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  • Question 1 - A 24-year-old patient is suspected to have a possible acute hepatitis B infection...

    Correct

    • A 24-year-old patient is suspected to have a possible acute hepatitis B infection and is currently under investigation.

      Which of the following markers is considered the earliest indicator of acute infection in acute Hepatitis B?

      Your Answer: Hepatitis B surface Ag

      Explanation:

      HBsAg is the serological hallmark of HBV infection. After an acute exposure to HBV, HBsAg appears in serum within 1 to 10 weeks. Persistence of this marker for more than 6 months implies chronic HBV infection.

      Anti-HBs is known as a neutralizing antibody, and confers long-term immunity. In patients with acquired immunity through vaccination, anti-HBs is the only serological marker detected in serum.

      HBcAg is an intracellular presence in infected hepatocyte, thus it is not identified in the serum. During acute infection, anti-HBc IgM and IgG emerges 1–2 weeks after the presence of HBsAg along with raised serum aminotransferase and symptoms. After 6 months of acute infection, anti-HBc IgM wears off. Anti-HBc IgG continues to detect in both patients with resolved HBV infection and chronic hepatitis B.

      Hepatitis D virus, also known as the delta hepatitis virus, is a defective ssRNA virus that requires HBV for replication. The infection can occur in one of two clinical forms, co-infection or superinfection. In a co-infection, the patient is simultaneously infected with HBV and HDV. In a superinfection, an HDV infection develops in a patient with a chronic HBV infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Specific Pathogen Groups
      72
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 30-year-old woman presents with a history of fever and sore throat. On...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old woman presents with a history of fever and sore throat. On examination, there is tonsillar exudate and cervical lymphadenopathy and a diagnosis of tonsillitis is made. A course of penicillin is prescribed.

      What is the mechanism of action of penicillin?

      Your Answer: Inhibition of cell wall synthesis

      Explanation:

      Penicillin is bactericidal and produces its antimicrobial action by preventing cross-linkage between the linear peptidoglycan polymer chains that make up the bacterial cell wall. This action inhibits cell wall synthesis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infections
      • Pharmacology
      26.9
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - What is the main mechanism of action of dopamine as an inotropic sympathomimetic: ...

    Correct

    • What is the main mechanism of action of dopamine as an inotropic sympathomimetic:

      Your Answer: Beta1-receptor agonist

      Explanation:

      Dopamine is a neurotransmitter and a metabolic precursor of the catecholamines. It acts on beta1-receptors in cardiac muscle increasing cardiac contractility, and increases renal perfusion by stimulating dopamine receptors in the renal vasculature. This is of benefit in cardiogenic shock where deterioration of renal function is common.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Pharmacology
      17.7
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A man suffered from a back injury due to a fall from a...

    Incorrect

    • A man suffered from a back injury due to a fall from a ladder. Significant bruising was found to be overlying his latissimus dorsi muscle.

      Which of the following statements regarding the latissimus dorsi muscle is considered correct?

      Your Answer: It is the most superficial back muscle

      Correct Answer: It raises the body towards the arm during climbing

      Explanation:

      The latissimus dorsi muscle is a broad, flat muscle that occupies the majority of the lower posterior thorax. The muscle’s primary function is of the upper extremity but is also considered to be a respiratory accessory muscle.

      Latissimus dorsi is a climbing muscle. With the arms fixed above the head, it can raise the trunk upwards, together with the help of pectoralis major.

      Functionally, the latissimus dorsi muscle belongs to the muscles of the scapular motion. This muscle is able to pull the inferior angle of the scapula in various directions, producing movements on the shoulder joint (internal rotation, adduction and extension of the arm). It is innervated by the thoracodorsal nerve (C6 – C8) from the posterior cord of the brachial plexus, which enters the muscle on its deep surface.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      70.7
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Which of the following statements accurately describes the extensor indicis muscle? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements accurately describes the extensor indicis muscle?

      Your Answer: It assists with adduction of the hand at the wrist joint

      Correct Answer: It lacks the juncturae tendinum

      Explanation:

      Extensor indicis is a narrow, elongated muscle found in the posterior compartment of the forearm. It belongs to the deep extensors of the forearm, together with supinator, abductor pollicis longus, extensor pollicis longus, and extensor pollicis brevis muscles. It lacks the juncturae tendinum, which connects the extensor digitorum on the dorsal aspect of the hand.

