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Question 1
Correct
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From the following statements, which is true of humidification?
Your Answer: Ultrasonic humidifier can achieve greater than 100% relative humidity
Explanation:Increasing temperature increases the amount of water vapour contained in air; for example, at 20°C, air contains about 17 g/m3, and at 37°C, air contains about 44 g/m3. The wet and dry bulb hygrometer, like the hair hygrometer, measures relative humidity.
Under normal operating conditions, Heat and moisture exchangers (HMEs) allows relative humidity of up to 70% to be achieved. Mucus can impair their performance, and they should not be used for longer than 24 hours.
Hot water bath humidifiers might cause scalding, condensed water in the tubing can interfere with gas flow, and there is a danger of infection.
The ultrasonic humidifier operates at roughly 2 MHz and may attain relative humidity levels much above 100%.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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Question 2
Incorrect
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You've been summoned to the paediatric ward after a 4-year-old child was discovered 'collapsed' in bed.
The child had been admitted the day before with febrile convulsions and was scheduled to be discharged. It is safe to approach the child.
What should your first life-saving action be?Your Answer: Open the airway
Correct Answer: Apply a gentle stimulus and ask the child if they are alright
Explanation:Paediatric life support differs from adult life support in that hypoxia is the primary cause of deterioration.
After checking for danger, the child should be given a gentle stimulus (such as holding the head and shaking the arm) and asked, Are you alright? according to current advanced paediatric life support (APLS) guidelines. Safety, Stimulate, Shout is a phrase that is frequently remembered. Any airway assessment should be preceded by these actions.
Although the algorithm includes five rescue breaths, they are performed after the airway assessment.
It is not recommended to ask parents to leave unless they are obstructing the resuscitation. A team member should be with them at all times to explain what is going on and answer any questions they may have.
CPR should not begin until the child has been properly assessed and rescue breaths have been administered.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 3
Correct
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What structure is most critical in providing support for the duodenojejunal flexure?
Your Answer: Ligament of Treitz
Explanation:The duodenojejunal flexure is the point where the duodenum becomes the jejunum.
The ligament of Treitz, which arises from the right crus of diaphragm, provides suspension for support.
Between the ileum and the caecum is the ligament of Treves.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 4
Correct
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Which of the following best explains the statement Epinephrine is formulated as 1 in 1000 solution
Your Answer: 1000 mg per 1000 ml solution
Explanation:The statement Epinephrine is formulated as 1 in 1000 solution means 1 gm epinephrine is present in 1000 ml of solution.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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Fixed performance devices like high air flow oxygen enrichment (HAFOE) masks have large volumes of air entrained into a flow of 100% oxygen.
The term that best describes the physics behind air entrainment is?Your Answer: Venturi effect
Correct Answer: Bernoulli's principle
Explanation:Bernoulli’s principle states that as the speed of a moving fluid increases, there is a simultaneously decrease in static pressure or a decrease in the fluid’s potential energy.
This is seen in the simultaneous increase in speed and kinetic energy and fall in pressure that causes entrainment of large volumes of air into a flow of 100% oxygen in the nozzle of HAFOE masks.The reduction in fluid pressure that happens when a fluid flows through a constriction in a tube is the Venturi effect.
When a flow of gas or liquid attaches itself to a nearby surface and remains attached even when the surface curves away from the initial direction of flow, this is the Coanda effect.
The branch of engineering and technology that is concerned with the building of devices that use the flow and pressure of a fluid for functions usually performed by electronic devices is Fluidics . Fluidic logic is used to power some ventilators.
The branch of engineering that utilises pressurised gases is Pneumatics.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Physics
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Question 6
Correct
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A 55-year-old man has been diagnosed with transitional cell carcinoma involving the ureter. He is due to undergo a left nephroureterectomy.
Which structure has no relation to the left ureter's anatomy?Your Answer: Round ligament of the uterus
Explanation:The ureter starts from the hilum of the kidney and has different relations with structures along its journey to the bladder.
It runs anterior to the psoas major muscle.
The testicular vessels (males) or the ovarian vessels (females) cross in front of the ureter.
The ureter passes in front of the common iliac artery where it bifurcates into the internal and external iliac arteries.
The ureter passes medial to the branches of the internal iliac vessel downwards and forwards to towards the bladder.
In males, the ductus deferens crosses the pelvic ureter medially.
