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  • Question 1 - A 27-year-old woman presents to the clinic.

    She explains she has had 2 episodes...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old woman presents to the clinic.

      She explains she has had 2 episodes of postcoital bleeding.

      Her previous medical history reveals she is currently taking the oral contraceptive pill (OCP) and has never had an abnormal pap smear, including one that was performed a year ago.

      What is the most probable cause of her postcoital bleeding?

      Your Answer: Chlamydia cervicitis

      Correct Answer: A cervical ectropion

      Explanation:

      The most likely cause of her postcoital bleeding is cervical ectropion as suggested by her postcoital bleeding, normal pap smears and use of oral contraceptive pills.

      Cervical ectropion is a benign condition that occurs as a result of overexposure to oestrogen. Here, glandular cells (the columnar epithelium) lining the endocervix, begin to grow on the ectocervix, leading to exposure of the columnar cells to the vaginal environment.

      These columnar cells are prone to trauma and bleeding during coitus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      103.2
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A patient attends the maternity unit as her waters have broken but she...

    Correct

    • A patient attends the maternity unit as her waters have broken but she hasn't had contractions. She is 39+6 weeks gestation. Speculum examination confirms prelabour rupture of membranes (PROM). What is the risk of serious neonatal infection with PROM?

      Your Answer: 1 in 100

      Explanation:

      Prelabour Rupture of Membranes:
      – Risk of serious neonatal infection 1% (vs 0.5% for women with intact membranes)
      – 60% of patients with PROM will go into labour within 24 hrs
      – Induction appropriate if >34 weeks gestation and >24 hours post rupture and patients labour hasn’t started.
      – If <34 weeks induction of labour should not be carried out unless there are additional obstetric indications e.g. infection

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      45.4
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 26 year old lady comes to see you in the antenatal clinic....

    Correct

    • A 26 year old lady comes to see you in the antenatal clinic. She is 8 weeks pregnant and is concerned as she has a new cat and her friend told her she shouldn't be changing cat litter when pregnant. You send bloods which show high IgM for toxoplasmosis gondii. Which of the following is an appropriate treatment option?

      Your Answer: Spiramycin

      Explanation:

      Toxoplasma gondii is a protozoan parasite found in cat faeces, soil or uncooked meat. Infection occurs by ingestion of the parasite from undercooked meat or from unwashed hands. Spiramycin treatment can be used in pregnancy (a 3-week course of 2–3 g per day). This reduces the incidence of transplacental infection but has not been shown to definitively reduce the incidence of clinical congenital disease. If toxoplasmosis is found to be the cause of abnormalities detected on ultrasound scan of the foetus, then termination of pregnancy can be offered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      28.4
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - The best confirmatory test for Turner's syndrome is done by: ...

    Correct

    • The best confirmatory test for Turner's syndrome is done by:

      Your Answer: Chromosomal analysis (Karyotyping)

      Explanation:

      Standard karyotyping is the best confirmatory test for the diagnosis of Turner syndrome among patients who have some doubtful clinical presentations. It is done on peripheral blood mononuclear cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      7.2
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - All of the following statements are considered correct regarding Down syndrome screening in...

    Incorrect

    • All of the following statements are considered correct regarding Down syndrome screening in a 40-year-old pregnant woman, except:

      Your Answer: Dating ultrasound along with second trimester serum screening test has detection rate of 75 percent

      Correct Answer: Dating ultrasound along with second trimester serum screening test has detection rate of 97 percent

      Explanation:

      Second-trimester ultrasound markers have low sensitivity and specificity for detecting Down syndrome, especially in a low-risk population.

      The highest detection rate is acquired with ultrasound markers combined with gross anomalies. Although the detection rate with this combination of markers is high in a high-risk population (50 to 75 percent), false-positive rates are also high (22 percent for a 100 percent Down syndrome detection rate).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      81.5
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 37 year old lady attends clinic following laparotomy and unilateral oophorectomy. The...

    Correct

    • A 37 year old lady attends clinic following laparotomy and unilateral oophorectomy. The histology shows mucin vacuoles. What type of tumour would this be consistent with?

      Your Answer: Mucinous

      Explanation:

      Mucinous tumours are cystic masses which are indistinguishable from the serous tumours on gross examination except by its contents. On histology it is lined with mucin producing epithelium – mucin vacuoles whereas serous tumours have psammoma bodies. Malignant tumours are characterised by the presence of architectural complexity, cellular stratification, stromal invasion and cytological atypia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      27.1
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Which of the following is contained within the deep perineal pouch? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is contained within the deep perineal pouch?

      Your Answer: Superficial transverse perineal muscle

      Correct Answer: Proximal portion of urethra

      Explanation:

      The deep perineal pouch contains the external urethral sphincter, proximal urethra in females and membranous urethra in males, deep transverse perineal muscles and the glands of cowper.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      26.1
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Which of the following lung function values is unchanged in pregnancy? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following lung function values is unchanged in pregnancy?

      Your Answer: FEV1

      Explanation:

      FEV1 and FVC are unchanged. FEV1/FVC ratio remains the same in pregnancy

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      8.6
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 25-year-old primigravida presents to your office for a routine OB visit at...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old primigravida presents to your office for a routine OB visit at 34 weeks of gestational age. She voices concern as she has noticed an increasing number of spidery veins appearing on her face, upper chest and arms and is upset with the unsightly appearance of these veins. She wants to know what you recommend to get rid of them.

      Which of the following is the best advice you can give to this patient?

      Your Answer: Tell her that the appearance of these blood vessels is a normal occurrence with pregnancy

      Explanation:

      Vascular spiders or angiomas, are of no clinical significance during pregnancy as these are common findings and are form as a result of hyperestrogenemia associated with normal pregnancies. These angiomas, as they will resolve spontaneously after delivery, does not require any additional workup or treatment.
      Reassurance to the patient is all that is required in this case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      41.7
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - You review a patient in the fertility clinic. The ultrasound and biochemical profile...

    Correct

    • You review a patient in the fertility clinic. The ultrasound and biochemical profile are consistent with PCOS. She has been trying to conceive for 2 years. Her BMI is 26 kg/m2. She is a non-smoker. You plan to initiate Clomiphene. According to NICE guidance how long should treatment continue for (assuming patient remains non-pregnant)?

      Your Answer: 6 months

      Explanation:

      Treatment with Clomiphene should not exceed 6 months.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      20.3
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Which of the following hormones is secreted by the corpus luteum in a...

    Correct

    • Which of the following hormones is secreted by the corpus luteum in a non pregnant state?

      Your Answer: Progesterone

      Explanation:

      The corpus luteum is formed from the granulosa cells of the mature follicle. The structure functions as a transient endocrine organ which secretes mainly progesterone with additional secretion of oestradiol and inhibin, which serve to suppress FSH levels. In the event of no pregnancy, the corpus luteum stops producing progesterone and degenerates into the corpus albicans.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      23.4
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 30-year-old woman living in England had a cervical smear test one month...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman living in England had a cervical smear test one month ago. There were no cervical abnormalities visualised at the time of the smear. She has no symptoms of unusual vaginal bleeding and her previous smear results have always been negative. She received the following report: 'Your recent smear was negative with no evidence of nuclear abnormalities.' When will she be routinely recalled for her next smear?

      Your Answer: 2 years

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Women aged 25-49 years living in England are routinely recalled for screening every three years. Women receive their first invitation for cervical screening at 25 years of age. They are not invited earlier as changes in the young cervix can be normal and result in unnecessary treatment. Provided the smears remain negative and there are no symptoms to suggest cervical cancer, the routine recall is three years for women aged 25-49 years. Women aged 50-64 years old are routinely recalled for a smear every five years. After the age of 65 years, women are only screened if they have not had a smear since the age of 50 years (including those who have never had a smear) or those who have had recent abnormal smears. This is because due to the natural history and progression of cervical cancer, it is highly unlikely that women over 65 years old will go on to develop the disease. 

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      40.5
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 36-year-old obese woman presents to your office for advice regarding pregnancy.
    Her...

    Correct

    • A 36-year-old obese woman presents to your office for advice regarding pregnancy.
      Her body mass index is 40, and she is normotensive and has a normal serum glucose level. On examination she was tested positive for glucose in urine.
      What would be your advice to her?

      Your Answer: She will be checked for pre-existing diabetes in early pregnancy and, for gestational diabetes at 26 weeks

      Explanation:

      Counselling her about the risks associated with obesity during pregnancy will be the best possible advice to give this patient. A combined follow up by an obstetrician and a diabetes specialist at a high-risk pregnancy clinic is required to formulate the best ways in management of gestation with obesity.
      An oral glucose tolerance test should be done at 26 weeks of her pregnancy, along with advising her on controlling her weight by diet and lifestyle modifications. During the early weeks of their pregnancy all obese patients must be routinely tested for pre-existing diabetes.

      It is highly inappropriate to advice her not to get pregnant.

      Without making a proper diagnosis of diabetes, it is wrong to ask her to start oral hypoglycemic agent and/or insulin.

      Checking urinary proteins is not indicated at this stage, but can be considered as a part of antenatal check up.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      44.5
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - After eating a burger at a local restaurant, a 27-year-old lady comes to...

    Correct

    • After eating a burger at a local restaurant, a 27-year-old lady comes to your office with nausea, vomiting, and diarrhoea. She's taking oral contraceptives. Even when she was quite unwell, she did not miss her pills.

      Which of the following would be the best piece of contraceptive and pill advise you could give her?

      Your Answer: She should continue the pills and use condom for 7 days

      Explanation:

      If diarrhoea occurs within 24 hours of taking oral birth control or continues for 24 to 48 hours after taking a pill, an additional dose is not needed.