      Extensor indicis can be palpated by applying deep pressure over the lower part of the ulna while the index finger is extended. The main function of extensor indicis involves the extension of the index finger at the metacarpophalangeal and interphalangeal joints. As the index finger is one of the few fingers that have their own separate extensor muscle, it is able to extend independently from other fingers. Additionally, extensor indicis muscle produces a weak extension of the wrist.

      Extensor indicis receives its nervous supply from posterior interosseous nerve, a branch of the radial nerve derived from spinal roots C7 and C8. The skin overlying the muscle is supplied by the same nerve, with fibres that stem from the spinal roots C6 and C7.

      The superficial surface of the extensor indicis receives arterial blood supply from posterior interosseous branch of the ulnar artery, whereas its deep surface receives blood from perforating branches of the anterior interosseous artery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      79.8
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - In the foetus at 4 months gestation, where does haematopoiesis mainly occur? ...

    Incorrect

    • In the foetus at 4 months gestation, where does haematopoiesis mainly occur?

      Your Answer: Marrow of axial skeleton

      Correct Answer: Liver and spleen

      Explanation:

      The first place that haematopoiesis occurs in the foetus is in the yolk sac. Later on, it occurs in the liver and spleen, which are the major hematopoietic organs from about 6 weeks until 6 – 7 months gestation. At this point, the bone marrow becomes the most important site. Haemopoiesis is restricted to the bone marrow in normal childhood and adult life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Cellular
      • Physiology
      28.7
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - All of the statements regarding vascular tone are correct except: ...

    Incorrect

    • All of the statements regarding vascular tone are correct except:

      Your Answer: Most types of vascular smooth muscle do not generate action potentials, but instead depolarisation is graded, allowing graded entry of Ca2+.

      Correct Answer: Most endogenous vasodilators act by decreasing levels of cAMP or cGMP.

      Explanation:

      Most vasoconstrictors bind to G-protein coupled receptors. These mediate elevation in intracellular [Ca2+] which leads to vascular smooth muscle contraction. Important vasoconstrictors include noradrenaline, endothelin-1 and angiotensin II.

      Increased intracellular Ca2+ is as a result of the release of Ca2+from the sarcoplasmic reticulum and depolarisation and entry of Ca2+via L-type voltage-gated Ca2+channels. Most types of vascular smooth muscle do not generate action potentials – instead, the depolarisation is graded, which allows graded entry of Ca2+.
      sequestration by the sarcoplasmic reticulum Ca2+ATPase, removal from the cell by a plasma membrane Ca2+ATPase and Na+/Ca2+exchange decreases intracellular Ca2+, resulting in vasodilation. Relaxation is a result of most endogenous vasodilators when there is an increase in cyclic guanosine monophosphate (cGMP) like nitric oxide) or cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP) like prostacyclin and beta-adrenergic receptor agonists. These activate protein kinases causing substrate level phosphorylation.
      Clinically effective vasodilators are L-type Ca2+channel blocker drugs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      248.6
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Which of the following corticosteroids has the most potent mineralocorticoid effect: ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following corticosteroids has the most potent mineralocorticoid effect:

      Your Answer: Fludrocortisone

      Explanation:

      Fludrocortisone has the most potent mineralocorticosteroid activity, making it ideal for mineralocorticoid replacement in adrenal insufficiency.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine
      • Pharmacology
      10.3
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A study investigating the risk of suffering a stroke in patients with atrial...

    Correct

    • A study investigating the risk of suffering a stroke in patients with atrial fibrillation taking the new antiplatelet drug ticagrelor, compared with standard treatment with warfarin is done over a 2-year time period. 30 of the 300 patients taking ticagrelor and 20 of the 500 patients taking warfarin suffered a stroke over the 2-year period.

      One of these statements is true regarding the outcomes of this study.

      Your Answer: Ticagrelor increases the risk of stroke

      Explanation:

      Absolute risk and relative risk are used to assess the strength of a relationship between a disease and a factor that may affect it.

      Absolute risk (AR) is the risk of developing a disease over a time period:
      AR = the number of events that occur in a group / number of people in that group

      The absolute risk reduction (ARR) is the difference between the absolute risk in the control group (ARC) and the absolute risk in the treated group (ART).