In females. the ureter passes through the base of the broad ligament
In females, the pelvic part initially has the same relations as in males but, anterior to the internal iliac artery, it is immediately behind the ovary, forming the posterior boundary of the ovarian fossa. It is in extraperitoneal connective tissue in the inferomedial part of the broad ligament of the uterus. In the broad ligament, the uterine artery is anterosuperior to the ureter for approximately 2.5 cm and then crosses to its medial side to ascend alongside the uterus. The ureter turns forwards slightly above the lateral vaginal fornix and is, generally, 2 cm lateral to the supravaginal part of the uterine cervix in this location. It then inclines medially to reach the bladder. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 7
Correct
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Anaesthetic gas concentrations can be measured using a refractometer. The main principal which allows it to be used for this purpose is which of the following?
Your Answer: Refraction
Explanation:Refractometers measure the degree to which the light changes direction, called the angle of refraction. A refractometer takes the refraction angles and correlates them to refractive index (nD) values that have been established. Using these values, you can determine the concentrations of solutions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Physics
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Question 8
Correct
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Which of the following statements is false when considering the electrical safety of equipment?
Your Answer: The low leakage currents limit is 0.01mA for Class I CF
Explanation:There are different classes of electrical equipment that can be classified in the table below:
Class 1 – provides basic protection only. It must be connected to earth and insulated from the mains supply
Class II – provides double insulation for all equipment. It does not require an earth.
Class III – uses safety extra low voltage (SELV) which does not exceed 24 V AC. There is no risk of gross electrocution but risk of microshock exists.
Type B – All of above with low leakage currents (0.5mA for Class IB, 0.1 mA for Class IIB)
Type BF – Same as with other equipment but has ‘floating circuit’ which means that the equipment applied to patient is isolated from all its other parts.
Type CF – Class I or II equipment with ‘floating circuits’ that is considered to be safe for direct connection with the heart. There are extremely low leakage currents (0.05mA for Class I CF and 0.01mA for Class II CF)
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Measurement
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Question 9
Correct
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A 28-year male patient presents to the GP with a 2-day history of abdominal pain and bloody diarrhoea. He reports that he was completely fine until one week ago when headache and general tiredness appeared. After further questioning, he revealed eating at a dodgy takeaway 3 days before the start of his symptoms.
Which of the following diagnosis is most likely?Your Answer: Campylobacter
Explanation:Giardiasis is known to have a longer incubation time and doesn’t cause bloody diarrhoea.
Cholera usually doesn’t cause bloody diarrhoea.
Generally, most of the E.coli strains do not cause bloody diarrhoea.
Diverticulitis can be a cause of bloody stool but the history here points out to an infectious cause.
Campylobacter infection is the most probable cause as it is characterized by a prodrome, abdominal pain and bloody diarrhoea
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
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Question 10
Correct
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Following an acute appendicectomy, a 6-year-old child is admitted to the recovery unit.
Your consultant has requested that you prescribe maintenance fluids for the next 12 hours. The child is 21 kg in weight.
What is the most suitable fluid volume to be prescribed?Your Answer: 732 ml
Explanation:After a paediatric case, you’ll frequently have to calculate and prescribe maintenance fluids. The ‘4-2-1 rule’ should be used as a guideline:
1st 10 kg – 4 ml/kg/hr
2nd 10 kg – 2 ml/kg/hr
Subsequent kg – 1 ml/kg/hrHence
1st 10 kg = 4 × 10 = 40 ml
2nd 10 kg = 2 × 10 = 20 ml
Subsequent kg = 1 × 1 = 1 ml
Total = 61 ml/hr61 × 12 = 732 ml over 12 hrs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 11
Correct
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Which of the following statements is true regarding antibiotics?
Your Answer: Staphylococcus aureus colonises the nasopharynx in >20% of the general population
Explanation:Staphylococcus aureus colonizes the nasopharynx in >20% of the general population.
Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) is resistant to flucloxacillin.
Trimethoprim binds to dihydrofolate reductase and inhibits the reduction of dihydrofolic acid (DHF) to tetrahydrofolic acid (THF). THF is an essential precursor in the thymidine synthesis pathway and interference with this pathway inhibits bacterial DNA synthesis.
All ?-lactam antibiotics like penicillin interfere with the synthesis of the bacterial cell walls. The ?-lactam antibiotics inhibit the transpeptidases so that cross-linking (which maintains the close-knit structure of the cell wall) does not take place
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 12
Correct
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Which one of the following patients presenting for elective surgery has an American Society of Anaesthesiologists (ASA) preoperative physical status grading of III?