      If diarrhoea lasts more than 48 hours the patient should use backup birth control, such as condoms, or avoid sexual intercourse until pills have been taken for seven diarrhoea-free days.

      Options to stop pills are incorrect as it increases risk of pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      41.7
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Which of the following hormones inhibits Galactopoiesis and Lactogenesis postpartum? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following hormones inhibits Galactopoiesis and Lactogenesis postpartum?

      Your Answer: Dopamine

      Explanation:

      Galactopoiesis and Lactogenesis are stimulated by Prolactin. Dopamine released under hypothalamic control inhibits Prolactin production. Note oestrogen and progesterone inhibit lactogenesis up until term.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      42.4
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - All the following are possible causes of polyhydramnios, EXCEPT: ...

    Correct

    • All the following are possible causes of polyhydramnios, EXCEPT:

      Your Answer: IUGR

      Explanation:

      An underlying disease is only found in 17 % of cases in mild polyhydramnios. In contrast, an underlying disease is detected in 91 % of cases in moderate to severe polyhydramnios. The literature lists the following potential aetiologies: fetal malformations and genetic anomalies (8–45 %), maternal diabetes mellitus (5–26 %), multiple pregnancies (8–10 %), fetal anaemia (1–11 %), other causes, e.g. viral infections, Bartter syndrome, neuromuscular disorders, maternal hypercalcemia. Viral infections which can lead to polyhydramnios include parvovirus B19, rubella, and cytomegalovirus. Other infections, e.g. toxoplasmosis and syphilis, can also cause polyhydramnios.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      16.1
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Which of the following hormones inhibits lactogenesis during pregnancy? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following hormones inhibits lactogenesis during pregnancy?

      Your Answer: Oestrogen and Progesterone

      Explanation:

      Under the influence of prolactin, oestrogen and progesterone and human placental lactogen (hPL), the mammary epithelium proliferates but remains presecretory during mammogenesis. Lactogenesis is inhibited by high circulating levels of progesterone and oestrogen which block cortisol binding sites. Cortisol would have otherwise have worked synergistically with prolactin in milk production. A sharp decrease in progesterone levels after delivery allows prolactin and oxytocin to stimulate milk production and the milk ejection reflex in response to suckling. Prolactin continues to maintain milk production in galactopoiesis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      8.7
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 27-year-old woman admitted with per vaginal bleeding and left sided pelvic pain...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old woman admitted with per vaginal bleeding and left sided pelvic pain for 2 days. There was no history of fever. She gave a history of absent periods for past 8 weeks. Abdominal examination revealed guarding and rebound tenderness in left iliac region. There was left sided cervical excitation on vaginal examination. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Ectopic Pregnancy

      Explanation:

      History of amenorrhoea, abdominal and vaginal examination are more favour of ectopic pregnancy. Endometriosis usually has a chronic cause and dysmenorrhoea. Salpingitis usually presents with fever. Ovarian torsion and ovarian tumours have different clinical presentations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      35.5
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - All of the following factors increase the risk of endometrial cancer except which...

    Incorrect

    • All of the following factors increase the risk of endometrial cancer except which one?

      Your Answer: Diabetes

      Correct Answer: High Coffee Consumption

      Explanation:

      The risk factors for uterine carcinoma include obesity, diabetes, Nulliparity, late menopause, unopposed oestrogen therapy, tamoxifen therapy, HRT and a family history of ovarian or uterine carcinoma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology
      37.3
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Hysterosalpingogram (HSG) is contraindicated in the following EXCEPT: ...

    Correct

    • Hysterosalpingogram (HSG) is contraindicated in the following EXCEPT:

      Your Answer: Congenital malformations of the uterus

      Explanation:

      Anomalies of the cervico-uterus are widely diagnosed by HSG. The diagnostic value of HSG in the detection of anomalies varies, depending on the type of malformation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      15.6
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 36 year old woman has a pelvic ultrasound scan showing multiple fibroids....

    Correct

    • A 36 year old woman has a pelvic ultrasound scan showing multiple fibroids. What is the most common form of fibroid degeneration?

      Your Answer: Hyaline degeneration

      Explanation:

      Hyaline degeneration is the most common form of fibroid degeneration. Fibroids:
      Risk Factors
      – Black Ethnicity
      – Obesity
      – Early Puberty
      – Increasing age (from puberty until menopause)
      Protective Factors
      – Pregnancy
      – Multiparity

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      12.9
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 22-year-old female is at her second trimester of pregnancy and she presented...

    Correct

    • A 22-year-old female is at her second trimester of pregnancy and she presented to the medical clinic to receive human papillomavirus vaccination.

      Which of the following is considered the best step to do?

      Your Answer: Postpone vaccination until after delivery

      Explanation:

      Genital HPV is a common virus that is passed from one person to another through direct skin-to-skin contact during sexual activity. Most HPV types cause no symptoms and go away on their own, but some types can cause cervical cancer in women and other less common cancers — like cancers of the anus, penis, vagina, and vulva and oropharynx. Other types of HPV can cause warts in the genital areas of men and women, called genital warts.

      HPV vaccination is recommended for 11 and 12 year-old girls. It is also recommended for girls and women age 13 through 26 years of age who have not yet been vaccinated or completed the vaccine series; HPV vaccine can also be given to girls beginning at age 9 years. CDC recommends 11 to 12 year olds get two doses of HPV vaccine to protect against cancers caused by HPV.

      The vaccine is not recommended for pregnant women. Studies show that the HPV vaccine does not cause problems for babies born to women who were vaccinated while pregnant, but more research is still needed. A pregnant woman should not get any doses of the HPV vaccine until her pregnancy is completed.

      Getting the HPV vaccine when pregnant is not a reason to consider ending a pregnancy. If a woman realizes that she got one or more shots of an HPV vaccine while pregnant, she should wait until after her pregnancy to finish any remaining HPV vaccine doses.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      51.6
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 28-year-old female presented with acute migraine accompanied with headache and vomiting. She...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old female presented with acute migraine accompanied with headache and vomiting. She was noted to be at 33 weeks of gestation.

      Which of the following is considered the safest treatment for the patient?

      Your Answer: Paracetamol and metoclopramide

      Explanation:

      The occurrence of migraine in women is influenced by hormonal changes throughout the lifecycle. A beneficial effect of pregnancy on migraine, mainly during the last 2 trimesters, has been observed in 55 to 90% of women who are pregnant, irrespective of the type of migraine.

      For treatment of acute migraine attacks, 1000 mg of paracetamol (acetaminophen) preferably as a suppository is considered the first choice drug treatment. The risks associated with use of aspirin (acetylsalicylic acid) and ibuprofen are considered to be small when the agents are taken episodically and if they are avoided during the last trimester of pregnancy.

      Paracetamol 500 mg alone or in combination with metoclopramide 10 mg are recommended as first choice symptomatic treatment of a moderate-to-severe primary headache during pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      29.7
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - You receive a swab result from a patient who had complained of odorous...

    Correct

    • You receive a swab result from a patient who had complained of odorous vaginal discharge. It confirms bacterial vaginosis (BV). Which pathogen is most commonly associated with BV?

      Your Answer: Gardnerella vaginalis

      Explanation:

      Bacterial vaginosis is characterised by a foul smelling vaginal discharge without inflammation. The most common spp to cause this is gardnerella vaginalis. Other spp include mycoplasma hominis and bacteroides. It occurs due to growth and increase in anaerobic spp with simultaneous reduction in lactobacilli in vaginal flora causing an increase in vaginal pH. It is the most common cause of abnormal vaginal discharge in women of childbearing age.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      16.8
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 50-year-old menopausal woman complained of regular hot flushes that interfered with her...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old menopausal woman complained of regular hot flushes that interfered with her sleep and job. She had a ten-year history of oestrogen-dependent breast cancer.

      What is the most effective treatment for her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Paroxetine

      Explanation:

      Paroxetine is an SSRI used for hot flushes in women with contraindication for hormonal therapy.

      Hormonal or other pharmacotherapy is usually needed for women with bothersome hot flashes. For most women with moderate to very severe hot flashes and no contraindications, we suggest MHT. Women with an intact uterus need both oestrogen and a progestin, while those who have undergone hysterectomy can receive oestrogen only. For women interested in MHT, the first step is to determine the potential risks for the specific individual.

      The majority of perimenopausal and recently menopausal women are good candidates for short-term hormone therapy for symptom relief. However, for women with a history of breast cancer, coronary heart disease (CHD), a previous venous thromboembolic event (VTE) or stroke, or those at moderate or high risk for these complications, alternatives to hormone therapy should be suggested. For women with moderate to severe hot flashes who are not candidates for hormone therapy based upon their breast cancer, CHD, or VTE risk and for those who choose not to take MHT, we suggest nonhormonal agents. The agents most commonly used include SSRIs, serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors (SNRIs), antiepileptics, and centrally acting drugs.

      Black Cohosh is found to be no more significant than placebo.
      Long-term use of mefenamic acid is controversial and not recommended.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      24.9
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - Which of the following has been shown to increase ovarian cancer risk? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following has been shown to increase ovarian cancer risk?

      Your Answer: Polycystic ovarian syndrome

      Correct Answer: Hormone replacement therapy (oestrogen only)

      Explanation:

      Factors that increase the risk of ovarian cancer include nulliparity, IUD, endometriosis, cigarette smoking, HRT and obesity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology
      53.1
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - Which of the following is known to increase the risk of endometrial cancer?...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is known to increase the risk of endometrial cancer?

      Your Answer: PCOS

      Explanation:

      The risk factors of endometrial cancer include obesity, diabetes, late menopause, unopposed oestrogen therapy, tamoxifen therapy, HRT and a family history of colorectal and ovarian carcinoma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology
      58
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 29 year old female presented at her 38th week of gestation to...

