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Question 1
Correct
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A 27-year-old female G1P1 presents with her husband because she has not been breastfeeding her baby 24 hours though she had previously stated she intended exclusive breastfeeding for the first 3 months. She feels sad most of the time and her mood has been very low for the past 2 weeks, she has trouble sleeping at night and feels tired all day. She complains that her husband doesn’t seem to know how to help. For the past 24 hours she feels like she is not fit to be a mother and doesn’t want to feed the baby anymore. She has been frightened by thoughts to harm herself and the baby. Her baby is 7 weeks old.
In addition to antidepressant medication, which of the following treatment is most appropriate for this patient?Your Answer: Electroconvulsive therapy
Explanation:This patient presents because of significant mood changes since she gave birth to her child: she is sad most of times and she is having guilt feelings about her adequacy for motherhood- She is also complaining of insomnia, tiredness, and even some suicidal ideation. These symptoms are highly suggestive postpartum depression. This should be differentiated from postpartum blues, which usually present within the first 2 weeks and last for few days. This patient’s symptoms started 5 weeks postpartum. Postpartum depression usually presents within the first 6 weeks to the first year postpartum.
Postpartum depression is the most common complication of childbearing and affects the mother, the child, and relationship with the partner. It is diagnosed the same way as major depressive disorder in other patients. Since untreated postpartum depression can have long-term effects on the mother and the child, appropriate therapy should be undertaken as soon as possible- Antidepressant medications such as sertraline can be used to treat postpartum depression. In a patient who has suicidal ideation, electroconvulsive therapy has a more rapid and effective action than medication and should be considered in these patients.
→ Cognitive behavioural therapy is effective in women with mild to moderate postpartum depression; it would not be a good choice in this patient with suicidal ideation and at risk of harming the baby.
→ Estrogen therapy used alone or in combination with antidepressant, has been shown to significantly reduce the symptoms of postpartum depression; however, it would not be the most appropriate choice in a patient with suicidal ideation.
→ Peer support has shown equivocal results in various studies even though most postpartum patients report that lacking an intimate friend or confidant or facing social isolation are factors leading to depression.
→ Non-directive counselling also known as ”listening visits“ has been found to be effective in postpartum patients, though the studies that were conducted are deemed to be of small sample and larger studies still need to be done to validate these findings. It would not be an appropriate choice for this patient with suicidal ideation. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 2
Correct
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A pregnant woman with a history of osteoarthritis presents to her antenatal clinic. She is complaining of restricted joint movement and severe pain in her joints. Choose the most appropriate medication for her from the list below.
Your Answer: Paracetamol
Explanation:Paracetamol is safe to take during pregnancy and has shown no harm to unborn children during studies. It is the treatment of choice for mild to moderate pain during pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 3
Correct
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A 37-year-old primigravid woman is admitted to labor unit at 39 weeks of gestation, due to regular uterine contractions. Her cervix is 8 cm dilated and 100% effaced, with the fetus’ vertex at +1 station. Initially the fetal heart rate was 150 bpm, as the labor progressed, it falls to 80 bpm without any changes in the mother’s general condition.
Which among the following options would be the best next step in management of this case?Your Answer: Cardiotocography
Explanation:Bradycardia of <100 bpm for more than 5 minutes or <80 for more than 3 minutes is always considered abnormal. The given case describes fetal bradycardia detected on fetal heart auscultation and the most common causes for severe bradycardia are prolonged cord compression, cord prolapse, epidural and spinal anesthesia, maternal seizures and rapid fetal descent. Immediate management including identification of any reversible causes for the abnormality and initiation of appropriate actions like maternal repositioning, correction of maternal hypotension, rehydration with intravenous fluid, cessation of oxytocin, tocolysis for excessive uterine activity, and initiation or maintenance of continuous CTG should be considered in clinical situations where abnormal fetal heart rate patterns are noticed. Consideration of further fetal evaluation and delivery if a significant abnormality persists are very important. The next step in this scenario where the baby is in 1+ station, with an abnormal fetal heart rate detected on auscultation would be to perform a confirmatory cardiotocography (CTG) and if the CTG findings confirm the condition despite initial measures obtained, prompt action should be taken. Cord compression or prolapse should come on the top of the differential diagnoses list as the the mother shows normal general conditions, but since the cervix is 8 cm dilated, 100% effaced and the fetal head is already engaged, cord prolapse would be unlikely; therefore, repeating vaginal exam is not as important as confirmatory CTG. However a vaginal exam should be done, if the scenario indicates any possibility of cord prolapse, to exclude cord compression or prolapse. NOTE– In cases of severe prolonged bradycardia, immediate delivery is recommended, if the cause cannot be identified and corrected.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old primigravida female presents to the emergency department at full term.
6 hours ago, she spontaneously began labour. The membranes ruptured two hours ago and the liquor was stained with meconium.
On cardiotocography (CTG) was conducted and it showed some intermittent late decelerations, from 140 to 110 beats/min.
On vaginal examination, her cervix id 5 cm dilated. The foetus is in cephalic presentation, in the left occipitotransverse (LOT) position, with the bony head at the level of the ischial spines (IS).
Due to the deceleration pattern, a fetal scalp pH estimation was performed and the pH was measured at 7.32.
An hour later, the CTG showed the following pattern over a period of 30 minutes:
Baseline 140/min
Baseline variability 1/min
Accelerations None evident
Decelerations Two decelerations were evident, with the heart rate falling to 80/min, and with each lasting 4 minutes
Another vaginal examination is conducted and her cervix is now 8cm dilated, but otherwise unchanged from one hour previously.
What would be the next best line management?Your Answer: Allow labour to proceed with continuous CTG evaluation.
Correct Answer: Immediate delivery by Caesarean section.
Explanation:The next best line of management is immediate delivery via Caesarean section ( C section).
This is because of the change in cardiotocography (CTG). The pattern became much more severe with a virtual lack of short-term variability and prolonged decelerations. These changes indicate the necessity for an immediate C section as the cervix is not fully dilated.
As immediate delivery is indicated, another pH assessment is unnecessary as it would delay delivery and increase the likelihood of fetal hypoxia.
Delivery by ventose, in a primigravida where the cervix is only 8cm dilated is not indicated as it would allow the labour to proceed or augmenting with Syntocinon.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 34 year old female presents to the ob-gyn for a regular antenatal visit. Her previous pregnancy was complicated by pre-eclampsia and later eclampsia. What are the chances of her pre-eclampsia recurring in a later pregnancy?
Your Answer: The risk is 1 in 8 (12.5%)
Correct Answer:
Explanation:Research suggests the risk of having preeclampsia again is approximately 20%, however experts cite a range from 5% to 80% depending on when you had it in a prior pregnancy, how severe it was, and additional risk factors you may have. If you had preeclampsia during your first pregnancy, you may get it again. HELLP is related to preeclampsia and about 4 to 12 percent of women diagnosed with preeclampsia develop HELLP. HELLP syndrome can also cause complications in pregnancy, and if you had HELLP in a previous pregnancy, regardless of the time of onset, you have a greater risk for developing it in future pregnancies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 6
Correct
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A 32-year-old woman, at 37 weeks of gestation, presents to the emergency department due to sudden onset of severe abdominal pain with vaginal bleeding of approximately 1200 cc and cessation of contractions after 18 hours of active pushing at home. Her pregnancy has been uneventful until the event.
On examination, patient is conscious and pale, with a blood pressure of 70/45 mm of Hg and pulse rate of 115 bpm. Abdomen is found to be irregularly distended with shifting dullness and fluid thrill. Fetal heart sounds are not audible.
Which among of the following will most likely be her diagnosis?Your Answer: Uterine rupture
Explanation:The given case where the patient presents with sudden abdominal pain, cessation of uterine contraction and the urge to push along with vaginal bleeding is typical for uterine rupture. Examination shows a decreased or lost fetal heart rate, along with signs of fluid collection including fluid thrill and shifting dullness due to the entry of blood into the peritoneal cavity.
Other common manifestations of uterine rupture include:
– Loss of the station of the fetal presenting part
– Vaginal bleeding which is not be proportionate to the hemodynamic status
-Maternal tachycardia and hypotension ranging from subtle to severer shock
– Uterine tenderness
– Change in uterine shape and contour
– Easily palpable fetal parts
– No fetal presentation on vaginal examination
– Hematuria if the rupture extends to the bladder
Anterior lower transverse segment is the most common site of spontaneous uterine rupture.Placenta previa usually presents as painless vaginal bleeding, which rules it out as the diagnosis in given case.