      ARR = ARC – ART

      The control group is the warfarin group, therefore the ARC is 20/500 (0.04).
      Treatment group is the ticagrelor group and ART = 30/300 (0.1).

      ARR = 0.04 – 0.1 = -0.06. This shows that treatment with ticagrelor increases risk of developing stroke. This is also termed a relative risk increase.

      Relative risk, or risk ratio, (RR) is used to compare the risk in the two different groups. It is the ratio of the absolute risks of the disease in the treatment group (ART) to the absolute risk of the disease in the control group (ARC):
      RR=ART /ARC

      Therefore RR = 0.1 / 0.04 = 2.5
      RR < 1 means the intervention reduces the risk of the outcome being studied
      RR = 1 means the treatment has no effect on the outcome being studied
      RR > 1 means the intervention increased the risk of the outcome being studied
      Since RR is 2.5, ticagrelor increases the risk of stroke.

      SUMMARY
      Absolute risk reduction is -0.06
      Absolute risk in warfarin group = 0.04
      Relative risk = 2.5
      Ticagrelor has no effect on stroke is incorrect because RR is not =1

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Medicine
      128.9
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Regarding fluid balance, which of the following statements is CORRECT: ...

    Correct

    • Regarding fluid balance, which of the following statements is CORRECT:

      Your Answer: About three-quarters of extracellular fluid is interstitial.

      Explanation:

      An ‘average’ person (70 kg male) contains about 40 litres of water in total, separated into different fluid compartments by biological semipermeable membranes; plasma cell membranes between extracellular and intracellular fluid, and capillary walls between interstitial and intravascular fluid. Around two-thirds of the total fluid (27 L) is intracellular fluid (ICF) and one-third of this (13 L) is extracellular fluid (ECF). The ECF can be further divided into intravascular fluid (3.5 L) and interstitial fluid (9.5 L).
      Transcellular fluid refers to any fluid that does not contribute to any of the main compartments but which are derived from them e.g. gastrointestinal secretions and cerebrospinal fluid, and has a collective volume of approximately 2 L.
      Osmosis is the passive movement of water across a semipermeable membrane from regions of low solute concentration to those of higher solute concentration.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Cellular
      • Physiology
      75.8
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Which of the following hormones is dysfunctional in diabetes insipidus: ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following hormones is dysfunctional in diabetes insipidus:

      Your Answer: Antidiuretic hormone

      Explanation:

      Diabetes insipidus (DI) may result from a deficiency of ADH secretion (cranial DI) or from an inappropriate renal response to ADH (nephrogenic DI). As a result, fluid reabsorption at the kidneys is impaired, resulting in large amounts of hypotonic, dilute urine being passed with a profound unquenchable polydipsia.
      The biochemical hallmarks of DI are:
      High plasma osmolality (> 295 mOsm/kg)
      Low urine osmolality (< 300 mOsm/kg)
      Hypernatraemia (> 145 mmol/L)
      High urine volume

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine
      • Physiology
      15.4
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - You have been asked to give a tutorial on common upper limb neurology...

    Incorrect

    • You have been asked to give a tutorial on common upper limb neurology to a group of medical students. You use the example of a man falling from a balcony onto spiked fencing, sustaining a puncture wound to the axilla. This results in an injury to the musculocutaneous nerve. Which of the following clinical features would you LEAST expect to see in this patient:

      Your Answer: Loss of sensation to skin over the lateral forearm

      Correct Answer: Weakness of forearm pronation

      Explanation:

      Flexion of the arm and flexion and supination of the forearm are weakened but not lost entirely due to the actions of the pectoralis major and deltoid, the brachioradialis and the supinator muscles respectively. There is loss of sensation over the lateral aspect of the forearm. Forearm pronation would not be affected as this is primarily produced by the pronator quadratus and pronator teres muscles, innervated by the median nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      53.9
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 56-year-old female presents at the hospital with a diabetic foot ulcer that...

    Correct

    • A 56-year-old female presents at the hospital with a diabetic foot ulcer that has become infected. She has a longstanding history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and diabetic polyneuropathy. She has trouble controlling her blood sugar levels, and recently, she was converted to a new insulin regimen that includes intermediate-acting insulin.

      Out of the following, which one is the intermediate-acting insulin?