    Correct

    • A 29 year old female presented at her 38th week of gestation to the ER with severe hypertension (210/100) and proteinuria (+++). Soon after admission, she developed generalized tonic clonic fits. What is the first line of management in this case?

      Your Answer: Magnesium sulphate IV

      Explanation:

      Magnesium Sulphate is the drug of choice in eclamptic patients. A loading dose of 4g magnesium sulphate in 100mL 0.9% saline IVI over 5min followed by maintenance IVI of 1g/h for 24h. Signs of toxicity include respiratory depression and jerky tendon reflexes. In recurrent fits additional 2g can be given. Magnesium should be stopped when the respiratory rate is <14/min, absent tendon reflexes, or urine output is <20mL/h.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      16.7
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 24 year old lady is rushed to the emergency department complaining of...

    Correct

    • A 24 year old lady is rushed to the emergency department complaining of vaginal spotting and abdominal cramping. Her 6 week pregnancy was confirmed by ultrasound scan last week. On speculum examination, the cervical os is open with blood noted around it.

      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Inevitable Miscarriage

      Explanation:

      A miscarriage is defined as the spontaneous loss of a pregnancy before the age of viability at 24 weeks in the UK. An inevitable miscarriage occurs with the usual symptoms of a miscarriage such as menstrual-like cramping, vaginal bleeding and a dilated cervix. The gestational sac has ruptured but products of conception have not been passed. The products of conception will eventually pass.

      A missed miscarriage is described as a loss of pregnancy without vaginal bleeding, loss of tissue, cervical changes or abdominal pain. During a scan, a fetal heartbeat is not observed, and the gestational sac may be small.

      A threatened miscarriage is when the cervix dilates and uterine bleeding is seen; the pregnancy could still be viable.

      A complete miscarriage occurs when all the products of conception are expelled from the uterus, bleeding has stopped, and the cervix has closed up after dilation. Recurrent miscarriages are described as spontaneous pregnancy loss of more than 2 to 3 consecutive times.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      66.1
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 27-year-old woman at her 37 weeks of gestation is diagnosed with primary...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old woman at her 37 weeks of gestation is diagnosed with primary genital herpetic lesions at multiple sites in the genital area.

      What is the most appropriate management in this case?

      Your Answer: Prophylactic antiviral before 4 days before delivery

      Explanation:

      This woman at her 37 weeks of gestation, has developed multiple herpetic lesions over her genitals. In every case were the mother develops herpes simplex infection after 28 weeks of pregnancy, chances for intrapartum and vertical transmission of the infection to the neonate is considered to be very high.

      Risk factors of intrapartum herpes simplex infection of the child includes premature labour, premature rupture of membrane, primary herpes simplex infection and multiple lesion in the genital area.

      The most appropriate methods for managing this case includes:
      – checking for herpes simplex infection using PCR testing of a cervical swab.
      – starting prophylactic antiviral therapy for the mother from 38 weeks of gestation until delivery.
      – preferring a cesarean section delivery if there are active lesions present in the cervix and/or vulva.

      Cesarean delivery is advised in this case along with maternal antiviral therapy before delivery to minimise the risk of vertical transmission.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      35.1
      Seconds
  • Question 31 - Levels of which of the following hormones are increased in ovarian dysgenesis? ...

    Correct

    • Levels of which of the following hormones are increased in ovarian dysgenesis?

      Your Answer: Pituitary gonadotropins

      Explanation:

      There is marked elevation of FSH and LH in ovarian dysgenesis, produced by the pituitary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      15.4
      Seconds
  • Question 32 - Regarding gestational diabetes which of the following is NOT a recognised risk factor...

    Correct

    • Regarding gestational diabetes which of the following is NOT a recognised risk factor

      Your Answer: High polyunsaturated fat intake

      Explanation:

      There are several risk factors for gestational diabetes:
      Increasing age
      – Certain ethnic groups (Asian, African Americans, Hispanic/Latino Americans and Pima Indians)
      – High BMI before pregnancy (three-fold risk for obese women compared to non-obese women)
      – Smoking doubles the risk of GDM
      – Change in weight between pregnancies – an inter-pregnancy gain of more than three units (of BMI) doubles the risk of GDM
      – Short interval between pregnancies
      – Previous unexplained stillbirth
      – Previous macrosomia
      – Family history of type 2 diabetes or GDM – more relevant in nulliparous than parous women

      High polyunsaturated fat intake has been shown in some studies to be protective against gestational diabetes. Physical activity is also thought to be effective.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      16.7
      Seconds
  • Question 33 - A 29 year old patient has a transvaginal ultrasound scan that shows a...

    Correct

    • A 29 year old patient has a transvaginal ultrasound scan that shows a mass in the left ovary. It is anechoic, thin walled, is without internal structures and measures 36mm in diameter. What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Functional cyst

      Explanation:

      Features of functional ovarian cysts on ultrasound are: Thin walled and unilocular Must be >3cm diameter (if <3cm described as follicle) Anechoic (absence of internal echoes) No colour flow No solid components

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Data Interpretation
      33.9
      Seconds
  • Question 34 - Which of the following drugs is most associated with coronary artery spasm? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following drugs is most associated with coronary artery spasm?

      Your Answer: Ergometrine

      Explanation:

      Ergot alkaloids e.g. Ergometrine, produce marked and prolonged alpha receptor mediated vasoconstriction. Its overdose can cause ischemia and gangrene of the limbs and bowel. It also causes coronary artery spasm and has been used by cardiologist as a provocation test.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      6.6
      Seconds
  • Question 35 - A 35-year-old female went to a contraception clinic because she does not want...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old female went to a contraception clinic because she does not want to conceive for the next 2 years. She also has a history of heavy menstrual bleeding and pelvic pain. Imaging revealed fibroids. What is the best method of contraception for the patient in this case?

      Your Answer: COCP

      Correct Answer: IUS

      Explanation:

      IUS or Intra Uterine System/Device releases progestin. The progestin thickens the cervix, preventing the sperm from penetrating the cervix, and it also causes the uterine lining to become thinner, preventing any implantation. IUS may also prevent excessive bleeding and can help women with fibroids.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      101.8
      Seconds
  • Question 36 - Maternal mortality rate is lowest in which age group? ...

    Correct

    • Maternal mortality rate is lowest in which age group?

      Your Answer: 20 - 30

      Explanation:

      The maternal mortality rate starts low and raises steeply after the age of 30 years. The lowest mortality rate recorded among women is between 19-30 years of age group.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      17.4
      Seconds
  • Question 37 - A patient in a high-risk pregnancy clinic has a past obstetrical history of...

    Incorrect

    • A patient in a high-risk pregnancy clinic has a past obstetrical history of placenta previa and caesarean section has a breech presentation at 36 weeks gestation.

      Which of the following is considered a risk factor in increasing the chance of term breech presentation?

      Your Answer: Prior caesarean section

      Correct Answer: All of the above

      Explanation:

      Breech presentation refers to the foetus in the longitudinal lie with the buttocks or lower extremity entering the pelvis first.

      Clinical conditions associated with breech presentation include those that may increase or decrease fetal motility, or affect the vertical polarity of the uterine cavity. Prematurity, multiple gestations, aneuploidies, congenital anomalies, Mullerian anomalies, uterine leiomyoma, and placental polarity as in placenta previa are most commonly associated with a breech presentation. Also, a previous history of breech presentation at term increases the risk of repeat breech presentation at term in subsequent pregnancies.

      Conditions that change the vertical polarity or the uterine cavity, or affect the ease or ability of the foetus to turn into the vertex presentation in the third trimester include:
      – Mullerian anomalies
      – Placentation
      – Uterine leiomyoma
      – Prematurity
      – Aneuploidies and fetal neuromuscular disorders
      – Congenital anomalies
      – Polyhydramnios and oligohydramnios
      – Laxity of the maternal abdominal wall.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      53.1
      Seconds
  • Question 38 - Engagement of the foetus can be defined as: ...

    Correct

    • Engagement of the foetus can be defined as:

      Your Answer: When the greatest biparietal diameter of the fetal head passes the pelvic inlet

      Explanation:

      Engagement means when the fetal head enters the pelvic brim/inlet and it usually takes place 2 weeks before the estimated delivery date i.e. at 38 weeks of pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      53
      Seconds
  • Question 39 - A 29 year old women wants to speak to you regarding infections in...

    Correct

    • A 29 year old women wants to speak to you regarding infections in pregnancy. Her two year old son has sensorineural deafness as a result of infection in her previous pregnancy. She tells you he was born with a 'blueberry muffin' rash. What was the most likely infection?

      Your Answer: Rubella

      Explanation:

      The ‘Blueberry muffin’ rash is a descriptor for the rash seen in Congenital Rubella Syndrome. A similar petechial rash may also occur in CMV infection but shouldn’t be termed ‘blueberry muffin’

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      23.8
      Seconds
  • Question 40 - Which of the following increases the risk of endometrial hyperplasia? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following increases the risk of endometrial hyperplasia?

      Your Answer: Tamoxifen

      Explanation:

      Tamoxifen increases risk of endometrial hyperplasia Aromatase inhibitors such as Letrozole and Anastrozole are not associated and have not been shown to increase the risk of endometrial pathology Whereas unopposed oestrogens increase endometrial cancer risk combined oral contraceptive decrease risk

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      7.1
      Seconds
  • Question 41 - Sensory supply to the clitoris is via branches of which nerve? ...

    Correct

    • Sensory supply to the clitoris is via branches of which nerve?