Vaginal bleeding with a tender and tense uterus is the presentation in placental abruption, also contrary to uterine rupture, uterine contractions will continue in case of placental abruption.
Cervical laceration can be a possibility, but in such cases more amount of vaginal blood loss was expected in this patient with hemodynamic instability. Also symptoms like deformed uterus, abdominal distention and cessation of contractions are inconsistent with cervical laceration.
Excessive generation of thrombin and fibrin in the circulating blood results in Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) which leads to increased platelets aggregation and consumption of coagulation factors resulting in consequent bleeding at one site and thromboembolism at another. Placental abruption and retained products of conception in the uterine cavity are the most common obstetric causes of DIC. The condition will not fit as diagnosis in this clinical scenario.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 7
Incorrect
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Which of the following is the most likely anaesthetic or analgesic causing reduced variability on cardiotocograph?
Your Answer: Spinal anaesthetic
Correct Answer: Intramuscular pethidine
Explanation:Opiates and spinal anaesthetics reduce the variability of a CTG. Including some antihypertensives like labetalol and alpha methyl dopa.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 8
Correct
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A 26-year-old nulliparous woman admitted for term pregnancy with spontaneous labour shows no changes after a six-hour observation period despite membrane rupture, syntocinon infusion, and epidural anaesthesia. Pelvic examination shows failure of the cervix to dilate beyond 4cm and fetal head palpated at level of ischial spine (IS). The patient is diagnosed with obstructed labour.
Which of the following clinical features is mostly associated with this condition?
Your Answer: There is 4crn of head palpable abdominally.
Explanation:The most consistent finding in obstructed labour is a 4cm head that is palpable on the abdomen. The bony part is usually palpated at the level of the ischial spine on pelvic examination.
When prolonged labour is suspected, a pelvic vaginal examination helps to differentiate obstructed labour from inefficient/incoordinate labour.Findings in a pelvic examination:
Obstructed labour
moulding of fetal head ++
caput formation on the fetal head ++
cervical oedema – anterior lip oedema
fetal tachycardia ++
station of the head (relation to lowest part of ischial spines) – just at or above the IS
amount of head palpable above the pelvic brim when the lowest point of the head is at the IS – > 2 finger breadths (FB)Inefficient or incoordinate labour
moulding of fetal head usually none
caput formation on fetal head +
absent cervical oedema
fetal tachycardia +
station of the head (relation to lowest part of ischial spines) – can be above or below IS
amount of head palpable above the pelvic brim when the lowest point of the head is at the IS – < 1 finger breadth (FB). -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 9
Correct
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A 24-year-old primigravida at 16 weeks of gestation, presented with a history of vaginal pressure, vaginal spotting and lower back pain.
Transvaginal ultrasound finding shows cervical shortening to 2 cm, cervical dilation, and protrusion of fetal membranes into the cervical canal.
Which among the following risk factors is not related to the development of this condition?Your Answer: Alcohol abuse
Explanation:This woman has developed non-specific symptoms of cervical insufficiency, is a painless dilation of cervix resulting in the delivery of a live fetus during the 2nd trimester or premature delivery.
The following has been identified as the risk factors associated with increased incidence of cervical insufficiency:
– Congenital disorders of collagen synthesis like Ehlers-Danlos syndrome.
– Prior cone biopsies.
– Prior deep cervical lacerations, which is secondary to vaginal or cesarean delivery.
-Müllerian duct defects like bicornuate or septate uterus.
– More than three prior fetal losses during the 2nd trimesterFrom the given options, alcohol abuse is the only one not associated with increased incidence of cervical insufficiency.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old woman was admitted to the maternity unit of a hospital due to early labour. She is considered healthy and has experienced an uncomplicated pregnancy. She asked a question regarding fetal monitoring during labour and mentioned that she has heard about cardio tocography (CTG) being helpful for assessing the baby's wellbeing and in preventing fetal problems.
Which of the following is considered the most appropriate advice to give in counselling regarding the use of CTG as a predictor of fetal outcome and satisfactory labour compared with intermittent auscultation and whether CTG monitoring is able to reduce the risk of neonatal developmental abnormalities?Your Answer: Compared to intermittent auscultation, CTG is superior in monitoring the baby's wellbeing
Correct Answer: There is no evidence to support admission CTG
Explanation:Continuous CTG produces a paper recording of the baby’s heart rate and the mother’s labour contractions. Although continuous CTG provides a written record, mothers cannot move freely during labour, change positions easily, or use a birthing pool to help with comfort and control during labour. It also means that some resources tend to be focused on the need to constantly interpret the CTG and not on the needs of a woman in labour.
Continuous CTG was associated with fewer fits for babies although there was no difference in cerebral palsy; both were rare events. However, continuous CTG was also associated with increased numbers of caesarean sections and instrumental births, both of which carry risks for mothers. Continuous CTG also makes moving and changing positions difficult in labour and women are unable to use a birthing pool. This can impact on women’s coping strategies. Women and their doctors need to discuss the woman’s individual needs and wishes about monitoring the baby’s wellbeing in labour.
Future research should focus on events that happen in pregnancy and labour that could be the cause of long term problems for the baby.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 11
Incorrect
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Lidiya is a 30-year-old hospital nurse in her nine weeks of pregnancy. She has no history of chickenpox, but by regularly attending the facial sores of an elderly patient with herpes zoster ophthalmicus she has been significantly exposed to shingles.
What would you advise her as preventive management?Your Answer: Give Varicella Zoster Immunoglobulins as soon as possible
Correct Answer: If she had chicken pox immunization in the past, she needs to have her Varicella-Zoster IgG antibodies checked to assure immunity
Explanation:Patient in the given case is nine weeks pregnant, and she has been exposed to a herpes zoster rash because she is working as a hospital nurse and has no prior history of chickenpox.
The most appropriate next step in this case would be checking for Varicella-Zoster IgG antibodies which assures immunity to varicella infections. If VZV IgG is present no further action is needed, but if VZV IgG antibodies are absent, then she will need Varicella Zoster Immunoglobulins within ten days from the exposure to shingles. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 12
Correct
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Which of the following conditions are the most common cause in post-partum haemorrhage?
Your Answer: Uterine atony
Explanation:Uterine atony is the most common cause for postpartum haemorrhage and the conditions like multiple pregnancy, polyhydramnions, macrosomia, prolonged labour and multiparity are the most common risk factor for uterine atony.
Whereas less common causes for postpartum haemorrhage are laceration of genital tract, uterine rupture, uterine inversion and coagulopathy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 13
Incorrect
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During pregnancy, which among these is NOT counted as physiological change?
Your Answer: Red cell volume 1.64L.
Correct Answer: Tidal volume 500ml.
Explanation:There is a significant increase in oxygen demand during pregnancy due to a 15% increase in the metabolic rate and a 20% increased consumption of oxygen. There is a 40–50% increase in minute ventilation, mostly due to an increase in tidal volume, rather than in the respiratory rate. In a healthy, young human adult, tidal volume is approximately 500 mL per inspiration
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 14
Correct
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A 28-year-old woman presents in early labour. She is healthy and at full-term.
Her pregnancy has progressed well without any complications.
She indicates that she would like to have a cardiotocograph (CTG) to assess her baby as she has read about its use for foetal monitoring during labour.
What advice would you give her while counselling her regarding the use of CTG compared to intermittent auscultation during labour and delivery?Your Answer: There is no evidence to support admission CTG.
Explanation:In high-risk pregnancies, continuous monitoring of foetal heart rate is considered mandatory.
However, in low-risk pregnancies, cardiotocograph (CTG) monitoring provides no benefits over intermittent auscultation.
A significant issue with CTG monitoring is that apparent abnormalities are identified that usually have minimal clinical significance, but can prompt the use of several obstetric interventions such as instrumental deliveries and Caesarean section. In low risk patients, such interventions may not even be required.
CTG monitoring has not been shown to reduce the incidence of cerebral palsy or other neonatal developmental abnormalities, nor does it accurately predict previous foetal oxygenation status unless the CTG is significantly abnormal when it is first connected.
Similarly, CTG cannot accurately predict current foetal oxygenation unless the readings are severely abnormal.
Therefore, there is no evidence to support routine admission CTG (correct answer).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 15
Correct
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The performance of a cervical cerclage at 14 weeks of gestation is determined by which of the following indications?
Your Answer: 2 or more consecutive prior second trimester pregnancy losses
Explanation:Cervical cerclage is performed as an attempt to prolong pregnancy in certain women who are at higher risk of preterm delivery.