Your Answer: A 50-year old man with a BMI of 41 with a reduced exercise tolerance
Explanation:The ASA physical status classification system is a system for assessing the fitness of patients before surgery. It was last updated in October 2014.
ASA I A normal healthy patient
ASA II A patient with mild systemic disease
ASA III A patient with severe systemic disease
ASA IV A patient with severe systemic disease that is a constant threat to life
ASA V A moribund patient who is not expected to survive without the operation
ASA VI A declared brain-dead patient whose organs are being removed for donor purposesA 20-year old woman who is 39-weeks pregnant with no other medical conditions – ASA II
A 35-year-old man with a BMI of 29 with a good exercise tolerance who smokes-ASA II
A 50-year old man with a BMI of 41 with a reduced exercise tolerance -ASA III
A 65-year old woman with a BMI of 34 with treated hypertension with no functional limitations-ASA II
A 73-year old man who has had a TIA ten-weeks ago but has a good exercise tolerance and is a non-smoker-ASA IV
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Measurement
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A caudal anaesthetic block is planned for a 3-year-old girl presenting for inguinal hernia repair. Choose the best answer that explains why the caudal epidural space is accessed via the sacral hiatus.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The failure of fusion of the laminae of S4 and S5 provides a suitable point of entry
Explanation:The sacral hiatus is shaped by incomplete midline fusion of the posterior elements of the distal portion of S4 and S5. This inverted U shaped space is covered by the posterior aspect of the sacrococcygeal membrane and is an important landmark in caudal anaesthetic block. Distal most portion of the dural sac and the sacral hiatus usually terminate between levels S1 and S3. The dural sac ends at the level of S2 in adults and S3 in children.
An equilateral triangle is formed between the apex of the sacral hiatus and the posterior superior iliac spines. This triangle is used to determine the location of the sacral hiatus during caudal anaesthetic block.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old man, presents to the emergency department with crushing pain in the central chest area, which radiates to his left arm and jaw. He also reports feelings of nausea with no other symptoms. Elevation of the ST-segment is noted in multiple chest leads upon ECG, leading to a diagnosis of ST-elevation MI.
What vessel gives rise to the coronary vessels?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ascending aorta
Explanation:The above mentioned patient presentation is one of an acute coronary syndrome.
The elevations noted in the ST-segments of multiple heart leads on ECG is diagnostic of an ST-elevation myocardial infarction.
The pulmonary artery branches to give rise to the right and left pulmonary arteries, which supply deoxygenated blood to the right and left lungs from the right ventricle.
The pulmonary veins do not form any bifurcations, and therefore do not give rise to any vessels. They travel to the left atrium from the lungs, carrying oxygenated blood.
The descending aorta continues from the aortic arch, and bifurcates to give off many branches, including the right and left common iliac arteries.
The coronary sinus is formed from the combination of four coronary veins, receiving blood supply from the great, middle, small and posterior cardiac veins, and transporting this venous blood into the right atrium.
The right and left aortic sinus give rise to the right and left coronary arteries, respectively. They branch of the ascending aorta, in the area just superior to the aortic valve.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 15
Incorrect
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The production of carbon dioxide and water occurs during cellular respiration, which involves an energy substrate and oxygen. For a patient, the respiratory quotient is calculated as 0.7.
Which of the following energy substrate combinations is the most likely in this patient's diet?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Low carbohydrate, high fat and low protein
Explanation:The respiratory quotient (RQ) is the proportion of CO2 produced by the body to O2 consumed per unit of time.
CO2 produced / O2 consumed = RQ
CO2 is produced at a rate of 200 mL per minute, while O2 is consumed at a rate of 250 mL per minute. An RQ of around 0.8 is typical for a mixed diet.
The RQ will change depending on the energy substrates consumed in the diet.
Granulated sugar is a refined carbohydrate that contains 99.999 percent carbohydrate and no lipids, proteins, minerals, or vitamins.
Glucose and other hexose sugars – RQ = 1
Fats – RQ = 0.7
Proteins – RQ is 0.9
Ethyl alcohol – RQ = 0.67 -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man has suffered a myocardial infarction. He has a heart rate of 40 beats per minute currently.
Your senior attending explains that the slow heart rate is due to the damage to the conduction pathways between the sinoatrial and atrioventricular nodes. His ventricles are being paced by the AV node alone.