      Your Answer: Pudendal nerve

      Explanation:

      The pudenal nerves has three branches, namely the inferior rectal, perineal and the dorsal nerve of the clitoris. The perineal nerve has two branches: The superficial perineal nerve gives rise to posterior scrotal or labial (cutaneous) branches, and the deep perineal nerve supplies the muscles of the deep and superficial perineal pouches, the skin of the vestibule, and the mucosa of the inferior most part of the vagina. The inferior rectal nerve communicates with the posterior scrotal or labial and perineal nerves. The dorsal nerve of the penis or clitoris is the primary sensory nerve serving the male or female organ, especially the sensitive glans at the distal end.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      17.4
      Seconds
  • Question 42 - A 17-year-old girl presented to the medical clinic for emergency contraception. Upon interview,...

    Correct

    • A 17-year-old girl presented to the medical clinic for emergency contraception. Upon interview, it was revealed that she had unprotected sexual intercourse last night and is worried that she may become pregnant. She mentioned that her last menstrual period was 1 week ago, and she has regular menses since menarche.
      Further physical examination was performed and results are normal and her urine pregnancy test is negative. After discussing various emergency contraceptive options, the patient asked for a pill option and requested to not inform her parents about this visit.

      In most states, which of the following is considered the most appropriate step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Provide levonorgestrel pill

      Explanation:

      Levonorgestrel, also known as the morning-after pill, is a first-line oral emergency contraceptive pill with approval from the World Health Organization to prevent pregnancy. It is FDA-approved to be used within 72 hours of unprotected sexual intercourse or when a presumed contraceptive failure has occurred.

      A prescription is not needed, and it is available over the counter at local pharmacies. The FDA has also approved levonorgestrel availability for all age groups due to its lack of life-threatening contraindications and side-effect profile.

      There are several contraindications for the emergency contraceptive form, including allergy, hypersensitivity, severe liver disease, pregnancy, and drug-drug interactions with liver enzyme-inducing drugs. The medication is not for use in women confirmed to be pregnant; however, there is no proof nor reports of adverse effects on the mother or foetus following inadvertent exposure during pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      50.1
      Seconds
  • Question 43 - A 25 year old pregnant woman presents with constant abdominal pain, which has...

    Correct

    • A 25 year old pregnant woman presents with constant abdominal pain, which has been present for the last few hours. Before the pain started she admits experiencing vaginal blood loss. She's a primigravida in her 30th week of gestation. Upon abdominal examination the uterus seems irritable. CTG is, however, reactive. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Antepartum haemorrhage

      Explanation:

      Antepartum haemorrhage presents with bleeding, which may or may not be accompanied by pain. Uterine irritability would suggest abruptio, however contractions are present which may be confused with uterine irritability and in this case, there are no signs of pre-eclampsia present.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      87.8
      Seconds
  • Question 44 - In which part of the body does clomiphene trigger ovulation by antagonising oestrogen...

    Correct

    • In which part of the body does clomiphene trigger ovulation by antagonising oestrogen receptors?

      Your Answer: Hypothalamus

      Explanation:

      Clomiphene citrate is widely used in the induction of ovulation, especially in the treatment of anovulatory infertility and in conditions such as PCOS. The drug functions as a selective oestrogen receptor modulator, which acts in the hypothalamus to indicate low serum oestrogen levels. Reduced levels of negative feedback stimulate the secretion of GnRH from the hypothalamus, which in turn stimulate the production of gonadotropins (FSH and LH) from the anterior pituitary. These work to increase ovarian follicular activity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      9
      Seconds
  • Question 45 - To avoid potential haemolysis, Anti D immunoglobulin should be administered to which of...

    Correct

    • To avoid potential haemolysis, Anti D immunoglobulin should be administered to which of the following?

      Your Answer: Rhesus negative mother, non-sensitised, fetal cord blood Rh positive

      Explanation:

      The Rhesus status of a mother is important in pregnancy and even abortion. The exposure of an Rh-negative mother exposed to Rh antigens from a positive foetus, will influence the development of anti-Rh antibodies. This may cause problems in subsequent pregnancies leading to haemolysis in the newborn. Rh Anti RhD- globulin is therefore given to non-sensitised Rh-negative mothers who give birth to Rh-positive children to prevent the formation of anti-Rh antibodies. Anti RhD globulin is not useful for already sensitized, or RhD positive mothers; its administration could result in maternal blood being bound and taken out of circulation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology
      54.2
      Seconds
  • Question 46 - A 35-year-old lady with a 4-year history of hypertension is planning to conceive....

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old lady with a 4-year history of hypertension is planning to conceive. She has never been pregnant before and has stopped using contraception recently. She has a past medical history of asthma and the only medication she is on is ramipril 10 mg daily.

      On examination her blood pressure is found to be 130/85 mm/Hg.

      From the following which is the most appropriate initial management of her hypertension?

      Your Answer: Cease ramipril and start methyldopa

      Explanation:

      In the given case pre-pregnancy counselling and management of chronic hypertension is very much essential.
      Some commonly prescribed antihypertensive drugs like ACE inhibitors, angiotensin receptor antagonists, diuretics and most beta blockers are contraindicated or is best to be avoided before conception and during pregnancy.
      Methyldopa is considered as the first line drug for the management of mild to moderate hypertension in pregnancy and is the most commonly prescribed antihypertensive for this indication.
      Hydralazine can be used during any hypertensive emergencies in pregnancy.
      Intake of Angiotensin receptor blockers and ACE inhibitors during the first trimester can lead to complications as they are both teratogenic; use of these drugs during second and third trimesters can result in foetal renal dysfunction, oligohydramnios and skull hypoplasia.
      Diuretics can cause foetal electrolyte disturbances and significant reduction in maternal blood volume.
      All beta blockers, except labetalol, can result in foetal bradycardia, and growth restriction in case its long-term use.
      Calcium channel antagonists, except nifedipine, are avoided during pregnancy due to its high risk for maternal hypotension and foetal hypoxia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      49.5
      Seconds
  • Question 47 - Etiological factors in spontaneous abortion include: ...

    Correct

    • Etiological factors in spontaneous abortion include:

      Your Answer: All of the options given

      Explanation:

      Spontaneous abortion is the loss of pregnancy naturally before twenty weeks of gestation. Colloquially, spontaneous abortion is referred to as a ‘miscarriage’ to avoid association with induced abortion. Early pregnancy loss refers only to spontaneous abortion in the first trimester. In 50% of cases, early pregnancy loss is believed to be due to fetal chromosomal abnormalities. Advanced maternal age and previous early pregnancy loss are the most common risk factors. For example, the incidence of early pregnancy loss in women 20-30 years of age is only 9 to 17%, while the incidence at 45 years of maternal age is 80%. Other risk factors include alcohol consumption, smoking, and cocaine use.

      Several chronic diseases can precipitate spontaneous abortion, including diabetes, celiac disease, and autoimmune conditions, particularly anti-phospholipid antibody syndrome. Rapid conception after delivery and infections, such as cervicitis, vaginitis, HIV infection, syphilis, and malaria, are also common risk factors. Another important risk factor is exposure to environmental contaminants, including arsenic, lead, and organic solvents. Finally, structural uterine abnormalities, such as congenital anomalies, leiomyoma, and intrauterine adhesions, have been shown to increase the risk of spontaneous abortion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      27.9
      Seconds
  • Question 48 - In early pregnancy at what gestation does the Embryonic pole become visible on...

    Correct

    • In early pregnancy at what gestation does the Embryonic pole become visible on transvaginal ultrasound?

      Your Answer: 5 weeks + 3 days

      Explanation:

      The gestational sac can be visualized from as early as 4–5 weeks of gestation and the yolk sac at about 5 weeks (Figure 6.3). The embryo can be observed and measured at 5–6 weeks gestation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Biophysics
      23.3
      Seconds
  • Question 49 - You are asked to explain to a patient the results of her Rubella...

    Correct

    • You are asked to explain to a patient the results of her Rubella screen. They are as follows:

      Your Answer: Acute Rubella Infection

      Explanation:

      IgM rise is typically seen with acute infection. IgG is produced in response to infection but is produced later than IgM. IgG is also produced in response to vaccination. If IgG and IgM are negative the patient is susceptible to Rubella infection. If IgG +ve and IgM -ve the patient should be considered immune. If IgM +ve this suggests acute infection or false positive IgM (not uncommon)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      14.5
      Seconds
  • Question 50 - A 44-year-old woman underwent a cervical screening test at your clinic a week ago...

    Incorrect

    • A 44-year-old woman underwent a cervical screening test at your clinic a week ago revealing Invasive squamous cell carcinoma.
      What is the best course of action for her management?

      Your Answer: Colposcopy at your clinic

      Correct Answer: Refer to a gynaecologist at tertiary hospital

      Explanation:

      If a cervical screening test reveals invasive squamous cell carcinoma or adenocarcinoma, refer the patient to a gynaecologist at a tertiary hospital right once for further treatment.
      Colposcopy at a GP practice is not appropriate in these situations. When it comes to the prospect of cancer, reassurance isn’t enough.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      57.9
      Seconds
  • Question 51 - An HIV positive woman who is 18 weeks pregnant complains of frothy yellow...

    Correct

    • An HIV positive woman who is 18 weeks pregnant complains of frothy yellow vaginal discharge and vaginal soreness. A wet mount and microscopy confirms a Trichomonas vaginalis infection. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment regime?

      Your Answer: Metronidazole 500mg BD 7 days

      Explanation:

      Trichomoniasis is considered a sexually transmitted infection found both in men and women caused by the flagellate protozoan Trichomonas vaginalis. The organism is mainly found in the vagina and the urethra. Though many infected women can be asymptomatic, they can also present with yellow frothy vaginal discharge, itching and vaginitis, dysuria or an offensive odour. For the diagnosis of t. vaginalis in women, a swab is taken from the posterior fornix during speculum examination and the flagellates are detected under light-field microscopy. The recommended treatment for t. vaginalis for a HIV positive woman who is pregnant is 500mg of metronidazole twice daily for 7 days. High dose metronidazole as a 2g single dose tablet is not advised during pregnancy. All sexual partners should also be treated, and screening for other STIs should be carried out.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      29.3
      Seconds
  • Question 52 - A serum progesterone value less than 5ng/ml can exclude the diagnosis of viable...

