Porphyria cutanea tarda- Anorexia nervosa

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      80.2
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - An 18-year-old female suffering from acne vulgaris has been started on isotretinoin. Regarding...

    Correct

    • An 18-year-old female suffering from acne vulgaris has been started on isotretinoin. Regarding this treatment, which of the following statements is the most applicable?

      Your Answer: Pregnancy should be avoided during and 1 month after treatment

      Explanation:

      It is recommended that a woman wait one month after stopping isotretinoin before trying to become pregnant. Usually, isotretinoin is no longer found in a woman’s blood 4-5 days after the last dose and most of its by-products should be gone within 10 days after the last dose.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      58.5
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 15-year-old girl presented with generalised excessive hair growth, especially on her limbs....

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old girl presented with generalised excessive hair growth, especially on her limbs. Which one of the following is the most likely cause for her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Ciclosporin was started to control her eczema 3 months ago

      Correct Answer: She is on phenytoin to control seizures

      Explanation:

      The patient’s symptoms are most likely due to phenytoin intake.Note:Hypertrichosis occurs in 5–12% of patients on phenytoin and is most prominent on the extremities. Other options:- Hypertrichosis is the excess hair growth, whereas hirsutism is the development of male-pattern-dependent hair growth, as seen in polycystic ovarian syndrome. – A Becker’s naevus is associated with localised hypertrichosis in the naevus. – Cyclosporine intake can typically lead to diffuse hair growth that begins within 2–4 weeks of starting the drug. – Hereditary gingival fibromatosis is associated with variable hypertrichosis occurring on the eyebrows, face, limbs and mid-back.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      70.8
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 10-year-old newly diagnosed epileptic boy presents with pyrexia and a confluent, blistering...

    Correct

    • A 10-year-old newly diagnosed epileptic boy presents with pyrexia and a confluent, blistering rash affecting his torso, arms, and legs. On examination, there are lesions on his mucous membranes also. On palpating the skin overlying the medial malleolus, it shears off with minimal force. What is the sign being elicited?

      Your Answer: Nikolsky's sign

      Explanation:

      The sign being elicited in this patient is Nikolsky’s sign. Based on the findings, the patient is suffering from toxic epidermal necrolysis.Nikolskys sign: Rubbing the skin causes exfoliation of the outer layer and usually blistering within a few minutes. Other options:- Cullen’s sign: Periumbilical bruising due to intra-abdominal haemorrhage. If the discolouration is seen in the flanks, it is called Cullen’s sign. Underlying pathology includes ruptured ectopic pregnancy and haemorrhagic pancreatitis. – Forscheimer’s sign: It is a fleeting exanthem that is seen as small, red spots (petechiae) on the soft palate. Associated with rubella and glandular fever. Gorlin’s sign: It is the ability to touch the tip of the nose with the tongue. Increased incidence in children with connective tissue disorders, e.g. Ehler Danlos syndrome. – Auspitzs sign: These are small bleeding points left behind when psoriatic scales are lifted off. It is not a very sensitive or specific sign. Other cutaneous signs include:- Hair collar sign: It is a collar of hypertrichosis around an area of cranial dysraphism.- Hertoghe’s sign (Queen Anne’s sign): It is the loss of lateral one-third of eye-brows. It is associated with numerous conditions, including lupus, HIV, and hypothyroidism. – Dariers sign: It is the swelling, itching and erythema that occurs after stroking skin lesions of a patient with systemic mastocytosis or urticarial pigmentosa. – Dermatographism: Rubbing the skin causes a raised, urticarial lesion. – Koebners phenomenon: It is the appearance of new skin lesions in areas of trauma.- Breakfast, lunch, and dinner sign: Linear pathway of a group of three to five papules caused by the common bed bug, Cimex lectularius. – Buttonhole sign: In type 1 neurofibromatosis, neurofibromas can be invaginated with the finger back into the subcutis. The nodule will reappear after the release of pressure. The sign is also positive for dermatofibromas. – Crowe’s sign: Axillary freckling seen in type I neurofibromatosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      113
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 16-year-old boy is scheduled for a repair of an inguinal hernia. Which...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old boy is scheduled for a repair of an inguinal hernia. Which of the following structures must be divided to gain access to the inguinal canal?

      Your Answer: Transversalis fascia

      Correct Answer: External oblique aponeurosis

      Explanation:

      External oblique forms the outermost muscle of the three muscles comprising the anterolateral aspect of the abdominal wall. Its aponeurosis comprises the anterior wall of the inguinal canal.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      50.2
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - What is the prevalence of atopic eczema in children? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the prevalence of atopic eczema in children?