What artery supplies the AV node in the majority of patients?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Right coronary artery
Explanation:The AV node has an intrinsic firing rate of 40-60 beats per minute which is clinically significant in cases of damage to the conducting pathways as patients continue to have a ventricular rate of 40-60. Patients who have an AV node supplied by the right coronary are said to be right dominant. The remaining 10% are left dominant and supplied by the left circumflex.
The right coronary artery supplies the right atrium, right ventricle, interatrial septum, and the inferior posterior third of the interventricular septum. It also supplies the atrioventricular node + sinoatrial node in most patients. The posterior descending artery supplies the posterior third of the interventricular septum.
The heart receives blood supply from coronary arteries. The right and left coronary arteries branch off the aorta and supply oxygenated blood to all heart muscle parts.
The left main coronary artery branches into:
1. Circumflex artery – supplies the left atrium, side, and back of the left ventricle. The left marginal artery arises from the left circumflex artery. It travels along the obtuse margin of the heart.
The left marginal artery, a branch of the circumflex artery, supplies the left ventricle.
2. Left Anterior Descending (LAD) artery – supplies the front and bottom of the left ventricle and front of the interventricular septumThe right coronary artery branches into:
1. Right marginal artery
2. Posterior descending artery -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A survey aimed at finding out mean glucose level in individuals that took antipsychotics medicines was conducted. The results were as follows:
Mean Value: 7mmol/L
Standard Deviation: 6mmol/L
Sample Size: 9
Standard Error: 2mmol/L
For a confidence interval of 95%, which of the option presents the correct range up to the nearest value?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 3-11 mmol/L
Explanation:Key Point: While finding out confidence intervals, standard errors are used. Standard error and Standard deviation are two distinct entities and should not be confused.
For 99.7% confidence interval, you can find the range as follows:
Multiply the standard error by 3.
Subtract the answer from mean value to get the lower limit.
Add the answer obtained in step 1 from the mean value to get the upper limit.
The range turns out to be 1-13 mmol/L.
For a confidence interval of 68%, multiply the standard error with 1 and repeat the process. The range found for this interval is 3-11 mmol/L.
For a 95% confidence interval. Standard Error is multiplied by 1.96 which gives us the limit ranging from 3.08 to 10.92 mmol/L which could be approximated to 3-11 mmol/L.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 18
Incorrect
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The mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve passes through which anatomic structure?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Foramen ovale
Explanation:The mandibular branch of the trigeminal nerve passes through the foramen ovale. Other structures that pass through this foramen are the accessory meningeal artery, and occasionally, the lesser petrosal nerve.
These are the structures that pass through the other openings in the cranial fossa:
Foramen rotundum – Maxillary branch of the trigeminal nerve
Foramen lacerum – Greater petrosal nerve, traversed by the internal carotid artery
Superior orbital fissure – Oculomotor nerve; trochlear nerve; lacrimal, frontal and nasociliary branches of the ophthalmic branch of the trigeminal nerve; abducens nerve, superior ophthalmic vein
Stylomastoid foramen – facial nerve
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 19
Incorrect
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All of the following statements are false regarding salmeterol except:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Is more potent than salbutamol at the beta-2 receptor
Explanation:Salmeterol is a long-acting Beta 2 selective agonist. Therefore it is only used for prophylaxis whereas salbutamol is a short-acting Beta 2 agonist and is thus used for the treatment of acute attacks of asthma.
Salmeterol is 15 times more potent than salbutamol at the Beta 2 receptor but 4 times less potent at the Beta 1 receptor.
Tachyphylaxis to the unwanted side effects commonly occurs, but not to bronchodilation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 50-year old man for septoplasty has a BMI of 32kg/m2 and neck circumference of 44 cm. He is troubled by intermittent nasal obstruction which causes his partner sleeps in a separate bedroom because of snoring. He currently on ramipril for hypertension.
Which of the following best approximates to his STOP-BANG score from the information above?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 5
Explanation:The STOP-BANG questionnaire is used to screen patients for obstructive sleep apnoea (OSA).
The scoring system assigns one point for each feature.