    Correct

    • A serum progesterone value less than 5ng/ml can exclude the diagnosis of viable pregnancy with a certainty of:

      Your Answer: 100%

      Explanation:

      Serum progesterone has been proposed as a useful test to distinguish a viable pregnancy from a miscarriage or ectopic pregnancy. Low progesterone values are associated with miscarriages and ectopic pregnancies, both considered non-viable pregnancies, and high progesterone concentrations with viable pregnancies. A single progesterone measurement for women in early pregnancy presenting with bleeding or pain and inconclusive ultrasound assessments can rule out a viable pregnancy. The probability of a non-viable pregnancy was raised from 62.9% to 96.8%.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      30.5
      Seconds
  • Question 53 - Which one of the following statements regarding the fetal head is true? ...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following statements regarding the fetal head is true?

      Your Answer: Considered to be engaged when the biparietal diameter passes the level of the pelvic inlet

      Explanation:

      The fetal head is engaged when the head of the foetus or the presenting part enters the pelvic inlet or pelvic brim. It usually occurs at 38 weeks of gestation.
      The Spalding sign refers to the overlapping of the fetal skull bones caused by collapse of the fetal brain. It appears usually a week or more after fetal death in utero.
      In brow presentation the scalp is deflexed as the foetus is looking upward. Normally the head is inflexed such that the chin is touching the chest.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      44.8
      Seconds
  • Question 54 - The median umbilical ligament is a remnant of what structure? ...

    Correct

    • The median umbilical ligament is a remnant of what structure?

      Your Answer: Urachus

      Explanation:

      MEDIAL umbilical ligament = remnant fetal umbilical arteries
      MEDIAN umbilical ligament = remnant of urachus

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      12.9
      Seconds
  • Question 55 - In normal pregnancy, the value of β-hCG doubles every: ...

    Correct

    • In normal pregnancy, the value of β-hCG doubles every:

      Your Answer: 2 days

      Explanation:

      During early pregnancy, hCG can be detected in the maternal serum as early as 6 to 8 days after fertilization. hCG levels are dynamically increased and doubled every 48 h in most normal pregnancies, and this pattern is similar in both in vivo or in vitro (IVF) conceptions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      13.9
      Seconds
  • Question 56 - All of the following anatomical features of the pelvis favour a vaginal delivery,...

    Correct

    • All of the following anatomical features of the pelvis favour a vaginal delivery, except?

      Your Answer: Obstetric conjugate is less than 10 cm

      Explanation:

      For the foetus to pass through the vagina, the obstetric conjugate should be 11cm or greater. If the diameter is less than 10 cm then its better to perform C-section as the labour might not progress. All the other options favour a normal vaginal delivery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      22.9
      Seconds
  • Question 57 - In fetal circulation: ...

    Correct

    • In fetal circulation:

      Your Answer: Most of the blood entering the right atrium flows into the left atrium

      Explanation:

      Circulation in the foetus: 1. Deoxygenated fetal blood is conducted to the placenta via the two umbilical arteries. The umbilical arteries arise from the internal iliac arteries.
      2. Gas exchange occurs in placenta.
      3. Oxygenated blood from the placenta passes through the single umbilical vein and enters the inferior vena cava (IVC).
      4. About 50% of the blood in the IVC passes through the liver and the rest bypasses the liver via the ductus venosus. The IVC also drains blood returning from the lower trunk and extremities.
      5. On reaching the heart, blood is effectively divided into two streams by the edge of the interatrial septum (crista dividens) (1) a larger stream is shunted to the left atrium through the foramen ovale (lying between IVC and left atrium) (2) the other stream passes into right atrium where it is joined by blood from SVC which is blood returning from the myocardium and upper parts of body. This stream therefore has a lower partial pressure of oxygen.
      6. Because of the large pulmonary vascular resistance and the presence of the ductus arteriosus most of the right ventricular output passes into the aorta at a point distal to the origin of the arteries to the head and upper extremities. The diameter of the ductus arteriosus is similar to the descending aorta. The patency of the ductus arteriosus is maintained by the low oxygen tension and the vasodilating effects of prostaglandin E2;
      7. Blood flowing through the foramen ovale and into left atrium passes into the left ventricle where it is ejected into the ascending aorta. This relatively oxygen rich blood passes predominantly to the head and upper extremities.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      20
      Seconds
  • Question 58 - With regard to the cell cycle. In what phase do chromatids get cleaved...

    Incorrect

    • With regard to the cell cycle. In what phase do chromatids get cleaved into chromosomes and pulled apart?

      Your Answer: S Phase

      Correct Answer: Anaphase

      Explanation:

      G0 is a resting phase. Interphase (G1,S,G2) is where the cell grows and DNA replication occurs forming chromatids. Mitosis is where cell division occurs and this happens in a the following phases: Prophase Chromatin condenses to chromosomes (paired as chromatids). Mitotic spindle forms Metaphase Chromatids align at the equatorial plane AKA the metaphase plate Anaphase Chromatids pulled apart into 2 constituent daughter chromosomes Telophase New nuclear envelopes form around each daughter chromosome Cytokinesis Cells divide Diagram illustrating Mitosis Image sourced from Wikipedia

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Biochemistry
      26.8
      Seconds
  • Question 59 - A 32 year old woman who is 14 weeks pregnant presents to the...

    Correct

    • A 32 year old woman who is 14 weeks pregnant presents to the clinic with yellow, frothy vaginal discharge and vaginal soreness. Trichomoniasis is confirmed after microscopy on a wet smear. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment?

      Your Answer: Metronidazole 400mg TDS 7 days

      Explanation:

      Trichomoniasis is considered a sexually transmitted infection found both in men and women caused by the flagellate protozoan Trichomonas vaginalis. The organism is mainly found in the vagina and the urethra. Though many infected women can be asymptomatic, they can also present with yellow frothy vaginal discharge, itching and vaginitis, dysuria or an offensive odour.

      For the diagnosis of t. vaginalis in women, a swab is taken from the posterior fornix during speculum examination and the flagellates are detected under light-field microscopy.

      The recommended treatment for t. vaginalis during pregnancy and breastfeeding is 400-500mg of metronidazole twice daily for 5 -7 days. High dose metronidazole as a 2g single dose tablet is not advised during pregnancy. All sexual partners should also be treated, and screening for other STIs should be carried out.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      52.3
      Seconds
  • Question 60 - A young couple visited your clinic for taking your opinion. The woman has...

    Correct

    • A young couple visited your clinic for taking your opinion. The woman has a history of rheumatoid arthritis, and is on methotrexate and sulfasalazine; and they are planning to have a baby in next three months.

      What will be the most appropriate management in this patient during her pregnancy?

      Your Answer: Stop methotrexate and continue sulfasalazine

      Explanation:

      Rheumatoid arthritis and its prognosis during pregnancy are highly unpredictable, as the disease can improve in 75% of the cases and gets worse in 25%. During conception and pregnancy, it is advisable to avoid those rheumatoid arthritis medications which possess high risk in causing congenital disabilities. Most common such contraindicated remedies include methotrexate and leflunomide.
      Drugs like Prednisone, Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs and TNF inhibitors are also not considered safe during pregnancy, so if required these should be used under specialist supervision.

      Sulfasalazine and Antimalarials such as hydroxychloroquine are safe and can be used without much complications during pregnancy. In this given case, the patient should be advised to stop methotrexate and to continue sulfasalazine during pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      34.5
      Seconds
  • Question 61 - A 28-year-old, currently at 26 weeks’ gestation of her third pregnancy, presents with...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old, currently at 26 weeks’ gestation of her third pregnancy, presents with irregular uterine contractions for the past 24 hours and has concerns about premature delivery. She delivered her first child at 38 weeks of gestation and her second at 39 weeks gestation. On examination, BP and urinalysis have come back normal. Her symphysis-fundal height measures 27cm, the uterus is lax and non-tender. Fetal heart rate is 148/min. She also undergoes a pelvic examination along with other investigations.

      Which findings would suggest that delivery is most likely going to happen before 30 weeks’ of gestation?

      Your Answer: The cervix is closed, but the fetal fibronectin test on cervical secretions is positive.

      Explanation:

      Predisposing factors of preterm delivery include a short cervix (or if it shortens earlier than in the third trimester), urinary tract or sexually transmitted infections, open cervical os, and history of a previous premature delivery. Increased uterine size can also contribute to preterm delivery and is seen with cases of polyhydramnios, macrosomia and multiple pregnancies. The shorter the cervical length, the greater the risk of a premature birth.
      In this case, the risk of bacterial vaginosis and candidiasis contributing to preterm delivery would be lower than if in the context of an open cervical os. However, the risk of premature delivery is significantly increased if it is found that the fetal fibronectin test is positive, even if the os is closed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      70.3
      Seconds
  • Question 62 - From what does the blastocyst hatch? ...

    Correct

    • From what does the blastocyst hatch?

      Your Answer: Zona Pellucida

      Explanation:

      The blastocyst hatchs from the Zona Pellucida

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      6.7
      Seconds
  • Question 63 - A 25-year-old woman comes to your clinic for advice as she is 20...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman comes to your clinic for advice as she is 20 weeks pregnant and was found to have thyrotoxicosis with mild enlargement of the thyroid gland.

      What other investigation will you consider to be done in this patient?