There are three well-accepted indications for cervical cerclage placement. According to the American College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists (ACOG), a history-indicated or prophylactic cerclage may be placed when there is a “history of one or more second-trimester pregnancy losses related to painless cervical dilation and in the absence of labour or abruptio placentae,” or if the woman had a prior cerclage placed due to cervical insufficiency in the second trimester.
An ultrasound-indicated cerclage may be considered for women who have a history of spontaneous loss or preterm birth at less than 34 weeks gestation if the cervical length in a current singleton pregnancy is noted to be less than 25 mm before 24 weeks of gestation. It is important to note that this recommendation is invalidated without the history of preterm birth.
Physical examination-indicated cerclage (also known as emergency or rescue cerclage) should be considered for patients with a singleton pregnancy at less than 24 weeks gestation with advanced cervical dilation in the absence of contractions, intraamniotic infection or placental abruption.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 16
Correct
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Which statement given below is correct regarding the management of deep venous thrombosis during pregnancy?
Your Answer: Warfarin therapy is contraindicated throughout pregnancy but safe during breast feeding
Explanation:Pregnancy is considered as a hypercoagulable state with an increased risk for the development of conditions like deep venous thrombosis (DVT) and pulmonary embolism (PE). Among these two PE is the considered the most significant cause for maternal death in Australia.
A pregnant women with venous thromboembolism should be treated with heparin as warfarin is contraindicated. Warfarin should be avoided throughout pregnancy and especially during the first and third trimesters of pregnancy as it crosses the placenta. Intake of warfarin at 6-12 weeks of pregnancy can results in fetal warfarin syndrome which is characterised by:
– A characteristic nasal hypoplasia
– Short fingers with hypoplastic nails
– Calcified epiphyses, namely chondrodysplasia punctuta which is evident by stippling of epiphyses on X-ray.
– Intellectual disability
– Low birth weight
Recent studies show that the risk of fetal warfarin syndrome is around 5 % more in babies of women who require warfarin throughout pregnancy and the risk is always dose dependent.
Later exposure to warfarin, as in after 12 weeks, is mostly associated with central nervous system anomalies like microcephaly, hydrocephalus, agenesis of corpus callosum, Dandy-Walker malformation which is characterised by complete absence of cerebellar vermis along with enlarged fourth ventricle and mental retardation. Eye anomalies such as optic atrophy, microphthalmia, and Peter anomaly which is the dysgenesis of the anterior segment are also found in association. Newborns exposed to warfarin in all three trimesters are prone to present with blindness. Other complications found in neonates exposed to warfarin are perinatal intracranial hemorrhage and other major bleeding episodes.Warfarin is not secreted into the breast milk and is so safe to use during the postpartum period.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 17
Correct
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A woman who underwent a lower (uterine) segment Caesarean section (LSCS) is informed that her placenta was retained and needed to be removed manually during the procedure. She is now experiencing intermittent vaginal bleeding with an oxygen saturation of 98%, a pulse of 84 bpm and a BP of 124/82mmHg. Her temperature is 37.8C. Which complication of C-section is the woman suffering from?
Your Answer: Endometritis
Explanation:Endometritis is inflammation of the inner lining of the uterus (endometrium). Symptoms may include fever, lower abdominal pain, and abnormal vaginal bleeding or discharge. It is the most common cause of infection after childbirth. The intermittent vaginal bleeding and the requirement for manual removal of the placenta suggest endometritis as the most possible diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 18
Correct
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Which one of the following factors commonly indicate repetitive late decelerations on cardiography (CTG)?
Your Answer: Fetal hypoxia
Explanation:Repetitive late decelerations can be caused by fetal hypoxia which results in constriction of the vessels to circulate blood from the peripheries to more important organs of the body like the brain and heart etc.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 41-year-old woman (gravida 2, para 1) presents at eight weeks gestation for her first antenatal visit.
This is her second pregnancy.
She is worried about Down syndrome risk in her foetus.
From the following options listed, select the safest test (i.e., the one with least risk of causing adverse consequences in the pregnancy) that will provide an accurate diagnosis regarding the presence or absence of Trisomy 21 in the foetus.Your Answer: Nuchal translucency at 11-12 weeks of gestation.
Correct Answer: Amniocentesis at 16 weeks of gestation.
Explanation:Nuchal translucency scans and maternal screening tests simply aid in determining a risk percentage for the presence of Trisomy 21, but an accurate diagnosis cannot be reached.
Chorionic villous biopsy (CVB), amniocentesis, and cordocentesis, are all prenatal diagnostic tests that can provide a definitive diagnosis regarding the presence of foetal abnormalities.
Amniocentesis performed at 16 weeks of gestation is associated with the lowest risk for miscarriage and hence is the safest test and should be recommended to the mother (correct answer).
The miscarriage risk from a CVB is at least double the risk following amniocentesis.
Nowadays, cordocentesis is rarely used for sampling of foetal material to detect chromosomal abnormalities as the test poses an even higher risk of miscarriage compared to the other procedures discussed above.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 20
Correct
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A 25-year-old woman at 39 weeks of gestation complaints of intermittent watery vaginal discharge, which has started last night after she had sex with her husband.
Speculum examination shows, pooling of straw-colored fluid in the posterior vaginal fornix. The cervical os is closed and there is leaking of liquor from cervical os when she is asked to cough or strain.
Which among the following best explains these clinical findings?Your Answer: Premature rupture of membranes (PROM)
Explanation:Presentation in the given case is classic for premature rupture of membranes (PROM) which was probably caused due to trauma during intercourse.
Premature rupture of membrane (PROM) is defined as the rupture of embryonic membranes before the onset of labor, regardless of the age of pregnancy. If occured before 37 weeks of gestation, it is termed as preterm PROM (PPROM.)A sudden gush of watery fluid per vagina is the classic presentation of rupture of the membranes (ROM), regardless of gestational age, however nowadays many women presents with continuous or intermittent leakage of fluid or a sensation of wetness within the vagina or on the perineum. Presence of liquor flowing from the cervical os or its pooling in the posterior vaginal fornix are considered as the pathognomonic symptom of ROM. Assessment of fetal well-being, the position of the fetus, placental location, estimated fetal weight and presence of any anomalies in PROM and PPROM are done with ultrasonographic studies.
Retained semen will not result in the findings mentioned in this clinical scenario as it have a different appearance.
Infections will not be a cause for this presentation as it will be associated with characteristic features like purulent cervical discharge, malodorous vaginal discharge, etc. Pooling of clear fluid in the posterior fornix is pathognomonic for ROM.
Urine leakage is common during the pregnancy, but it is not similar to the clinical scenario mentioned above.
Absence of findings like cervical dilation and bulging membranes on speculum exam makes cervical insufficiency an unlikely diagnosis in this case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 21
Correct
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A 23-year-old woman at 36 weeks of gestation in her first pregnancy presents for headache and right upper quadrant abdominal pain for three days. The pregnancy has been normal and unremarkable until now.
Her blood pressure is 145/90 mmHg and urinalysis shows protein ++. On physical exam, her ankles are slightly swollen. There is slight tenderness to palpation under the right costal margin.
Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Pre-eclampsia.
Explanation:There are a few differential diagnoses to think of in a patient that presents such as this one. Pre-eclampsia, cholecystitis, and fatty liver could all cause pain and tenderness, but cholecystitis would not normally cause the hypertension and proteinuria seen in this patient and neither would acute fatty liver of pregnancy. The more likely explanation is pre-eclampsia which must always be considered in the presence of these symptoms and signs. This process is particularly severe in the presence of pain and tenderness under the right costal margin due to liver capsule distension.
Chronic renal disease could cause the hypertension and mild proteinuria seen, but it would not usually produce the pain and tenderness that this patient has unless it was complicated by severe pre-eclampsia.
Biliary cholestasis does not usually produce pain.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 22
Correct
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A 22-year-old nulliparous otherwise healthy woman presents with lower abdominal pain at 16 weeks of gestation. Her body temperature is 37.8 degrees Celsius. She appears to be in good health and is eating properly. Her uterus had been discovered to be retroverted but of normal size at her prior antenatal check at 11 weeks of pregnancy. Which of the following diagnoses is the most likely?
Your Answer: Urinary tract infection.
Explanation:Lower abdominal pain can be caused by any of the conditions listed in the answers.
A urinary tract infection is the most likely cause.
Unless it was an abdominal ectopic or an interstitial pregnancy, an ectopic pregnancy.
will almost definitely have shown up before the 15th week of pregnancy.
A retroverted gravid uterus may impinge at 15 weeks of pregnancy, however, this is unlikely to be linked to a temperature of 37.8°C.
It’s also possible that it’s the source of acute urine retention.