      Your Answer: Isophane insulin

      Explanation:

      Insulin is used mainly in type 1 diabetes, where the pancreas makes no insulin and can sometimes be prescribed in type 1 diabetes. There are different types of insulin categorized by their onset of action:

      1. Intermediate-acting insulins (isophane insulin NPH):
      – intermediate duration of action, designed to mimic the effect of endogenous basal insulin
      – starts their action in 1 to 4 hours
      – peaks in 4 to 8 hours
      – dosing is usually twice a day and helps maintain blood sugar throughout the day
      – Isophane insulin is a suspension of insulin with protamine

      2. Short-acting insulins (regular insulin)
      – starts the action in 30 to 40 minutes
      – peaks in 90 to 120 minutes
      – duration of action is 6 to 8 hours
      – taken before meals, and food is necessary within 30 minutes after its administration to avoid hypoglycaemia

      3. Long-acting insulins (glargine, detemir, degludec)
      – start action in 1 to 2 hours
      – plateau effect over 12 to 24 hours
      – Dosing is usually during the night-time after meals. Their long duration of action helps in reducing the frequency of dosing throughout the day.

      4. Rapid-acting insulins (lispro, aspart, glulisine)
      – start their action in 5 to 15 minutes
      – peak in 30 minutes
      – The duration of action is 3 to 5 hours
      – generally used before meals and always used along with short-acting or long-acting insulins to control sugar levels throughout the day.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      36.8
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Aside from the inability to extend the leg above the knee, which of...

    Correct

    • Aside from the inability to extend the leg above the knee, which of the following clinical symptoms should you anticipate seeing in a patient who had a pelvic and right leg injury as well as femoral nerve damage?

      Your Answer: Loss of sensation over the anterior thigh

      Explanation:

      The femoral nerve runs down the front of the leg from the pelvis. It gives the front of the thigh and a portion of the lower leg sensation.

      Extension of the leg at the knee joint, flexion of the thigh at the hip are produced by muscles that is primarily innervated by the femoral nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      60.9
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Glucagon may be used as an antidote for overdose with which of the...

    Correct

    • Glucagon may be used as an antidote for overdose with which of the following:

      Your Answer: Beta blockers

      Explanation:

      Glucagon is a peptide hormone that is produced and secreted by alpha cells of the islets of Langerhans, which are located in the endocrine portion of the pancreas. The main physiological role of glucagon is to stimulate hepatic glucose output, thereby leading to increases in glycaemia. It provides the major counter-regulatory mechanism to insulin in maintaining glucose homeostasis.
      Hypoglycaemia is the principal stimulus for the secretion of glucagon but may also be used as an antidote in beta-blocker overdose and in anaphylaxis in patients on beta-blockers that fail to respond to adrenaline.
      Glucagon then causes:
      Glycogenolysis
      Gluconeogenesis
      Lipolysis in adipose tissue
      The secretion of glucagon is also stimulated by:
      Adrenaline
      Cholecystokinin
      Arginine
      Alanine
      Acetylcholine
      The secretion of glucagon is inhibited by:
      Insulin
      Somatostatin
      Increased free fatty acids
      Increased urea production

      Glycolysis is the metabolic pathway that converts glucose into pyruvate. The free energy released by this process is used to form ATP and NADH. Glycolysis is inhibited by glucagon, and glycolysis and gluconeogenesis are reciprocally regulated so that when one cell pathway is activated, the other is inactive and vice versa.

      Glucagon has a minor effect of enhancing lipolysis in adipose tissue. Lipolysis is the breakdown of lipids and involves the hydrolysis of triglycerides into glycerol and free fatty acids. It makes fatty acids available for oxidation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine
      • Pharmacology
      45.6
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 62-year-old woman presents with cold sensitivity, tiredness, and weight gain. A series...

    Correct

    • A 62-year-old woman presents with cold sensitivity, tiredness, and weight gain. A series of blood tests done shows a grossly elevated TSH level and a diagnosis of hypothyroidism is made.

      What is the commonest cause of hypothyroidism worldwide?

      Your Answer: Iodine deficiency

      Explanation:

      Hypothyroidism occurs when there is a deficiency of circulating thyroid hormones. It is commoner in women and is most frequently seen in the age over 60.