      Your Answer: Ultrasound thyroid gland

      Explanation:

      A 20 weeks pregnant patient has developed goitre along with thyrotoxicosis, where the diagnosis of thyrotoxicosis has already been established.
      Ultrasound of the thyroid and a radioisotope scan to differentiate between “hot” and “cold” nodules are the confirming investigations for goitre. A nodule composed of cells that do not make thyroid hormone and the nodule which produces too much thyroid hormone are respectively called as cold and “hot” nodules.

      Due to the risk of fetal uptake of the isotope which leads to the damage of fetal thyroid, radioisotope or radionuclide Technetium uptake scan is contraindicated in pregnancy.

      Fine needle aspiration cytology is required to establish a histopathological diagnosis in case of all cold nodules.

      So ultrasound of the thyroid gland is the mandatory investigation to be done in this case as it will show diffuse enlargement, characteristic of the autoimmune disease, or multinodularity, which is suggestive of autonomous multinodular goitre.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      38.9
      Seconds
  • Question 64 - A 31-year-old G1P0 lady cames to you for dating scan, and the scan...

    Correct

    • A 31-year-old G1P0 lady cames to you for dating scan, and the scan findings corresponds to 8 weeks of gestations.
      On laboratory examination, her urine culture came out as Staphylococcus saprophyticus resistant to amoxicillin, but she is otherwise asymptomatic.

      Which among the following is considered the best management for her?

      Your Answer: Prescribe her with Augmentin

      Explanation:

      In the given case, the patient should be treated with Augmentin.
      Asymptomatic bacteriuria occurs in about 2 % to 10 % of all pregnancies and if left untreated, about 30% of this will develop acute cystitis and the other 50% will develop acute pyelonephritis.

      Escherichia coli is the most common pathogen associated with asymptomatic bacteriuria, which consists more than 80% of the isolate and Staphylococcus Saprophyticus accounts for about 5-10% of isolates associated with uncomplicated UTI. Escherichia coli is a very common normal flora found in the gastrointestinal tract and Staphylococcus Saprophyticus is a commonly found normal flora in genital tract and perineum.

      Asymptomatic bacteriuria has found to be associated with low birth weight and preterm birth, and it is found that a short term antibiotic treatment will help in improving the fetal outcomes in cases of asymptomatic bacteriuria or uncomplicated UTI. Hence, all cases of asymptomatic bacteriuria and uncomplicated UTI during pregnancy are recommended to be treated with a five day course of oral antibiotics as this is normally sufficient in pregnant women.

      Drug of choice in asymptomatic bacteriuria (directed therapy based on sensitivities) in case of E. coli are either:
      – Cephalexin 500 mg oral twice a day for 5 days or
      – Nitrofurantoin 100 mg orally twice daily for 5 days or
      – Trimethoprim 300 mg oral doses daily for 5 days (avoided during first trimester and in those pregnant women with established folate deficiency, low dietary folate intake, or for women taking other folate antagonists).
      – Amoxicillin + clavulanate 500 + 125 mg oral, twice daily for 5 days if < 20 weeks of gestation.
      Note: In view of childhood outcomes – (ORACLE II trial and 7 year follow-up), which showed an associated increase in necrotising enterocolitis, functional impairment (low), and cerebral palsy, it is recommended that amoxicillin / clavulanate is only used if no alternative treatment is available(if >20 weeks of gestation).

      Asymptomatic bacteriuria (directed therapy based on sensitivities ) in case of Staphylococcus saprophyticus infection is as follows:
      Cephalexin 500 mg oral doses twice a day for 5 days or Amoxicillin 500mg TDS for 5 days.

      Asymptomatic bacteriuria (directed therapy based on sensitivities) in case of infection with Pseudomonas suggest Norfloxacin 400 mg oral twice daily for 5 days, then repeat MSSU 48 hours after the treatment is completed.

      In case of Group B streptococcus as a single organism, Penicillin V 500 mg oral twice daily for 5 days. If the patient is hypersensitive to penicillin give Cephalexin 500 mg orally twice a day for 5 days were immediate hypersensitivity is excluded. If immediate hypersensitivity to penicillin is noticed, then Clindamycin 450 mg three times daily for 5 days is advised.

      Amoxicillin is found more effective in treating UTIs caused by organisms which are resistant to the drug in vitro because of its high concentrations attainable in urine. However, a study shows that amoxicillin-resistant organisms do not respond to amoxicillin alone but Augmentin [amoxicillin clavulanate] is found to cure urinary tract infection irrespective of the amoxicillin susceptibility of the organism in vitro. Of the patients infected with amoxicillin-resistant organisms, 80% were cured by augmentin and only 10% with infection by amoxicillin-resistant organisms were cured by amoxicillin.

      Now a days Amoxicillin is not preferred as the common treatment option for UTI due to increasing incidences of Escherichia coli resistance, which accounts majority of uncomplicated urinary tract infections. Clavulanic acid which is a beta-lactamase inhibitor works synergistically with amoxicillin to extend spectrum antibiotic susceptibility. This makes UTIs less likely to be resistant to the treatment with amoxicillin clavulanate compared to amoxicillin alone.
      Ciprofloxacin and Gentamicin which are the other antibiotic choice considered otherwise also should be avoided in pregnancy as they comes under FDA pregnancy Category C.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      41.1
      Seconds
  • Question 65 - Evidence from meta-analysis of RCTs is what level of evidence? ...

    Incorrect

    • Evidence from meta-analysis of RCTs is what level of evidence?

      Your Answer: Ib

      Correct Answer: Ia

      Explanation:

      The levels of evidence range from I-IV:
      1a: Systematic reviews (with homogeneity) or metanalysis of randomized controlled trials: highest level of evidence.
      1b: Individual randomized controlled trial (with narrow confidence interval)
      1c: All or none randomized controlled trials
      2a: Systematic reviews (with homogeneity) of cohort studies
      2b: Individual cohort study or low quality randomized controlled trials (e.g. <80% follow-up)
      2c: Outcomes Research; ecological studies
      3a: Systematic review (with homogeneity) of case-control studies
      3b: Individual case-control study
      4: Case series (and poor quality cohort and case-control studies)
      5: Expert opinion without explicit critical appraisal, or based on physiology, bench research or first principles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology
      29.8
      Seconds
  • Question 66 - A women has undergone genetic testing due to her family history and has...

    Incorrect

    • A women has undergone genetic testing due to her family history and has the BRCA 2 gene. What would you advise her lifetime risk of breast cancer is?

      Your Answer: 30%

      Correct Answer: 45%

      Explanation:

      The life time risk of breast cancer in BRCA 2 gene is 45% and of ovarian cancer is 15%.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      24.6
      Seconds
  • Question 67 - A lady who is 29-weeks pregnant, comes to a general practice, complaining of...

    Correct

    • A lady who is 29-weeks pregnant, comes to a general practice, complaining of a sudden gush of clear fluid.

      On Speculum examination, premature rupture of membranes is confirmed with closed cervix.

      In addition to transferring patient to a tertiary care, what is the most appropriate in the management of this case?

      Your Answer: Betamethasone

      Explanation:

      This patient who is at her 29 weeks of pregnancy, presented with sudden gush of clear fluid and Speculum examination has confirmed premature rupture of membrane (PROM).

      Approximately, 50% of PROM progress to labour within 24 hours and in the remaining, 80% within seven days. The most important next step of management in this case is transferring this patient to tertiary care hospital as soon as possible. It is equally important to give corticosteroid therapy, like Betamethasone, if delivery prior to 34 weeks is likely to occur, as it will help in fetal lung maturity.

      Cardiotocography (CTG) is usually not available in general practice settings and it can be done only while in the hospital. If CTG shows any abnormality or if there is any presence of infection it is better to induce labor.

      Salbutamol and nifedipine are of no use in this case, as the patient is not in labour and does not require tocolytics.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      18.5
      Seconds
  • Question 68 - The roof of the femoral triangle is formed by which structure? ...

    Correct

    • The roof of the femoral triangle is formed by which structure?

      Your Answer: Fascia lata

      Explanation:

      The femoral triangle is bounded:
      – Superiorly by the inguinal ligament that forms the base of the femoral triangle.
      – Medially by the lateral border of the adductor longus.
      – Laterally by the sartorius; the apex of the femoral triangle is formed where the borders of the sartorius and the adductor muscles meet.
      – The floor of the femoral triangle is formed by the iliopsoas laterally and the pectineus muscle medially.
      – The roof of the femoral triangle is formed by the fascia lata and cribriform
      fascia, subcutaneous tissue, and skin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      7.1
      Seconds
  • Question 69 - Regarding uterine fibroids, which of the following statements is false? ...

    Correct

    • Regarding uterine fibroids, which of the following statements is false?

      Your Answer: The risk of fibroids is increased by pregnancy

      Explanation:

      Fibroids are a common gynaecological condition found in many women above the age of 35. They are however uncommon before puberty. They are most common in black women vs white women, and its prevalence increases from puberty to menopause. Risk factors for fibroids include increasing age, obesity and infertility. Protective factors, on the other hand, include pregnancy, as the risk of fibroids decreases with increasing numbers of pregnancies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      25.2
      Seconds
  • Question 70 - A 35 year old known hypertensive female patient comes with a complaint of...

    Incorrect

    • A 35 year old known hypertensive female patient comes with a complaint of irritability around her period. Her breasts are tender, swollen and painful around the time which also contributes to her irritability. She is not active sexually and doesn't plan on having any relationships in the future.

      What is the next step in management?

      Your Answer: SSRI

      Correct Answer: Primrose oil

      Explanation:

      PMS is a condition, which is associated with somatic, emotional and behavioural symptoms during the women menstruation. Oenothera biennis with the common name of “evening primrose” is containing a valuable fixed oil with commercial name of EPO. Evening primrose oil has two types of omega-6-fatty acid including linoleic acid (60%–80%) and γ-linoleic acid (8%–14%). Essential fatty acids are considered as essential compounds for body health, especially among women. Evening primrose oil’s is effective in women health, but the immediate response should not be expected from it, therefore, it should be regularly used up to 4 or 6 months.