Complications of the corpus luteum cyst normally manifest themselves considerably earlier in pregnancy, and severe appendicitis is far less likely to be the source of discomfort than a urinary tract infection. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 23
Correct
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A 27-year-old woman comes to you during her first trimester seeking antenatal advice as she have a history of pre-eclampsia and obesity.
On examination her blood pressure is 130/80 mmHg and BMI is 38.
Administration of which among the following can reduce her risk of pre-eclampsia during this pregnancy?Your Answer: Calcium 1000mg daily
Explanation:This patient with a previous history of pre-eclampsia and obesity is at high risk for developing pre-eclampsia.
A daily intake of 1000mg of calcium is observed to be helpful in reducing the incidence of any hypertensive disorders and preterm labour.
Vitamin A should always be avoided during pregnancy as it is fetotoxic.
All other options are incorrect.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 24
Correct
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A 27-year-old G1P0 woman who is at 14 weeks of gestation presented to the medical clinic complaining of persistent nausea and vomiting. Upon history taking and interview, she reported that she frequently had poor appetite and felt lethargic. From her pre-pregnancy weight, it was also noted that she had 3% weight loss in difference. Upon further clinical observation, she looked dry, accompanied with coated tongue.
If the diagnosis of “hyperemesis gravidarum” is to be considered, which of the following will most likely confirm that diagnosis?Your Answer: she looks dry with coated tongue
Explanation:Hyperemesis gravidarum refers to intractable vomiting during pregnancy, leading to weight loss and volume depletion, resulting in ketonuria and/or ketonemia. There is no consensus on specific diagnostic criteria, but it generally refers to the severe end of the spectrum regarding nausea and vomiting in pregnancy.
Hormone changes wherein hCG levels peak during the first trimester corresponds to the typical onset of hyperemesis symptoms. It is well-known that the lower oesophageal sphincter relaxes during pregnancy due to the elevations in estrogen and progesterone. This leads to an increased incidence of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) symptoms in pregnancy, and one symptom of GERD is nausea.
Hyperemesis gravidarum refers to extreme cases of nausea and vomiting during pregnancy. The criteria for diagnosis include vomiting that causes significant dehydration (as evidenced by ketonuria or electrolyte abnormalities, and the dry with coated tongue) and weight loss (the most commonly cited marker for this is the loss of at least five percent of the patient’s pre-pregnancy weight) in the setting of pregnancy without any other underlying pathological cause for vomiting.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 25
Correct
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A 28-year-old woman who is at the 18th week of gestation presented to the medical clinic due to a vaginal discharge. Upon history taking, it was revealed that she had a history of preterm labour at 24 weeks of gestation during her last pregnancy. Upon examination, the presence of a clear fluid coming out of the vagina was noted.
Which of the following is considered to be the best in predicting pre-term labour?Your Answer: Cervical length of 15mm
Explanation:Preterm birth is the leading cause of neonatal morbidity and mortality not attributable to congenital anomalies or aneuploidy. It has been shown that a shortened cervix is a powerful indicator of preterm births in women with singleton and twin gestations – the shorter the cervical length, the higher the risk of spontaneous preterm birth. Ultrasound measurements of the cervix are a more accurate way of determining cervical length (CL) than using a digital method.
25 mm has been chosen as the ‘cut off’ at above which a cervix can be regarded as normal, and below which can be called short. A cervix that is less than 25 mm may be indicative of preterm birth.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 26
Incorrect
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All of the following statements regarding episiotomy are true, except?
Your Answer: Median (midline) episiotomy is generally considered to be less painful then mediolateral episiotomy
Correct Answer: The earlier the episiotomy is done during delivery, generally the more beneficial it will be in speeding up delivery
Explanation:The best time of the episiotomy is when the presenting part becomes visible during the contractions. If the episiotomy is performed at the proper time, less time will be required for the delivery. However, if its done too late, it causes excessive stretching of the pelvic floor and further potential lacerations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old female reports to the emergency department due to severe right lower quadrant pain. Complaints started yesterday, as the patient noticed intermittent right lower abdominal pain associated with increased activity. She rested for remainder of the day, but the pain still continued to increase. An hour ago, the pain suddenly became constant and severe, associated with nausea and vomiting. The patient does not complaint of any radiation of pain.
On examination patient's temperature is noted to be 37.2 C (99 F), blood pressure is 130/80 mm Hg, and pulse rate is 98/min. On palpation of the right lower quadrant there is tenderness without rebounding or guarding. Urine pregnancy test conducted came to be negative.
Considering the following additional informations, which would be most appropriate in establishing the diagnosis of this patient?Your Answer: Recent sick contacts
Correct Answer: History of ovarian cysts
Explanation:Common Risk factors for Ovarian torsion are presence of an ovarian mass, women who are in their reproductive age and history of infertility treatment with ovulation induction.
Common clinical presentations include sudden onset of unilateral pelvic pain along with nausea & vomiting and presence of a palpable adnexal mass. An adnexal mass with absent Doppler flow to ovary can be noted in ultrasound.
Laparoscopy with detorsion, ovarian cystectomy and oophorectomy if necrosis or malignancy is found are the common treatment options.Acute lower abdominal pain in a nonpregnant women can have various causes including pathologies of the gastrointestinal, gynecologic, or urologic systems due to the close proximity of these structures. All of these cases have classic presentations which help to characterize the disease process and thereby to differentiate the diagnosis.
In the given case, patient presents with right lower quadrant pain which is classic for ovarian torsion, occurring due to rotation of the ovary around the infundibulopelvic ligament, causing ovarian vessel occlusion. Although ovarian torsion can occur in any women in their reproductive-age, is seen more commonly in those with a history of ovarian cysts (eg, hemorrhagic cyst) or masses (eg, mature cystic teratoma) because of the greater size and density of the ovary which makes it prone to rotation and subsequent torsion. Patients will initially have intermittent pain associated with activity, as in this patient, due to partial ovarian torsion, this initial pain resolves when the adnexa spontaneously untwists and blood flow returns. When this progresses to complete ovarian torsion, patients typically develop sudden-onset, severe, nonradiating pain due to persistent ischemia, which is often associated with nausea and vomiting.
Ovarian torsion can be clinically diagnosed, but a Doppler ultrasound is performed to evaluate ovarian blood flow and also to confirm the diagnosis. Surgical detorsion to prevent ovarian necrosis and cystectomy/oophorectomy are the usual treatment options.
Any association of urinary symptoms will help to establish a urologic cause of acute right lower quadrant pain like pyelonephritis, nephrolithiasis, etc. However, patients with urologic conditions typically presents with suprapubic or flank pain which radiates to the right lower quadrant, making this diagnosis less likely in the given case.
A family history of malignancy usually does not aid in the diagnosis of acute lower abdominal pain. Although some ovarian cancers are inherited, patients with ovarian cancer typically have a chronic, indolent course with associated weight loss, early satiety, and abdominal distension.
Having multiple sexual partners is considered a risk factor for sexually transmitted infections and pelvic inflammatory disease, which can be a cause for lower abdominal pain. However, patients will typically have fever, constant and diffused pelvic pain along with rebound and guarding.
Recent sick contacts are a risk factor for gastroenteritis, which can present with nausea, vomiting and abdominal pain. However, in this case patient will typically have diffuse, cramping abdominal pain which will worsen gradually; along with persistent vomiting and diarrhea.
Ovarian torsion typically causes intermittent lower abdominal pain followed by sudden-onset of severe, nonradiating unilateral pain with associated nausea and vomiting. Ovarian torsion can occur in women in their reproductive-age, particularly those with a history of ovarian cysts.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old woman, at 37 weeks and 2 days gestation and currently in her second pregnancy, presents with a breech presentation. She previously delivered a baby girl weighing 3.8kg via spontaneous vaginal delivery at term. Ultrasound examination this time shows a breech presentation with extended legs. She wishes to deliver vaginally if it is possible.
Which is the most appropriate next step to take?
Your Answer: Caesarean section now.
Correct Answer: Await spontaneous onset of labour.