      Iodine deficiency is the commonest cause of hypothyroidism worldwide.

      In developed countries, iodine deficiency is not a problem and autoimmune thyroiditis is the commonest cause.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine Physiology
      • Physiology
      23.7
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - In which part of the gastrointestinal tract is Meckel's diverticulum commonly located? ...

    Incorrect

    • In which part of the gastrointestinal tract is Meckel's diverticulum commonly located?

      Your Answer: Ascending colon

      Correct Answer: Ileum

      Explanation:

      Meckel’s diverticulum is the most prevalent congenital anomaly of the gastrointestinal tract, affecting approximately 2% of the general population. Meckel’s diverticulum are designated true diverticula because their walls contain all the layers found in normal small intestine. Their location varies among individual patients, but they are usually found in the ileum within 100 cm of the ileocecal valve.

      Approximately 60% of Meckel’s diverticulum contain heterotopic mucosa, of which over 60% consist of gastric mucosa. Pancreatic acini are the next most common; others include Brunner’s glands, pancreatic islets, colonic mucosa, endometriosis, and hepatobiliary tissues.

      A useful, although crude, mnemonic describing Meckel’s diverticulum is the “rule of twos”: 2% prevalence, 2:1 male predominance, location 2 feet proximal to the ileocecal valve in adults, and half of those who are symptomatic are under 2 years of age.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen And Pelvis
      • Anatomy
      25.3
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 77 year old lady presents to ED with her left leg shortened...

    Incorrect

    • A 77 year old lady presents to ED with her left leg shortened and externally rotated following slipping and falling on a wet bathroom floor. There is an intracapsular fracture of the neck of femur seen on imaging studies. She is at risk of avascular necrosis of the head of femur.

      This is caused by lack of blood supply from which of these arteries?

      Your Answer: Lateral circumflex artery

      Correct Answer: Medial circumflex artery

      Explanation:

      The primary blood supply to the head of the femur is from branches of the medial femoral circumflex artery.

      The superior and inferior gluteal arteries supply the hip joint but not the head of femur.

      The lateral circumflex artery anastomoses with the medial femoral circumflex artery and assists in supplying the head of femur.

      The obturator artery is an important source of blood supply in children up to about 8 years. It gives rise to the artery of the head of femur which runs in the ligamentum teres and is insufficient to supply the head of femur in adults.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      52.1
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Regarding antacids, which of the following statements is CORRECT: ...

    Correct

    • Regarding antacids, which of the following statements is CORRECT:

      Your Answer: Antacids are contraindicated in hypophosphataemia.

      Explanation:

      Antacids are contraindicated in hypophosphataemia. Liquid preparations are more effective than tablet preparations. Magnesium-containing antacids tend to be laxative whereas aluminium-containing antacids tend to be constipating. Antacids are best taken when symptoms occur or are expected, usually between meals and at bedtime. Antacids should preferably not be taken at the same time as other drugs since they may impair absorption.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Pharmacology
      54.3
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Regarding NSAIDs, which of the following statements is CORRECT: ...

    Correct

    • Regarding NSAIDs, which of the following statements is CORRECT:

      Your Answer: Diclofenac is contraindicated in people with ischaemic heart disease.

      Explanation:

      Due to their increased risk of cardiovascular adverse events, coxibs and diclofenac are contraindicated in people with ischaemic heart disease, cerebrovascular disease, peripheral arterial disease and mild, moderate, or severe heart failure. Other NSAIDs are only contraindicated in people with severe heart failure. Selective inhibition of COX-2 is associated with less gastrointestinal intolerance. In single doses NSAIDs have analgesic activity comparable to that of paracetamol, therefore given their side effect profile, paracetamol is preferred, particularly in the elderly. Pain relief starts soon after taking the first dose and a full analgesic effect should normally be obtained within a week, whereas an anti-inflammatory effect may not be achieved (or may not be clinically assessable) for up to 3 weeks. Mefenamic acid has only very mild anti-inflammatory properties.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      • Pharmacology
      55.8
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - Haemophilia B results from a deficiency in: ...

    Incorrect

    • Haemophilia B results from a deficiency in:

      Your Answer: Von Willebrand factor

      Correct Answer: Factor IX

      Explanation:

      Haemophilia B is a bleeding disorder caused by a deficiency of clotting factor IX. It is the second commonest form of haemophilia, and is rarer than haemophilia A. Haemophilia B tends to be similar to haemophilia A but less severe. The two disorders can only be distinguished by specific coagulation factor assays.