      Oral contraceptive pills are only used when other treatments fail.
      SSRI are only indicated in cases of persistent mood changes like depression.
      Local anaesthetics have no role in the management of PMS.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      37.3
      Seconds
  • Question 71 - A patient arrives on labour ward she is 37 weeks pregnant. Her last...

    Correct

    • A patient arrives on labour ward she is 37 weeks pregnant. Her last pregnancy ended with delivery via uncomplicated lower segment C-Section 4 years ago. Contractions are 5 minutes apart and on examination the cervix is 5cm dilated. What is the risk of uterine rupture with vaginal delivery?

      Your Answer: 25 per 10,000

      Explanation:

      Consideration of the risk of scar rupture is probably the most important consideration when determining whether delivery should be by elective Caesarean section or by trial of vaginal delivery.
      Most published studies do not differentiate between scar dehiscence and rupture, however, analysis of observational and comparative studies indicates that the excess risk of uterine rupture following trial of labour compared with women undergoing repeat elective Caesarean section is considerably lower than 1 per cent (25/10000); indeed, some studies do not demonstrate any increased risk.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology
      37.7
      Seconds
  • Question 72 - Regarding CTG analysis what is considered the normal baseline fetal heart rate (FHR)?...

    Correct

    • Regarding CTG analysis what is considered the normal baseline fetal heart rate (FHR)?

      Your Answer: 110-160

      Explanation:

      The normal FHR is 110-160

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Data Interpretation
      7.5
      Seconds
  • Question 73 - During pregnancy, which among these is NOT counted as physiological change? ...

    Correct

    • During pregnancy, which among these is NOT counted as physiological change?

      Your Answer: Tidal volume 500ml.

      Explanation:

      There is a significant increase in oxygen demand during pregnancy due to a 15% increase in the metabolic rate and a 20% increased consumption of oxygen. There is a 40–50% increase in minute ventilation, mostly due to an increase in tidal volume, rather than in the respiratory rate. In a healthy, young human adult, tidal volume is approximately 500 mL per inspiration

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      47.5
      Seconds
  • Question 74 - The maternal blood volume in normal pregnancy: ...

    Correct

    • The maternal blood volume in normal pregnancy:

      Your Answer: Increases up to 40%

      Explanation:

      Changes in the cardiovascular system in pregnancy are profound and begin early in pregnancy, such that by eight weeks’ gestation, the cardiac output has already increased by 20%. The primary event is probably peripheral vasodilatation. This is mediated by endothelium-dependent factors, including nitric oxide synthesis, upregulated by oestradiol and possibly vasodilatory prostaglandins (PGI2). Peripheral vasodilation leads to a 25–30% fall in systemic vascular resistance, and to compensate for this, cardiac output increases by around 40% during pregnancy. 

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      10
      Seconds
  • Question 75 - In the earliest phase of wound healing platelets are held together by what?...

    Correct

    • In the earliest phase of wound healing platelets are held together by what?

      Your Answer: Fibrin

      Explanation:

      The 1st stage of wound healing is haemostasis. Even in incised wounds a small haematoma forms. Here the clotting cascade is activated by tissue factor and endothelial cells resulting in activation of platelets. This results in platelet aggregation and the laying down of a fibrin mesh that is cross linked and holds the platelets in place.
      Wound healing is typically divided into phases:
      1. Haemostasis Phase
      2. Inflammatory phase
      3. Proliferation phase
      4. Remodelling phase

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      11.4
      Seconds
  • Question 76 - What percentage of pregnancies will be uncomplicated following a single episode of reduced...

    Correct

    • What percentage of pregnancies will be uncomplicated following a single episode of reduced fetal movements?

      Your Answer: 70%

      Explanation:

      Reduced fetal movements can be the first indication of possible fetal abnormalities. Movements are first perceived by the mother from about 18-20 weeks gestation, increase in size and frequency until 32 weeks gestation when they plateau at about 31 movements per hour. Investigations for reduced fetal heart rate include auscultation of the fetal heart rate using a handheld doppler device, and a cardiotocograph or ultrasound if the foetus is above 28 weeks gestation. About 70% of women who experience one episode of reduced fetal movement have uncomplicated pregnancies. They are advised to report to a maternal unit if another episode occurs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      15.8
      Seconds
  • Question 77 - A patient has had limited response to conservative measures for her overactive bladder...

    Incorrect

    • A patient has had limited response to conservative measures for her overactive bladder (OAB). Which of the following is the most appropriate pharmacological choice?

      Your Answer: Imipramine

      Correct Answer: Darifenacin

      Explanation:

      Detrusor overactivity can be treated with anti-cholinergic agents such as oxybutynin or tolterodine, solifenacin, fesoterodine and darifenacin. They are used as first line agents. Imipramine is used for enuresis and desmopressin is used for nocturia.
      NICE pathway

      Prior to initiating anticholinergics:
      Bladder training
      Consider treating vaginal atrophy and nocturia with topical oestrogen and desmopressin respectively before commencing treatments below.
      Consider catheterisation if chronic retention
      1st line treatments:
      1. Oxybutynin (immediate release) – Do not offer to frail elderly patients
      2. Tolterodine (immediate release)
      3. Darifenacin (once daily preparation)
      DO NOT offer any of the 3 drugs below:
      1. Flavoxate
      2. Propantheline
      3. Imipramine
      2nd line treatment
      Consider transdermal anticholinergic (antimuscarinic)
      Mirabegron
      Adjuvant Treatments
      Desmopressin can be considered for those with nocturia
      Duloxetine may be considered for those who don’t want/unsuitable for surgical treatment
      Intravaginal oestrogen can be offered to postmenopausal women with OAB

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      28
      Seconds
  • Question 78 - According to the RCOG Green-top guideline published in 2013 at what stage of...

    Correct

    • According to the RCOG Green-top guideline published in 2013 at what stage of gestation should pregnant patients with PCOS be offered screening for gestational diabetes

      Your Answer: 24-28 weeks gestation

      Explanation:

      Screening for gestational diabetes should be offered and performed between 24-28 weeks. It should be noted PCOS alone does not make screening essential. It is advised for PCOS patients who are overweight or if not overweight but has other risk factors (age >40, personal history of gestational diabetes or family history of type II diabetes). Screening is via a 2-hour post 75 g oral glucose tolerance test.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      25
      Seconds
  • Question 79 - A 65-year-old female patient complained of two months of painless vaginal bleeding. The...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old female patient complained of two months of painless vaginal bleeding. The endometrial thickness is 6mm, according to transvaginal ultrasound. To rule out endometrial cancer, you plan to send this patient to a gynaecologist for an endometrial biopsy with or without hysteroscopy.

      Which of the following characteristics in your medical history is linked to a higher risk of endometrial cancer?

      Your Answer: Regular ovulatory periods

      Correct Answer: Polycystic ovary syndrome associated with chronic anovulation

      Explanation:

      Women with polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS) have a 2.7-fold increased risk for developing endometrial cancer. A major factor for this increased malignancy risk is prolonged exposure of the endometrium to unopposed oestrogen that results from anovulation.

      Additionally, secretory endometrium of some women with PCOS undergoing ovulation induction or receiving exogenous progestin exhibits progesterone resistance accompanied by dysregulation of gene expression controlling steroid action and cell proliferation.

      Other risk factors include nulliparity, early menarche and late menopause, obesity and family history of endometrial cancer. Which rules out all the other options.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      87.3
      Seconds
  • Question 80 - The average normal heart rate of a foetus at term is : ...

    Correct

    • The average normal heart rate of a foetus at term is :

      Your Answer: 120-160 bpm

      Explanation:

      The normal fetal heart rate ranges from 120-160 beats per minute in the uterine period.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      16.2
      Seconds
  • Question 81 - What percentage of pregnant women have asymptomatic vaginal colonisation with candida? ...

    Correct

    • What percentage of pregnant women have asymptomatic vaginal colonisation with candida?

      Your Answer: 40%

      Explanation:

      90% of genital candida infections are the result of Candida albicans. 20% of women of childbearing age are asymptotic colonisers of Candida species as part of their normal vaginal flora. This increases to 40% in pregnancy

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      19.7
      Seconds
  • Question 82 - A 33-year-old female, who is 14 weeks pregnant, presented to your office for...

    Correct

    • A 33-year-old female, who is 14 weeks pregnant, presented to your office for antenatal follow-up.
      On examination, the fundal height is found to be18 cm.
      which among the following would be the best next step in the management of this patient?

      Your Answer: Perform an ultrasound scan

      Explanation:

      At 12 weeks gestation the fundus is expected to be palpable above the pubis symphysis and it is expected to be felt at the level of umbilicus by 20 weeks. Though the uterine fundus stands in between from 12 and 20 weeks, the height of the fundus in centimeters is equivalent to the weeks of pregnancy after 20 weeks.

      For 14-week pregnant uterus a fundal height of 18cm is definitely large and dating errors is considered as the most common cause for such a discrepancy. Hence, it is better to perform an ultrasound scan for more accurately estimating the gestational age. Also if the case is not a simple dating error, ultrasonography can provide definitive additional information about other possible conditions such as polyhydramnios, multiple gestation, etc that might have led to a large-for-date uterus.

      A large-for-gestational-age uterus are most commonly found in conditions like:
      – Dating errors which is the most common cause
      – Twin pregnancy
      – Gestational diabetes
      – Polyhydramnios
      – Gestational trophoblastic disease, also known as molar pregnancy

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      23.4
      Seconds
  • Question 83 - A 27-year-old woman who is 18 weeks pregnant presented to the emergency department...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old woman who is 18 weeks pregnant presented to the emergency department due to a sudden onset of dyspnoea and pleuritic chest pain. She is known to have a previous history of deep venous thrombosis (DVT).