Explanation:The most suitable step would be to wait for spontaneous onset of labour. This woman would be able to deliver vaginally in 3 situations. The first would be if the foetus is estimated to weigh less than 3800g (first child weight 3800g). Another would be if the foetus is in a frank or complete breech presentation and lastly if the rate of labour progress is satisfactory and breech extraction is unnecessary. RCOG (Royal College of Obstetricians & Gynaecologists) guidelines recommends that women should be informed that elective Caesarean section for the delivery of a breech baby would have a lower risk of perinatal mortality than a planned vaginal delivery. This is because with an elective Caesarean section, we would be able to avoid stillbirth following 39 weeks of gestation as well as intrapartum and vaginal breech delivery risks. The ideal mode of delivery of a breech foetus when labour starts or at least close to term is a Caesarean section as the risks towards the foetus would be significantly increased in a vaginal delivery. The obstetrician is responsible to ensure that there are no other abnormalities that could complicate this even further such as footling presentation, low estimated birth weight (less than 10th centile), hyperextended neck on ultrasound, evidence of fetal distress and high estimated birth weight (>3.8kg). Provided that there is a normal progression of events, fetal risks during both labour and delivery should be low if such factors are absent. Hence, it is right to await the onset of labour to occur spontaneously in this case. In order to exclude a knee presentation with fetal head extension or a footling breech, ultrasound examination has to be done. These are linked to a high fetal risk if the mother attempts vaginal delivery. X-ray pelvimetry is advisable but is not essential in fetal size assessment since its accuracy is roughly 20%. In this case, it is not indicated since there is evidence that her pelvis is of adequate size as she had already delivered a 3.9kg baby prior. It is best to avoid induction of labour in breech cases for numerous reasons (need for augmentation, cord prolapse).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 29 year old woman is in her 32nd week of gestation and is diagnosed with placental abruption. This is her 3rd pregnancy and despite all effective measures taken, bleeding is still present. What is the most likely cause?
Your Answer: Succiturate lobe
Correct Answer: Clotting factor problem
Explanation:Clotting factor problem. Some of the more common disorders of coagulation that occur during pregnancy are von Willebrand disease, common factor deficiencies, platelet disorders and as a result of anticoagulants.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman from the countryside of Victoria comes to the hospital at 37 weeks of gestation after noticing a sudden gush of clear fluid from her vagina.
Speculum examination shows pooling of liquor in the posterior fornix and patient developed fever, tachycardia and chills 12 hours after this episode.
Apart from giving antibiotics, what will be your strategy in management of this case?Your Answer: Give corticosteroids
Correct Answer: Induce labour now
Explanation:Above mentioned patient presented with symptoms of premature rupture of membranes (PROM) which refers to membrane rupture before the onset of uterine contractions.
A sudden gush of clear or pale yellow fluid from the vagina is the classic clinical presentation of premature rupture of membranes. Along with this the patient also developed signs of infection like fever, tachycardia and sweating which is suggestive of chorioamnionitis.
Vaginal examination is never performed in patients with premature rupture of membrane, instead a speculum examination is the usually preferred method which will show fluid in the posterior fornix.
The following are the steps in management of premature rupture of membrane:
– Admitting the patient to hospital.
– Take a vaginal
ervical smears.
– Measure and monitor both white cell count and C- reactive protein levels.
– Continue pregnancy if there is no evidence of infection or fetal distress.
– In presence of any signs of infection or if CTG showing fetal distress it is advisable to induce labour.
– Corticosteroids must be administered if delivery is prior to 34 weeks of gestation.
– Give antibiotics as prevention and for treatment of infection. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 31
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old primigravida woman presented to the clinic for her first antenatal check-up. Upon interview, it was noted that she was taking folic acid along with some other nutritional supplements as medication.
All of the following are considered correct regarding neural tube defects and folate before and during pregnancy, except:Your Answer: Folate intake should be increased at least one month before and three months after conception
Correct Answer: Prevalence of neural tube defects among non-indigenous population is almost double than that in Aboriginal and Torres Strait Islander babies
Explanation:Neural tube defects (NTDs) are common complex congenital malformations resulting from failure of the neural tube closure during embryogenesis. It is established that folic acid supplementation decreases the prevalence of NTDs, which has led to national public health policies regarding folic acid.
Neural tube defects (NTD) were 43% more common in Indigenous than in non-Indigenous infants in Western Australia in the 1980s, and there has been a fall in NTD overall in Western Australia since promotion of folate and voluntary fortification of food has occurred.
Women should take 5 mg/d of folic acid for the 2 months before conception and during the first trimester.
Women planning pregnancy might be exposed to medications with known antifolate activities affecting different parts of the folic acid metabolic cascade. A relatively large number of epidemiologic studies have shown an increased risk of NTDs among babies exposed in early gestation to antiepileptic drugs (carbamazepine, valproate, barbiturates), sulphonamides, or methotrexate. Hence, whenever women use these medications, or have used them near conception, they should take 5 mg/d of folic acid until the end of the first trimester of pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 32
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman comes to your clinic for advice as she is 20 weeks pregnant and was found to have thyrotoxicosis with mild enlargement of the thyroid gland.
What other investigation will you consider to be done in this patient?Your Answer: Free T3
Correct Answer: Ultrasound thyroid gland
Explanation:A 20 weeks pregnant patient has developed goitre along with thyrotoxicosis, where the diagnosis of thyrotoxicosis has already been established.
Ultrasound of the thyroid and a radioisotope scan to differentiate between “hot” and “cold” nodules are the confirming investigations for goitre. A nodule composed of cells that do not make thyroid hormone and the nodule which produces too much thyroid hormone are respectively called as cold and “hot” nodules.Due to the risk of fetal uptake of the isotope which leads to the damage of fetal thyroid, radioisotope or radionuclide Technetium uptake scan is contraindicated in pregnancy.
Fine needle aspiration cytology is required to establish a histopathological diagnosis in case of all cold nodules.
So ultrasound of the thyroid gland is the mandatory investigation to be done in this case as it will show diffuse enlargement, characteristic of the autoimmune disease, or multinodularity, which is suggestive of autonomous multinodular goitre.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 33
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman (gravida 3, para 2) is admitted to hospital at 33 weeks of gestation for an antepartum haemorrhage of 300mL. The bleeding has now stopped. She had a Papanicolaou (Pap) smear done five years ago which was normal. Vital signs are as follows:
Pulse: 76 beats/min
Blood pressure: 120/80 mmHg
Temperature: 36.8°C
Fetal heart rate: 144/min
On physical exam, the uterus is lax and nontender. The fundal height is 34 cm above the pubic symphysis and the presenting part is high and mobile.
Other than fetal monitoring with a cardiotocograph (CTG), which one of the following should be the immediate next step?Your Answer: Immediate Caesarean section.
Correct Answer: Ultrasound examination of the uterus.
Explanation:This is a case of a pregnant patient having vaginal bleeding. Given the patient’s presentation, the most likely cause of this patient’s antepartum haemorrhage is placenta praevia. The haemorrhage is unlikely to be due to a vasa praevia because a loss of 300mL would usually cause fetal distress or death, neither of which has occurred. Cervical malignancy is also unlikely as it typically would not have bleeding of this magnitude. A possible diagnosis would be a small placental abruption as it would fit with the lack of uterine tenderness and normal uterine size.
For the immediate management of this patient, induction of labour is contraindicated before the placental site has been confirmed. Also, induction should not be performed when the gestation is only at 33 weeks, especially after an episode of a small antepartum haemorrhage. An ultrasound examination of the uterus is appropriate as it would define whether a placenta praevia is present and its grade. It would also show whether there is any evidence of an intrauterine clot associated with placental abruption from a normally situated placenta.
If a placenta praevia is diagnosed by ultrasound, a pelvic examination under anaesthesia may be a part of the subsequent care, if it is felt that vaginal delivery might be possible. Usually it would be possible if the placenta praevia is grade 1 or grade 2 anterior in type. However, pelvic exam at this stage is certainly not the next step in care, and is rarely used in current clinical care.
A Papanicolaou (Pap) smear will be necessary at some time in the near future, but would not be helpful in the care of this patient currently.
Immediate Caesarean section is not needed as the bleeding has stopped, the foetus is not in distress, and the gestation is only 33 weeks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 34
Incorrect
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Among the following mentioned drugs, which one has reported the highest rate of congenital malformations if used in pregnancy?
Your Answer: Levetiracetam
Correct Answer: Sodium valproate
Explanation:Among all the antiepileptic drugs sodium valproate carries the highest teratogenicity rate. The potential congenital defects caused by sodium valproate are as below:
– Neural tube defects like spina bifida, anencephaly
– Cardiac complications like congenital ventricular septal defect, aortic stenosis, patent ductus arteriosus, aberrant pulmonary artery
– Limb defects like polydactyly were more than 5 fingers are present, oligodactyly were less than 5 fingers are present, absent fingers, overlapping toes, camptodactyly which is presented as a fixed flexion deformity of one or more proximal interphalangeal joints,split hand, ulnar or tibial hypoplasia.