S: Snoring (louder than talking or loud enough to be heard through closed doors)
T: Feeling tired, fatigued, or sleepy during daytime
O: Observed apnoeas during sleep
P: Hypertension
B: BMI more than 35 kg/m2
A: Age 50-years of age or greater
N: Neck circumference (male 17 inches / 43cm or greater and female 16 inches / 41 or greater)
G: Gender: MaleOur patient has a score of 5 ( O, P, A, N, G)
The score helps clinicians stratify patients for unrecognized OSA and target appropriate clinical management. It can also help triage patients for further investigation. A STOP-BANG score of 5-8 will identify patients with high probability of moderate to severe OSA in the surgical population.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Measurement
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Question 21
Incorrect
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What separates the tunica media from the tunica adventitia in a blood vessel?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: External elastic lamina
Explanation:Blood vessels (except capillaries and venules) have three distinctive layers (innermost to outermost):
1. Tunica intima
2. Tunica media
3. Tunica adventitiaThe tunica media contains smooth muscle cells and is separated from the intima layer by the internal elastic lamina and the adventitia by the external elastic lamina.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 63-year old male who has heart failure has peripheral oedema and goes to the GP's office. The GP notes that he is fluid-overloaded. This causes his atrial myocytes to release atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP). ANP's main action is by which of these mechanisms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Antagonist of angiotensin II
Explanation:Atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) is secreted mainly from myocytes of right atrium and ventricle in response to increased blood volume.
It is secreted by both the right and left atria (right >> left).It is a 28 amino acid peptide hormone, which acts via cGMP
degraded by endopeptidases.It serves to promote the excretion of sodium, lowers blood pressure, and antagonise the actions of angiotensin II and aldosterone.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old woman is admitted to the emergency room with an ectopic pregnancy that has ruptured.
The following is a description of the clinical examination:
Anxious
Capillary refill time of 3 seconds
Cool peripheries
Pulse 120 beats per minute
Blood pressure 120/95 mmHg
Respiratory rate 22 breaths per minute.
Which of the following is the most likely explanation for these clinical findings?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reduction in blood volume of 15-30%
Explanation:The following is the Advanced Trauma Life Support (ATLS) classification of haemorrhagic shock:
Class I haemorrhage:
It has blood loss up to 15%. There is very less tachycardia, and no changes in blood pressure, RR or pulse pressure. Usually, fluid replacement is not required.Class II haemorrhage:
It has 15-30% blood loss, equivalent to 750 – 1500 ml. There is tachycardia, tachypnoea and a decrease in pulse pressure. Patient may be frightened, hostile and anxious. It can be stabilised by crystalloid and blood transfusion.Class III haemorrhage:
There is 30-40% blood loss. It portrays inadequate perfusion, marked tachycardia, tachypnoea, altered mental state and fall in systolic pressure. It requires blood transfusion.Class IV haemorrhage:
There is > 40% blood volume loss. It is a preterminal event, and the patient will die in minutes. It portrays tachycardia, significant depression in systolic pressure and pulse pressure, altered mental state, and cold clammy skin. There is need for rapid transfusion and surgical intervention. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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Which of the following statement is true regarding the mechanism of action of macrolides?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Inhibits protein synthesis
Explanation:The mechanism of action of macrolides is inhibition of bacterial protein synthesis by preventing peptidyltransferase from adding to the growing peptide which is attached to tRNA to the next amino acid.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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The following is normally higher in concentration extracellularly than intracellularly
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sodium
Explanation:The ions found in higher concentrations intracellularly than outside the cells are:
ATP
AMP
Potassium
Phosphate, and
Magnesium Adenosine diphosphate (ADP)Sodium is a primarily extracellular ion.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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What is the primary purpose of funnel plots?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Demonstrate the existence of publication bias in meta-analyses
Explanation:Funnel plot is essentially a scatterplot of the effect of treatment against a particular measure of study precision. Its primal purpose is to serve as a visual aid and help in detection of bias or systematic heterogenity.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 27
Incorrect
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All of the following statements about calcium channel antagonists are incorrect except:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: May cause potentiation of muscle relaxants
Explanation:Calcium channel blocker (CCB) blocks L-type of voltage-gated calcium channels present in blood vessels and the heart. By inhibiting the calcium channels, these agents decrease the frequency of opening of calcium channels activity of the heart, decrease heart rate, AV conduction, and contractility.
Three groups of CCBs include
1) Phenylalkylamines: Verapamil, Norverapamil
2) Benzothiazepines : Diltiazem
3) Dihydropyridine : Nifedipine, Nicardipine, Nimodipine, Nislodipine, Nitrendipine, Isradipine, Lacidipine, Felodipine and Amlodipine.Even though verapamil as good absorption from GIT, its oral bioavailability is low due to high first-pass metabolism.