      The incidence is one-fifth of that of haemophilia A. Laboratory findings demonstrate prolonged APTT, normal PT and low factor IX.
      Haemophilia B inherited in an X-linked recessive fashion, affecting males born to carrier mothers.
      There is also a variation called Leyden, in which factor IX levels are below 1% until puberty, when they rise, potentially reaching as high as 40-60% of normal. This is thought to be due to the effects of testosterone at puberty.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      20.7
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 66-year-old male was admitted from the Emergency Department due to severe pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 66-year-old male was admitted from the Emergency Department due to severe pain in the left forearm and hand, refractory to pain medication along with pallor and hypothermia of the affected limb. Ultrasound doppler showed an arterial embolism. Circulation was restored after vascular surgery, but there was extensive, irreversible muscle damage.

      How will the muscle heal from an injury of this type?

      Your Answer: Volkmann’s ischaemic contracture

      Correct Answer: Diffuse formation of fibrous tissue

      Explanation:

      Once muscle tissue is damaged, there will be healing via diffuse formation of fibrous tissue, especially due to the widespread ischemia.

      Callus formation takes place in the healing of bone, not muscle.

      Organised scar formation occurs when a lacerated wound is approximated by sutures so that primary intention wound healing can occur.

      Liquefaction degeneration occurs following ischemia in the brain.

      Volkmann’s ischemic contracture may occur, but it is not the primary type of healing that will take place but rather the effect of the fibrous scar formation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Pathology
      • Pathology
      84.3
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - Which of the following statements is INCORRECT. Fick's law tells us that the...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is INCORRECT. Fick's law tells us that the rate of diffusion of a gas across a membrane increases as:

      Your Answer: the solubility of the gas in the membrane increases.

      Correct Answer: the partial pressure gradient decreases.

      Explanation:

      Fick’s law tells us that the rate of diffusion of a gas increases:
      the larger the surface area involved in gas exchange
      the greater the partial pressure gradient across the membrane
      the thinner the membrane
      the more soluble the gas in the membrane
      the lower the molecular weight of the gas

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory
      39.4
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - Tiredness, night sweats, and easy bruising are symptoms of a 58-year-old woman. Splenomegaly...

    Correct

    • Tiredness, night sweats, and easy bruising are symptoms of a 58-year-old woman. Splenomegaly is observed during the examination.

      Which of the following diagnoses is the SINGLE MOST LIKELY?

      Your Answer: Chronic myeloid leukaemia (CML)

      Explanation:

      CML is a myeloproliferative disorder characterised by an abnormal pluripotent haemopoietic stem cell. A cytogenetic abnormality known as the Philadelphia chromosome, which results from a reciprocal translocation between the long arms of chromosomes 9 and 22, causes more than 80% of cases of CML.

      CML is a disease that develops slowly over several years. This is known as the ‘chronic stage.’ This stage is usually asymptomatic, and 90 percent of patients are diagnosed at this point, with the disease being discovered frequently as a result of a routine blood test. During this stage, the bone marrow contains less than 10% immature white cells (blasts).

      When CML cells expand, symptoms typically begin to appear. The ‘accelerated stage’ is what it’s called. Approximately 10% of people are diagnosed at this point. During this stage, between 10% and 30% of blood cells in the bone marrow are blasts. During this stage, common clinical features include:
      Fatigue and exhaustion
      Night sweats and fever
      Distension of the abdomen
      Pain in the left upper quadrant (splenic infarction)
      Splenomegaly (commonest examination finding)
      Hepatomegaly
      Bruising is simple.
      Gout is a type of arthritis that affects (rapid cell turnover)
      Hyperviscosity is a condition in which the viscosity of (CVA, priapism)
      A small percentage of patients experience a ‘blast crisis’ (blast stage). More than 30% of the blood cells in the bone marrow are immature blast cells at this stage. Patients with severe constitutional symptoms (fever, weight loss, bone pain), infections, and bleeding diathesis typically present at this stage.