– Genitourinary defects like hypospadias, renal hypoplasia, hydronephrosis, duplication of calyceal system.
– Brain anomalies like hydranencephaly, porencephaly, arachnoid cysts, cerebral atrophy, partial agenesis of corpus callosum, agenesis of septum pellucidum, lissencephaly of medial sides of occipital lobes, Dandy-Walker anomaly
– Eye anomalies like bilateral congenital cataract, optic nerve hypoplasia, tear duct anomalies, microphthalmia, bilateral iris defects, corneal opacities.
– Respiratory tract defects like tracheomalacia, lung hypoplasia,severe laryngeal hypoplasia, abnormal lobulation of the right lung, right oligemic lung which is presented with less blood flow.
– Abdominal wall defects like omphalocele
– Skin abnormalities capillary hemangioma, aplasia cutis congenital of the scalp. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 35
Incorrect
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A 37-year-old female at her 33 weeks of gestation who sustains a road traffic accident at 90 km/hour, is taken to the emergency department.
On examination, she is found to be pale, with a heart rate of 112 bpm, blood pressure of 95/55 mm of Hg, respiratory rate of 18 breaths per minute and her oxygen saturation in room air is 95%. Fetal heart rate is audible at 102 bpm and her uterus is tense and tender, she denied having any direct trauma to the abdomen.
Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this given case?Your Answer: Placenta previa
Correct Answer: Placental abruption
Explanation:This patient presents with signs and symptoms similar to clinical features of placental abruption.
Any trauma during the last trimester of pregnancy could be dangerous to both mother and fetus. By force of deceleration, motor vehicle accidents can result in placental separation. Also when subjected to strong acceleration-deceleration forces such as those during a motor vehicle crash uterus is thought to slightly change its shape. Since the placenta is not elastic and amniotic fluid is not compressible, such uterine distortion caused due to acceleration-deceleration or direct trauma will result in abruptio placentae due to shear stress at the utero-placental interface.
A painful, tender uterus which is often contracting is characteristic of placental abruption and the condition will lead to maternal hypovolemic hypotension and consequent fetal distress which is presented as fetal bradycardia and repetitive late decelerations. Vaginal bleeding, abdominal pain, contractions, uterine rigidity with tenderness, and a nonreassuring fetal heart rate (FHR) tracing are the clinical features diagnostic of abruption. However, a significant abruption can occasionally be asymptomatic or associated with minimal maternal symptoms in the absence of vaginal bleeding. Therefore the amount of vaginal bleeding is not always an appropriate indicator to the severity of placental abruption, this is because, in cases bleeding could be very severe or it may be concealed in the form of a hematoma in between the uterine wall and the placenta.
Sharp or blunt abdominal trauma can lead to uterine rupture or penetrating injury, since there is no reported abdominal trauma to the patient, uterine rupture is less likely to happen in this case. Severe abdominal pain with tenderness, cessation of contractions and loss of uterine tone are the most common symptoms characteristic of Uterine rupture. It will also be associated with mild to moderate vaginal bleeding along with fetal bradycardia or loss of heart sound. In this case uterus will be less tense and tender in comparison to placental abruption
Symptoms like low blood pressure, tachycardia and fetal bradycardia can be justified by ruptured spleen and liver laceration, but not the tense, tender and contracting uterus.
The diagnosis of placenta previa cannot be considered with the given clinical picture as it presents with sudden, painless bleeding of bright red blood and there will not be any uterine tenderness.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 36
Incorrect
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A 22-year-old G2P2 who is on her 7th day postpartum called her physician due to her concern of bleeding from the vagina. Upon interview, she described the bleeding to be light pink to bright red and compared with the first few days post-delivery, the bleeding was less heavy. There was also no fever or cramping pain reported by the patient.
Upon examination, it was observed that she is afebrile and her uterus is appropriately sized and non-tender. There was also the presence of about 10cc old, dark blood in her vagina and her cervix was closed.
Which of the following is considered the most appropriate treatment for the patient?Your Answer: Antibiotics for endometritis
Correct Answer: Reassurance
Explanation:The postpartum period begins soon after the baby’s delivery and usually lasts six to eight weeks and ends when the mother’s body has nearly returned to its pre-pregnant state.
Bloody vaginal discharge (lochia rubra) is heavy for the first 3-4 days, and slowly it becomes watery in consistency and colour changes to pinkish-brown (lochia serosa). After the next 10-12 days, it changes to yellowish-white (lochia alba). Advise women to seek medical attention if heavy vaginal bleeding persists (soaking a pad or more in less than an hour). Women with heavy, persistent postpartum bleeding should be evaluated for complications such as retained placenta, uterine atony, rarely invasive placenta, or coagulation disorders. Endometritis may also occur, presenting as fever with no source, maybe accompanied by uterine tenderness and vaginal discharge. This usually requires intravenous antibiotics. This also should be explained and advise the mother to seek immediate medical attention.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 37
Incorrect
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A 24-year-old primigravid woman comes to the office to establish prenatal care at 14 weeks gestation. Patient has had no vaginal bleeding or cramping, no chronic medical conditions, and her only medication is a daily dose of prenatal vitamin. Patient follows a vegan diet and drinks 2 cups of coffee in the morning, also she is an avid runner who runs 5 miles most days. Patient does not use tobacco, alcohol or any other illicit drugs.
On physical examination her vital signs are normal, with a pre-pregnancy BMI of 22 kg/m2.
Transvaginal ultrasound shows a single intrauterine gestation with a heart rate of 155/min.
Among the following possible lifestyle modifications needed during pregnancy, which is the most appropriate recommendation for this patient?Your Answer: Decrease current exercise regimen
Correct Answer: Increase caloric intake by about 350 kcal/day
Explanation:Nutrition in pregnancy
Weight gain must be:
– In patients <18.5 kg/m2, there should be an increase of 12.7 - 18 kg (28-40 lb)
– In patients 18.5 – 24.9 kg/m2 there should be an increase of 11.4 – 15.9 kg (25-35 lb)
– In patients 25 – 29.9 kg/m2 there should be an increase of 6.8 – 11.4 kg (15-25 lb)
– In patients ≥30 kg/m2 there should be an increase of 5 – 9 kg (11-20 lb)Supplementation required:
– Intake of daily prenatal vitamin
– Additional specific supplements as indicated
– Avoidance of harmful substances like drugs, alcohol, etc
– Substance abuse counseling
– Avoidance of fish with high mercury levels
– Moderating caffeine intakeFood safety:
– Avoid undercooked meat, fish & eggs
– Clean raw fruits & vegetables before consuming
– Avoid unpasteurized dairy productsNutrition in pregnancy is addressed at the initial prenatal visit based on pre-pregnancy BMI. Appropriate weight gain for a women with a normal pre-pregnancy BMI of 18.5 – 24.9 kg/m2 should be 11.4 – 15.9 kg (25-35 lb) during pregnancy. This weight gain is equivalent to the increasing caloric intake of 350 kcal/day during the second and 450 kcal/day during the third trimesters. Patients following any specific diets like veganism can continue their usual diet throughout pregnancy as long as it contains a well-balanced quantity of protein, carbohydrates and fats.
Vitamin and mineral supplementation during pregnancy is a single, daily prenatal vitamin recommended for majority of pregnant women as it helps to fulfill most of the daily vitamin and mineral supplementation requirements. In case of patients with vitamin or mineral deficiencies like iron, calcium, etc, a specific supplementation of the deficit vitamin/mineral only is required rather than multiple prenatal vitamins to avoid consuming harmful amounts of other vitamins like vitamin A. Vegans, who are at risk for some vitamin and mineral deficiencies like vitamin B12, calcium, iron, etc, secondary to lack of meat consumption, may require supplementation.
Pregnant women are counselled on avoidance of harmful substances like alcohol, drugs, etc and substances like fish with high mercury levels. Although high caffeine intake during pregnancy can be harmful, a moderate intake ie, 1 or 2 cups of coffee a day is thought to be safe.
Safe handling of food is important because some food products are found to result in congenital infection and intrauterine fetal demise. Patients are also counselled to avoid undercooked meat, fish, and eggs; to thoroughly clean raw fruits and vegetables and to avoid consumption of unpasteurized dairy products.
By maintaining a proper maternal nutrition during pregnancy, patients are provide appropriate nutrition to the fetal and thereby reducing the risk of pregnancy related complications like low birth weight, preterm delivery, etc.
Pregnant patients are counseled to avoid exercises like contact sports, downhill skiing, etc which increases the risk of abdominal trauma resulting in increased risk of placental abruption. But those patients with an uncomplicated pregnancy, who are already accustomed with long-duration, high-intensity exercise like running 5 miles/day, as in the given case, can continue with their regimen if tolerated.