      Your Answer: 2-5%

      Correct Answer: 15-20%

      Explanation:

      Atopic dermatitis (AD), also called atopic eczema, is a common chronic or recurrent inflammatory skin disease and affects 15-20% of children and 1-3% of adults worldwide. It is characterized by acute flare-ups of eczematous pruritic lesions over dry skin.The incidence has increased by 2- to 3-fold during the past decades in industrialized countries.Some of the most valuable AD prevalence and trend data have come from the International Study of Asthma and Allergies in Childhood (ISAAC). This is the biggest (close to 2 million children in 100 countries) and only allergy study that has taken a truly global approach. The strength of the study is the use of a uniformly validated methodology allowing a direct comparison of results between paediatric populations all over the world (http://isaac.auckland.ac.nz/index.html).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      89.7
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 5 year old girl presents with widespread, itchy, excoriated papules that appeared...

    Incorrect

    • A 5 year old girl presents with widespread, itchy, excoriated papules that appeared three months ago. They are symmetrically distributed and more profound on the extensor surfaces of the elbows and knees. The papules are present on the trunk as well but are less remarkable. She doesn’t have it anywhere else on her body and seems to be in a good health. The itchiness results in the girl to often scratching and popping the fluid-filled blisters that are present. There is no family history of atopy or other skin conditions. Which of the following is accurate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Coeliac antibodies should be measured

      Explanation:

      This is the clinical picture of dermatitis herpetiformis associated with gluten-sensitive enteropathy. To establish the diagnosis, you should measure the coeliac antibodies. Darrier’s sign (where the skin urticates when it is stroked) is positive in urticaria pigmentosa.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Which is not a variation of lichen planus? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which is not a variation of lichen planus?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sclerotic

      Explanation:

      The clinical presentation of lichen planus has several variations, as follows:- Hypertrophic lichen planus- Atrophic lichen planus- Erosive/ulcerative lichen planus- Follicular lichen planus (lichen planopilaris)- Annular lichen planus- Linear lichen planus- Vesicular and bullous lichen planus- Actinic lichen planus- Lichen planus pigmentosus- Lichen planus pemphigoides

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Which of the following conditions are associated with erythema migrans? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following conditions are associated with erythema migrans?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lyme disease

      Explanation:

      Erythema Migrans is associated with Lyme disease, a tic transmitted infection caused by the spirochete Borrelia Burgdorferi. The rash usually appears at the bite site after 7 to 10 days. It is flat or slightly raised and migrates as the name suggests. Streptococcal throat infection and Crohn’s disease are both associated with erythema nodosum.Herpes simplex and Rheumatic fever may present with Erythema Multiforme and Erythema Marginatum respectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 16-year-old girl presents to the dermatologist due to an appearance of an...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old girl presents to the dermatologist due to an appearance of an odd patch of skin on her left thigh which has developed over a period of two weeks. Physical examination reveals a firm, slightly indurated pale area of skin with an erythematous border on the upper thigh. the lesion has a glazed appearance and is rather atrophic. From the options provided below, which one is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Morphoea

      Explanation:

      Morphea, also known as localized scleroderma, is a disorder characterized by excessive collagen deposition leading to thickening of the dermis, subcutaneous tissues, or both. Morphea is classified into circumscribed, generalized, linear, and pansclerotic subtypes according to the clinical presentation and depth of tissue involvement. Unlike systemic sclerosis, morphea lacks features such as sclerodactyly, Raynaud phenomenon, nailfold capillary changes, telangiectasias, and progressive internal organ involvement. Morphea can present with extracutaneous manifestations, including fever, lymphadenopathy, arthralgias, fatigue, central nervous system involvement, as well as laboratory abnormalities, including eosinophilia, polyclonal hypergammaglobulinemia, and positive antinuclear antibodies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Which is the most accurate statement regarding scabies? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which is the most accurate statement regarding scabies?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Positive mineral oil mount is diagnostic

      Explanation:

      The diagnosis of scabies can often be made clinically in patients with a pruritic rash and characteristic linear burrows. Definitive testing relies on the identification of mites or their eggs, eggshell fragments, or scybala. This is best undertaken by placing a drop of mineral oil directly over the burrow on the skin and then superficially scraping longitudinally and laterally across the skin with a scalpel blade. (Avoid causing bleeding.) Scraping 15 or more burrows often produces only 1 or 2 eggs or mites, except in a case of crusted scabies, in which many mites will be present. The sample is placed on a microscope slide and examined under low and high power. Potassium hydroxide should not be used, since it can dissolve mite pellets. Failure to find mites is common and does not rule out the diagnosis of scabies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      0
      Seconds

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Dermatology (6/15) 40%
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