      In CML, laboratory findings include:
      White cell count is abnormally high (often greater than 100 x 109/l).
      Increased number of immature leukocytes causes a left shift.
      Anaemia that is mild to moderately normochromic and normocytic.
      Platelets can be low, normal, or elevated, and the Philadelphia chromosome can be found in > 80% of patients.
      Serum uric acid and ALP levels are frequently elevated.
      Tyrosine kinase inhibitors (TKIs), such as imatinib and dasatinib, are the current mainstay of CML treatment.
      Allogenic bone marrow transplantation is now only used in cases where TKIs have failed to work.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      32.3
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - Which of the following causes increased aldosterone secretion: ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following causes increased aldosterone secretion:

      Your Answer: Administration of an ACE inhibitor

      Correct Answer: Decreased blood volume

      Explanation:

      Decreased blood volume stimulates the secretion of renin (because of decreased renal perfusion pressure) and initiates the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone cascade. Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors block the cascade by decreasing the production of angiotensin. Hyperosmolarity stimulates antidiuretic hormone (ADH) [not aldosterone] secretion. Hyperkalaemia, not hypokalaemia, directly stimulates aldosterone secretion by the adrenal cortex. ANP inhibits renin secretion, thereby inhibiting the production of angiotensin and aldosterone.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal
      21.2
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 63-year-old man complains of chest pain and syncope on occasion. His heart...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old man complains of chest pain and syncope on occasion. His heart rate is 37 beats per minute, and he has a second-degree heart block, according to his rhythm strip.

      Which of the following would be the most appropriate next step in his management, according to the ALS bradycardia algorithm?

      Your Answer: Set up transcutaneous pacing

      Correct Answer: Give atropine 500 mcg

      Explanation:

      Atropine is used to treat bradycardia (sinus, atrial, or nodal) or AV block when the patient’s haemodynamic condition is compromised by the bradycardia.

      If any of the following adverse features are present, the ALS bradycardia algorithm recommends a dose of atropine 500 mcg IV:
      Shock
      Syncope
      Myocardial ischemia
      Insufficiency of the heart

      If this does not work, give additional 500 mcg doses at 3-5 minute intervals until a maximum dose of 3 mg is reached. The heart rate can be slowed paradoxically if the dose is higher than 3 mg.

      The ALS bradycardia algorithm also suggests the following interim measures:
      Transcutaneous pacing
      Isoprenaline infusion 5 mcg/min
      Adrenaline infusion 2-10 mcg/minutes
      Alternative drugs (aminophylline, dopamine, glucagon, glycopyrrolate)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      69.6
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - Swelling of the lips, tongue, and face is observed in a 59-year-old African-American...

    Correct

    • Swelling of the lips, tongue, and face is observed in a 59-year-old African-American woman. In the emergency room, she is given intramuscular adrenaline, but her symptoms do not improve. Her GP recently started her on a new medication.

      Which of the following drugs is most likely to have caused her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Ramipril

      Explanation:

      Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are the most common cause of drug-induced angioedema in the United Kingdom and the United States, owing to their widespread use.

      Angioedema is caused by ACE inhibitors in 0.1 to 0.7 percent of patients, with data indicating a persistent and relatively constant risk year after year. People of African descent have a five-fold higher chance of contracting the disease.

      Swelling of the lips, tongue, or face is the most common symptom, but another symptom is episodic abdominal pain due to intestinal angioedema. Itching and urticaria are noticeably absent.

      The mechanism appears to be activated complement or other pro-inflammatory cytokines like prostaglandins and histamine, which cause rapid vasodilation and oedema.

      Other medications that are less frequently linked to angioedema include:
      Angiotensin-receptor blockers (ARBs)
      Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)
      Bupropion (e.g. Zyban and Wellbutrin)
      Beta-lactam antibiotics
      Statins
      Proton pump inhibitors

      The majority of these reactions are minor and can be treated by stopping the drug and prescribing antihistamines.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      27.1
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - Intrinsic factor is vital for gastrointestinal absorption of which of the following: ...

    Correct

    • Intrinsic factor is vital for gastrointestinal absorption of which of the following:

      Your Answer: Vitamin B12

      Explanation:

      Intrinsic factor is essential for the absorption of the small amounts of vitamin B12 normally present in the diet from the terminal ileum. The parietal cells of the stomach produce intrinsic factor, and following a gastrectomy, the absorption of vitamin B12 will be markedly reduced, and a deficiency state will exist.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Physiology
      25.1
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A blood transfusion is given to a 52-year-old woman. She develops chills and...