Nimodipine is a Cerebro-selective CCB, used to reverse the compensatory vasoconstriction after sub-arachnoid haemorrhage and is more lipid soluble analogue of nifedipine
Calcium channel antagonist can potentiate the effect of non-depolarising muscle relaxants.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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Among the following, which statement is true regarding electrical safety in an operation theatre?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The higher the frequency of the current the less risk to the patient
Explanation:The operating theatre is an unusual place with several applications of electrical equipment to the human body. This can lead to potential dangers associated with it that need to be prevented. Electrical safety in the operation theatre is the understanding of how these potential dangers can occur and how they can be prevented.
Electricity can cause morbidity or mortality by one of the following ways:
(i) electrocution
(ii) burns
(iii) ignition of a flammable material, causing a fire or explosion.Electrocution is dependant on factors like duration of contact with electric current, the current pathway and the frequency and size of current.
Option A: The higher the frequency, the less effects of electrocution on the body.
Option B & D: Equipment can be classified in classes and types.
The class designation describes the method used for protection against electrocution. Class I is basic protection, class II is double insulation and class III is safety extra low voltage.
The type designation describes the degree of protection based on the maximum permissible leakage currents under normal and fault conditions.
Type B:
can be class I, II or III but the maximum leakage current must not exceed 100 µA. It is therefore not suitable for direct connection to the heart.
Type BF
Similar to type B, but uses an isolated (or floating) circuit.
Type CF
Only type CF protect against microshock as they allow leakage currents of 0.05 mA per electrode for class I and 0.01 mA for class II. Microshock is a small leakage current that can cause harm because of direct connection to the heart via transvenous lines or wires, bypassing the impedance of the skin, leading to ventricular fibrillation. Microshock current of 100 ?A is sufficient to cause VF.Option C: A 75mA electrocution can cause ventricular fibrillation. Use the following as a general guide to understand the effect of current size on the body.
1 mA – tingling pain
5 mA – pain
15 mA – tonic muscular contraction
50 mA – respiratory muscle paralysis
75 mA – ventricular fibrillation.Option E: Wet skin reduces the resistance to current flow and therefore increases the effects of electrocution.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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Question 29
Incorrect
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Which of the following explains the mode of action of Magnesium sulphate in preventing eclampsia in susceptible patients?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Dilatation of cerebral circulation due to calcium channel antagonism reducing cerebral vascular spasm
Explanation:Magnesium is a unique calcium antagonist as it can act on most types of calcium channels in vascular smooth muscle and as such would be expected to decrease intracellular calcium. One major effect of decreased intracellular calcium would be inactivation of calmodulin-dependent myosin light chain kinase activity and decreased contraction, causing arterial relaxation that may subsequently lower peripheral and cerebral vascular resistance, relieve vasospasm, and decrease arterial blood pressure.
The vasodilatory effect of MgSO4 has been investigated in a wide variety of vessels. For example, both in vivo and in vitro animal studies have shown that it is a vasodilator of large conduit arteries such as the aorta, as well as smaller resistance vessels including mesenteric, skeletal muscle, uterine, and cerebral arteries.
The theory of cerebrovascular vasospasm as the aetiology of eclampsia seemed to be reinforced by transcranial Doppler (TCD) studies which suggested that MgSO4 treatment caused dilation in the cerebral circulation as well as in animal studies that used large cerebral arteries.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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Which of the following is a true statement about invasive arterial pressure monitoring?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Increased resonance elevates the systolic and lower the diastolic pressures
Explanation:The arterial cannula inserted should have parallel walls in order to reduce the risk of interruption of blood flow to distal limbs.
It is essential that the monitor used to display the arterial pressure waves has a frequency capacity of 0.5-40Hz. This is because the pressure waves are a combination of different sine waves of varying frequencies and amplitudes.
The diameter of the catheter is directly proportional to the natural frequency which is the frequency at which the system responsible for monitoring the waves resonates and amplifies the signals. This should be at least ten fold in comparison to the fundamental frequency. The diameter of the catheter is also inversely proportional to the square root of the system compliance, the tubing length and the fluid density within the system.
The presence of an air bubble, a clot or an easily malleable diaphragm and tube can result in wave damping. Increased damping will cause a reduction in the systolic pressure, and an increase in diastolic pressure. The maximum damping value of an appropriate monitoring system would be 0.64.
A rigid, non-malleable diaphragm and tubing can cause a resonance within the system. This resonance will result in an increase in the systolic pressure and a reduction in the diastolic pressure
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Measurement
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