Proper nutrition in pregnancy includes appropriate weight gain, supplementation of vitamins and minerals, avoidance of any harmful substances, and safe handling of food. Patients with a normal pre-pregnancy BMI should gain around 11.4-15.9 kg (25-35 lb) during pregnancy by increasing their caloric intake by 350 kcal/day in the second and 450 kcal/day in the third trimesters.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 38
Incorrect
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A 39-week pregnant patient presents with acute epigastric pain and general signs of malaise. She has a normal body temperature but clinical examination shows RUQ tenderness. Blood tests revealed a mild anaemia, high liver enzyme values, low platelets and haemolysis. What is the most possible diagnosis?
Your Answer: Acute hepatitis
Correct Answer: HELLP syndrome
Explanation:HELLP syndrome stands for haemolysis, elevated liver enzyme levels, and low platelet levels and is a very severe condition that can happen during pregnancy. Management of this condition requires immediate delivery of the baby.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 39
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old woman who is at 38 weeks gestation presented to the emergency department due to complaints of not feeling fetal movements since yesterday. Upon investigations, fetal demise was confirmed. Induced delivery was done and she gave birth to a dead foetus.
Which of the following is least likely to reveal the cause of the fetal death?Your Answer: Autopsy of the foetus
Correct Answer: Chromosomal analysis of the mother
Explanation:Stillbirth has many causes: intrapartum complications, hypertension, diabetes, infection, congenital and genetic abnormalities, placental dysfunction, and pregnancy continuing beyond forty weeks.
In 5% of normal-appearing stillborns, a chromosomal abnormality will be detectable. With an autopsy and a chromosomal study, up to 35% of stillborns are found to have a major structural pathology, and 8% have abnormal chromosomes. After a complete evaluation, term stillbirth remains unexplained about 30% of the time. The chance of finding a cause is impacted by the age of the foetus, the experience of the caregiver, and the thoroughness of the exam. Chromosome testing for aneuploidy should be offered for all stillbirths to confirm or to seek a cause of the stillbirth. Genetic amniocentesis or chorionic villus sampling before delivery offers the highest yield.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 40
Correct
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A 22-year-old Asian woman with a background history of primary pulmonary hypertension attends your clinic. She is planning for a pregnancy in the next few months and feels well generally.
What would be your advice?Your Answer: Pregnancy is contraindicated in her condition
Explanation:From the options given, option A is correct as primary pulmonary hypertension is considered a contraindication to pregnancy.
The patient should be educated about the possible risks and increased maternal mortality in such cases. This restriction is due to the fact that symptoms of Pulmonary hypertension gets worse during pregnancy which results in high maternal mortality.
Termination of pregnancy may be advisable in these circumstances mostly to preserve the life of the mother.
Sudden death secondary to hypotension is also a commonly dreaded complication among patients with pulmonary hypertension during pregnancy. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 41
Correct
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During early pregnancy, a pelvic examination may reveal that one adnexa is slightly enlarged. This is most likely due to:
Your Answer: Corpus luteal cyst
Explanation:Adnexa refer to the anatomical area adjacent to the uterus, and contains the fallopian tube, ovary, and associated vessels, ligaments, and connective tissue. The reported incidence of adnexal masses in pregnancy ranges from 1 in 81 to 1 in 8000 pregnancies. Most of these adnexal masses are diagnosed incidentally at the time of dating or first trimester screening ultrasound (USS). Functional cyst is the most common adnexal mass in pregnancy, similar to the nonpregnant state. A corpus luteum persisting into the second trimester accounts for 13-17% of all cystic adnexal masses. Pain due to rupture, haemorrhage into the cyst, infection, venous congestion, or torsion may be of sudden onset or of a more chronic nature.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 42
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old pregnant woman, at 26 weeks of gestation, is involved in a car accident while wearing a seatbelt.
On examination there are visible bruises on the abdomen but patient is otherwise normal. Fetal heart sounds are audible and are within normal parameters and CTG is reassuring.
Which of the following will be the best next step in management of this case?Your Answer: Observe for six hours and discharge home
Correct Answer: Admit her and observe for 24 hours
Explanation:Trauma is a major contributor for maternal mortality and is one of the leading causes of pregnancy-associated maternal deaths.
As a result of maternal hypotension or hypoxemia, placental abruption, uterine rupture or fetal trauma a maternal trauma can compromise the fetus also.
Patient’s bruises on the abdomen which are seatbelt marks, are indications that this woman has positioned the seat belt incorrectly over the uterus. So there is a good chance that the uterus and its contents, including the fetus, has been affected by the impact. In a pregnant woman, the correct position of seat belt is when the lap belt is placed on the hip below uterus and the sash is placed between breasts and above the uterus.A minimum of 24-hour period monitoring is recommended for all pregnant women, apart from the routine trauma workup indicated in non-pregnant women, in case they have sustained trauma in the presence of any of the following:
– Regular uterine contractions
– Vaginal bleeding
– A non-reassuring fetal heart rate tracing
– Abdominal/uterine pain
– Significant trauma to the abdomenConsidering the bruises over her abdomen this patient should be considered as having significant abdominal trauma and must be kept under observation for a minimum of 24 hours. Such patients should not be discharged unless the clinician makes sure they do not have any complications like abruption or preterm labor.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 43
Incorrect
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A 26-year -old woman, who underwent an episiotomy during labour, presented with severe vaginal pain 4 days after the procedure.
At the site of the episiotomy, an 8-cm hematoma is noted on examination. Also the woman is found to be hemodynamically stable.
Among the following, which is considered the most appropriate next step in management?Your Answer: Antibiotics
Correct Answer: Explore the hematoma
Explanation:In most cases reported, puerperal hematomas arise due to bleeding lacerations related to operative deliveries or episiotomy, and in rare cases from spontaneous injury to a blood vessel in the absence of any laceration/incision of the surrounding tissue. Vulval, vaginal/paravaginal area and retroperitoneum are considered the most common locations for puerperal hematomas.
Most puerperal hematomas are diagnosed based on the presence of characteristic symptoms and physical examination findings:
VuIvar hematoma usually presents as a rapidly developing, severely painful, tense and compressible mass which is covered by skin of purplish discoloration. A vulvar hematoma can also be an extension of a vaginal hematoma which was dissected through a loose subcutaneous tissue into the vulva.
Vaginal hematomas often present with rectal pressure, were hemodynamic instability caused due to bleeding into the ischiorectal fossa and paravaginal space are the first signs and can result in hypovolemic shock. In these cases a large mass protruding into the vagina is often found on physical examination.
Retroperitoneal hematomas are asymptomatic initially and extend between the folds of broad ligament. Patients suffering will often present with tachycardia, hypotension or shock due to the significant accumulated of blood in the retroperitoneal space. Unless the hematoma is associated with trauma, patients will not present with pain, only signs will be a palpable abdominal mass or fever.Treatment of hematoma depends mostly on the size and location:
Non-expanding hematomas which are <3cm in size can be managed conservatively with analgesics and application of ice packs. An expanding hematoma or those greater than 3cm is managed effectively with surgical exploration under anesthesia, were an incision is made to evacuate the hematoma. The surgical site should not be sutured and vagina is often packed for 12-24 hours, an indwelling urinary catheter also may be indicated. In the given case, patient presents with a large haematoma (>3cm) which needs surgical excision and evacuation.Aspiration of the hematoma is not an appropriate treatment. If surgical intervention is indicated excision and evacuation is the preferred option, followed by vaginal packing for 12-24 hours.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 44
Incorrect
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A lady who is 29-weeks pregnant, comes to a general practice, complaining of a sudden gush of clear fluid.
On Speculum examination, premature rupture of membranes is confirmed with closed cervix.
In addition to transferring patient to a tertiary care, what is the most appropriate in the management of this case?Your Answer: Nifedipine
Correct Answer: Betamethasone
Explanation:This patient who is at her 29 weeks of pregnancy, presented with sudden gush of clear fluid and Speculum examination has confirmed premature rupture of membrane (PROM).
Approximately, 50% of PROM progress to labour within 24 hours and in the remaining, 80% within seven days. The most important next step of management in this case is transferring this patient to tertiary care hospital as soon as possible. It is equally important to give corticosteroid therapy, like Betamethasone, if delivery prior to 34 weeks is likely to occur, as it will help in fetal lung maturity.
Cardiotocography (CTG) is usually not available in general practice settings and it can be done only while in the hospital. If CTG shows any abnormality or if there is any presence of infection it is better to induce labor.