    Incorrect

    • A blood transfusion is given to a 52-year-old woman. She develops chills and rigours shortly after the transfusion begins.

      The following are her observations: Temperature 40°C, HR 116 bpm, BP 80/48, SaO 2 97 percent on air.

      Which of the following treatments is the most appropriate?

      Your Answer: Stop the transfusion and administer corticosteroids

      Correct Answer: Stop the transfusion and administer antibiotics

      Explanation:

      Bacterial infections are common in the following situations:

      Platelet transfusions are associated with a higher risk of bacterial infection (as platelets are stored at room temperature)
      Immersion in a water bath thawed previously frozen components.
      Components of red blood cells that have been stored for several weeks
      Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria have both been linked to transfusion-transmitted bacterial infection, but Gram-negative bacteria are linked to a higher rate of morbidity and mortality.
      Yersinia enterocolitica is the most common bacterial organism linked to transfusion-transmitted bacterial infection. This organism can multiply at low temperatures while also utilising iron as a nutrient. As a result, it’s well-suited to proliferating in blood banks.

      The following are some of the most common clinical signs and symptoms of a bacterial infection transmitted through a blood transfusion. These symptoms usually appear shortly after the transfusion begins:
      Fever is very high.
      Rigours and chills
      Vomiting and nausea
      Tachycardia
      Hypotension
      Collapse of the circulatory system

      If a bacterial infection from a transfusion is suspected, the transfusion should be stopped right away. Blood cultures and a Gram stain should be requested, as well as broad-spectrum antibiotics. In addition, the blood pack should be returned to the blood bank for an urgent culture and Gram-stain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      82.1
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 35-year-old man presents with haemoptysis, night sweats, and weight loss. Further examinations...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man presents with haemoptysis, night sweats, and weight loss. Further examinations were done and a diagnosis of tuberculosis is suspected.

      Which of the following statements is considered correct regarding Mycobacterium tuberculosis?

      Your Answer: The Ghon focus typically appears at the base of the lower lobe of the lung

      Correct Answer: It is impervious to decolourisation with acid

      Explanation:

      Mycobacterium tuberculosis are part of the Mycobacteriaceae family. They are described to have the characteristics of a Gram-positive cell wall but they are not easily stained with Gram stain. This is because their cell wall contains a high lipid content, and this lipid allows the Mycobacteria to bind to alkaline stains with the application and help of heat. Once stained, they are able to resist decolorization even with the use of acid alcohol as the decolourizer, making them very difficult to decolorize, that is why they are known to be acid-fast.

      The Ghon complex is a non-pathognomonic radiographic finding on a chest x-ray that is significant for pulmonary infection of tuberculosis. The location of the Ghon’s focus is usually subpleural and predominantly in the upper part of the lower lobe and lower part of the middle or upper lobe.

      Skeletal tuberculosis of the spine is referred to as Pott disease.

      The risk of reactivation TB is about 3.3% during the first year after a positive PPD skin test and a total of 5% to 15% thereafter in the person’s lifetime. Progression from infection to active disease varies with age and the intensity and duration of exposure. Reactivation TB occurs when there is an alteration or suppression of the cellular immune system in the infected host that favours
      replication of the bacilli and progression to disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Specific Pathogen Groups
      96
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Microbiology (1/2) 50%
Specific Pathogen Groups (1/2) 50%
Infections (1/1) 100%
Pharmacology (8/9) 89%
Cardiovascular (1/2) 50%
Anatomy (1/6) 17%
Upper Limb (0/3) 0%
Basic Cellular (1/2) 50%
Physiology (4/8) 50%
Endocrine (3/3) 100%
Evidence Based Medicine (1/1) 100%
Endocrine Pharmacology (1/1) 100%
Lower Limb (1/2) 50%
Endocrine Physiology (1/1) 100%
Abdomen And Pelvis (0/1) 0%
Gastrointestinal (2/2) 100%
Musculoskeletal (1/1) 100%
Haematology (1/3) 33%
Pathology (1/4) 25%
General Pathology (0/1) 0%
Respiratory (0/1) 0%
Renal (0/1) 0%
Cardiovascular Pharmacology (1/2) 50%
Passmed