Salbutamol and nifedipine are of no use in this case, as the patient is not in labour and does not require tocolytics.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 45
Incorrect
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Three days after a lower uterine Caesarean section delivery (LSCS) for fetal distress, a 24-year-old woman develops fever with a temperature of 37.9°C. Intraoperative notes show that she was administered one dose of prophylactic antibiotics. She had been afebrile during the post-partum period until today.
Which is the least likely cause of her fever?
Your Answer: Acute endometritis.
Correct Answer: A deep venous thrombosis (DVT).
Explanation:This question is about the differential diagnoses that should be considered if a patient presents with postpartum fever. The work-up for such patients would usually involve vaginal swabs, midstream urine culture and sensitivity and an ultrasound scan of the wound to look for any presence of a haematoma. LSCS is a major surgery and one common cause of puerperal fever would be surgical site infection. It is not surprising that women who deliver via LSCS are at higher risk of developing post-partum fever compared to those who deliver vaginally. Other common causes include endometritis and UTI. Ultrasound examination of the pelvic deep venous system and the legs would also be done to look for any thrombosis. Deep vein thrombosis can occur due to immobility, however it is unlikely to present with fever.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 46
Incorrect
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A 23-year-old gravida 1 para 0 at 36 weeks gestation presents to the office complaining of ankle swelling and occasional headache for the past 2 days. She denies any abdominal pain or visual disturbances. On examination you note a fundal height of 35 cm, a fetal heart rate of 140 beats/min, 2+ lower extremity oedema, and a blood pressure of 144/92 mm Hg. A urine dipstick shows 1+ proteinuria.
Which one of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?Your Answer: Immediate Caesarean delivery
Correct Answer: Laboratory evaluation, fetal testing, and 24-hour urine for total protein
Explanation:This patient most likely has preeclampsia, which is defined as an elevated blood pressure and proteinuria after 20 weeks gestation. The patient needs further evaluation, including a 24-hour urine for quantitative measurement of protein, blood pressure monitoring, and laboratory evaluation that includes haemoglobin, haematocrit, a platelet count, and serum levels of transaminase, creatinine, albumin, LDH, and uric acid- A peripheral smear and coagulation profiles also may be obtained- Antepartum fetal testing, such as a nonstress test to assess fetal well-being, would also be appropriate.
→ Ultrasonography should be done to assess for fetal intrauterine growth restriction, but only after an initial laboratory and fetal evaluation.
→ It is not necessary to start this patient on antihypertensive therapy at this point. An obstetric consultation should be considered for patients with preeclampsia.
→ Delivery is the definitive treatment for preeclampsia- The timing of delivery is determined by the gestational age of the foetus and the severity of preeclampsia in the mother. Vaginal delivery is preferred over caesarean delivery, if possible, in patients with preeclampsia. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 47
Incorrect
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A 22-year-old woman who is 28 weeks pregnant presented to the emergency department due to premature uterine contractions. Upon interview, it was noted the she has history of untreated mitral valve stenosis. Tocolysis was then planned after a necessary evaluation was performed and revealed that there is absence of contraindications.
Which of the following would be considered the drug of choice for tocolysis?Your Answer: Salbutamol
Correct Answer: Oxytocin antagonists
Explanation:Tocolysis is an obstetrical procedure to prolong gestation in patients, some of which are experiencing preterm labour. This is achieved through various medications that work to inhibit contractions of uterine smooth muscle.
There is no definitive first-line tocolytic agent by the American College of Obstetrics and Gynecology (ACOG) but nifedipine is most commonly used. However, in severe aortic stenosis, nifedipine can cause ventricular collapse and dysfunction.
The therapeutic target in the treatment of preterm labour is currently the pharmacological inhibition of uterine contractions with the use of various tocolytic agents. Tocolytic agents are used to maintain pregnancy for 24–48 hours to allow corticosteroids administration to act and to permit the transfer of the mother to a centre with a neonatal intensive care unit.
Oxytocin inhibitors work by competitively acting at the oxytocin receptor site. Oxytocin acts to increase the intracellular levels of inositol triphosphate. The medications currently in this class are atosiban and retosiban. Maternal nor fetal side effects have not been described for this tocolytic.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 48
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old Aboriginal woman is found to be lgM positive, but lgG negative after exposure to a child with rubella during the first trimester of pregnancy.
On laboratory investigation, rubella infection is confirmed as repeated serology testing shows not only a positive lgM, but also a rising titers of lgG.
Among the following next steps in management, which one is considered to be the most appropriate?Your Answer: Give MMR vaccine
Correct Answer: Termination of the pregnancy
Explanation:Antenatal screening for rubella IgG is a routine recommended for all pregnant women at their first visit. All pregnant women who have a history of contact with rubella or any clinical features consistent with rubella –like illness should be screened for the presence of rising antibody titre and / or rubella specific IgM. Serological confirmation is mandatory for diagnosing rubella.
As in this case scenario, positive lgM for rubella indicates active rubella infection, in such cases it is recommended to repeat the test. If lgM is still positive, it confirms rubella infection. No further testing from another laboratory is required.
The risk for fetal infection and damage is higher if rubella infection occurs during the first trimester of pregnancy, which is 85% in the first two months of pregnancy and 50 -80% in the third month. Therefore, termination of pregnancy is usually recommended in this situation. NHIG has been used in trials for prophylaxis and prevention of congenital rubella syndrome after contact to a case with rubella infection, but the results have been discouraging, therefore, it is not advisable.
In the given case, rubella infection has been established already, so NHIG will not be of any benefit as primary prevention.
Rubella-containing vaccines like MMR vaccine is a live attenuated vaccine are contraindicated throughout pregnancy, it should be avoided; and women who remain susceptible to rubella should receive MMR vaccine postpartum.
Risk of fetal infection and/or fetal damage or for development of congenital rubella syndrome is related to the timing of maternal infection. Cases with Primary infection is found to be in higher risk
In cases of asymptomatic re-infection with a good history of previous positive serology, even though it is difficult to quantify, the risk of fetal infection has been reported to be < 5 percent. Congenital rubella syndrome following maternal re-infection is considered rare particularly if re-infection occurs after 12 weeks. If the clinical picture is typically of rubella or if possibility of previous immunity is inconclusive based on serology, then the risk is assumed to be the same as that of primary infection. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 49
Incorrect
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An 19-year old female came in at the clinic for her first prenatal visit. She claims to have had regular menstrual cycles even while she was on oral contraceptives (OCP). 20 weeks ago, she stopped taking her OCPs and had a menstrual period few days after. No vaginal bleeding or fluid loss were noted since then. On physical examination, the uterus is palpated right above pubic symphysis. Fetal heartbeats are evident on handheld Doppler ultrasound. Which of the statements can mostly explain the difference between the dates and uterine size?
Your Answer: The membranes have ruptured.
Correct Answer: Ovulation did not occur until 6-8 weeks after her last period.
Explanation:When the palpated uterine size is in discrepancy with the expected size based on the duration of amenorrhoea, it can have several causes including reduced fluid volume or fetal growth (both of which are more common when there is fetal malformation), or miscalculated age of gestation as a result of wrong dates or actual ovulation occurring at a later date than expected. Reduced fluid volume and fetal growth are the most likely aetiologies during the third trimester of pregnancy, unlike in this patient at 20 weeks age of gestation.
Premature rupture of membranes is less likely the cause when there is negative vaginal fluid loss like this patient.
The most likely cause in this case is that ovulation did not occur as expected, especially when the patient ceased her OCPs during this period. In some instances, ovulation can occur 2 weeks later in about 50% of women, 6 weeks later in 90%, and may still not occur 12 months later in 1% of women.
The other listed statements are unlikely to explain the discrepancies in dates and the observed uterine size in this patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 50
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman presented with nausea and vomiting along with headache during pregnancy. She also has a past medical history of a migraine.
What among the following will be the most appropriate management in this case?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Codein and promethazine
Explanation:This patient should be given promethazine and codeine as she presents with severe migraine.
Usage of metoclopramide is safe during pregnancy and for increasing effectiveness it can be added to paracetamol. However, because of its risk for causing extrapyramidal effects it should be used only as a second-line therapy and Promethazine should be considered as the first line choice of remedy. So the answer is Codeine and promethazine.
Opioid pain relievers such as codeine are not been reported of having any associated with increased birth defects or miscarriage, but its long-term use can lead to dependency in mother and withdrawal signs in the baby.
Paracetamol alone or combined with codeine is not found to be useful in controlling vomiting.
It is advised to completely avoid dihydroergotamine and the triptans throughout pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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