      Which of the following is considered to be the most appropriate examination for this patient?

      Your Answer: Ventilation/perfusion scan

      Explanation:

      Pulmonary embolism (PE) is a treatable disease caused by thrombus formation in the lung-vasculature, commonly from the lower extremity’s deep veins compromising the blood flow to the lungs.
      Computed tomography of pulmonary arteries (CTPA) and ventilation-perfusion (V/Q) scan are the two most common and widely practiced testing modalities to diagnose pulmonary embolism.

      Pulmonary ventilation (V) and Perfusion (Q) scan, also known as lung V/Q scan, is a nuclear test that uses the perfusion scan to delineate the blood flow distribution and ventilation scan to measure airflow distribution in the lungs. The primary utilization of the V/Q scan is to help diagnose lung clots called pulmonary embolism. V/Q scan provides help in clinical decision-making by evaluating scans showing ventilation and perfusion in all areas of the lungs using radioactive tracers.

      Ventilation-perfusion V/Q scanning is mostly indicated for a patient population in whom CTPA is contraindicated (pregnancy, renal insufficiency CKD stage 4 or more, or severe contrast allergy) or relatively inconclusive.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      24.7
      Seconds
  • Question 84 - Of the following, which one has the greatest effect on the relative risk...

    Correct

    • Of the following, which one has the greatest effect on the relative risk of developing endometrial carcinoma?

      Your Answer: Polycystic ovary syndrome

      Explanation:

      The factor associated with the greatest relative risk for endometrial carcinoma is polycystic ovary syndrome, which has a relative risk of 75. The use of long-term high doses of postmenopausal oestrogen carries an estimated risk of 10-20. Living in North America or Europe also has an estimated risk of 10-20.

      A lower relative risk is associated with nulliparity, obesity, infertility, late menopause, older age, and white race- The relative risk associated with these factors falls into the range of 2-5. Early menarche, higher education or income levels, menstrual irregularities, and a history of diabetes, hypertension, gall bladder disease, or thyroid disease have a relative risk of around 1.5-2.0.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      36.6
      Seconds
  • Question 85 - Which is an absolute contraindication to contraceptive pills containing only progesterone? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which is an absolute contraindication to contraceptive pills containing only progesterone?

      Your Answer: History of liver disease

      Correct Answer: Rifampicin

      Explanation:

      Progestogen-only methods are contraindicated in suspected pregnancy, breast cancer and undiagnosed vaginal bleeding. Giving DMPA to a woman with a severe bleeding disorder may result in a large haematoma at the injection site.

      Women who want to become pregnant within 18 months or who are afraid of injections should be discouraged from using DMPA. Progestogen-only methods are unsuitable for women unwilling to accept menstrual changes.

      Relative contraindications are active viral hepatitis and severe chronic liver disease. For all progestogen-only methods, with the possible exception of DMPA, drug interactions are likely with many anticonvulsants, rifampicin, spironolactone and griseofulvin. This may result in lowered efficacy.

      Migraine, malabsorption syndrome, smoking and history of liver disease have not been identified as contraindications to mini pills.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      43.1
      Seconds
  • Question 86 - All of the following are features of Turner's syndrome except: ...

    Correct

    • All of the following are features of Turner's syndrome except:

      Your Answer: The ovaries are usually well developed

      Explanation:

      Turner syndrome patients have malfunctioning or streak ovaries due to which they can never conceive. It affects females, who will have a short stature, widely spaced nipples, webbed neck and karyotyping shows 45XO.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      37.8
      Seconds
  • Question 87 - A patient is about to undergo an elective C-section. She wants to know...

    Correct

    • A patient is about to undergo an elective C-section. She wants to know how long it will take for her wound to completely heal.

      How much time does it take for healing by primary intention to reach full tensile strength?

      Your Answer: 12 weeks

      Explanation:

      Wound healing typically undergoes different stages that include haemostasis, inflammation, proliferation and remodelling. The phases are often shortened when healing occurs by primary intention such as in a surgical wound. Remodelling, which is the major strengthening phase, takes about 3 weeks, while it takes a total of 12 weeks to reach maximum tensile strength.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      22.8
      Seconds
  • Question 88 - A low APGAR score at one minute: ...

    Correct

    • A low APGAR score at one minute:

      Your Answer: Indicates the need for immediate resuscitation

      Explanation:

      The treatment of asphyxia starts with the correct perinatal management of high-risk pregnancies. The management of the hypoxic-ischemic new-borns in the delivery room is the second fundamental step of the treatment. Low Apgar scores and need for cardiopulmonary resuscitation at birth are common but nonspecific findings. Most new-borns respond rapidly to resuscitation and make a full recovery. The outcomes for new-borns who do not respond to resuscitation by 10 minutes of age are very poor, with a very low probability of surviving without severe disability. Resuscitation in room air is advised for term new-borns, since the use of 100% oxygen is associated with worse outcomes compared to the use of room air.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      36.6
      Seconds
  • Question 89 - Which vitamin deficiency leads to Wernicke's encephalopathy? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which vitamin deficiency leads to Wernicke's encephalopathy?

      Your Answer: B12

      Correct Answer: B1

      Explanation:

      Vitamin B1 deficiency can lead to Wernicke’s encephalopathy. Alcoholics are at particular risk. In obstetrics all women with hyperemesis gravidarum should receive thiamine supplementation to prevent Wernicke’s.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      15.4
      Seconds
  • Question 90 - Regarding cardiac output in pregnancy which of the following statements is TRUE? ...

    Correct

    • Regarding cardiac output in pregnancy which of the following statements is TRUE?

      Your Answer: Cardiac output increases by approximately 40-50% during pregnancy

      Explanation:

      In a non pregnant adult female the cardiac output is 4.5L/min, by the 20 week of pregnancy the cardiac output increases by 40% to 6.3L/min. During early stages of labour it increases further still by 17% to 7.3L/min.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      16
      Seconds
  • Question 91 - At what stage of gestation does fetal immunoglobulin M production begin? ...

    Correct

    • At what stage of gestation does fetal immunoglobulin M production begin?

      Your Answer: Week 10

      Explanation:

      Maternofetal IgG transfer starts around week 12. Fetal production IgM starts around week 10 to 11.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology
      14.4
      Seconds
  • Question 92 - The following hormones are secreted from the anterior pituitary gland, EXCEPT: ...

    Correct

    • The following hormones are secreted from the anterior pituitary gland, EXCEPT:

      Your Answer: HCG

      Explanation:

      The following hormones are excreted from the anterior pituitary gland: TSH, GN, ACTH, LH, FSH, MSH, PRL.
      Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG, or human chorionic gonadotrophin) is a placental hormone secreted by syncitiotrophoblasts during the second week of gestation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      7.9
      Seconds
  • Question 93 - A 30 year old patient is due for delivery in about two weeks....

    Correct

    • A 30 year old patient is due for delivery in about two weeks. She has some concerns after a family member recently gave birth to a baby with profound hearing loss due to an infection. Which of the following would you describe to her as the most common infective cause of congenital hearing loss?

      Your Answer: Cytomegalovirus

      Explanation:

      Congenital cytomegalovirus infections are the most common cause of sensorineural hearing loss in babies. Cytomegalovirus infection during the perinatal period can be transferred to the foetus especially if the primary infection is during pregnancy. Babies born with congenital CMV are either symptomatic or develop symptoms later in life. Some of the features of CMV infection include sensorineural hearing loss, visual impairment, cerebral palsy, microcephaly and seizures. Other causes of infective congenital sensorineural hearing loss include: Rubella, HIV, Herpes Simplex Virus, Measles, Varicella Zoster virus, Mumps and West Nile Virus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      19.4
      Seconds
  • Question 94 - Galactorrhoea (non-gestational lactation) may result from all of the following EXCEPT: ...

    Correct

    • Galactorrhoea (non-gestational lactation) may result from all of the following EXCEPT:

      Your Answer: Intrapartum haemorrhage

      Explanation:

      Pituitary tumours, the most common pathologic cause of galactorrhoea can result in hyperprolactinemia by producing prolactin or blocking the passage of dopamine from the hypothalamus to the pituitary gland. Approximately 30 percent of patients with chronic renal failure have elevated prolactin levels, possibly because of decreased renal clearance of prolactin. Primary hypothyroidism is a rare cause of galactorrhoea in children and adults. In patients with primary hypothyroidism, there is increased production of thyrotropin-releasing hormone, which may stimulate prolactin release. Nonpituitary malignancies, such as bronchogenic carcinoma, renal adenocarcinoma and Hodgkin’s and T-cell lymphomas, may also release prolactin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      53.5
      Seconds
  • Question 95 - A 27-year-old woman with primary infertility presents with secondary amenorrhoea that has been...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old woman with primary infertility presents with secondary amenorrhoea that has been ongoing for twelve months. She states that she has been thinking about starting a family and was wondering if ovulation induction therapy was an option for her.

      Which one of the following would be most valuable in predicting a poor response to ovulation induction therapy?

      Your Answer: Serum luteinising hormone.

      Correct Answer: Serum follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH).

      Explanation:

      The tests listed can all be performed during the work-up of a woman with secondary amenorrhoea. They are useful in that they cam diagnosis the most likely cause for the amenorrhoea as well as guide the treatment required if the patient wanted to become pregnant. Of these, the hormone test best able to predict a poor response to ovulation-induction therapy is the follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) assay. If there are high levels of FSH, most of the ovulation-induction therapies are ineffective, although the rare spontaneous pregnancy can occur.

      To maximise the chance of pregnancy in patients with elevated FSH levels, the most effective technique is an ovum donation from a young woman. The ovum would be fertilised in the laboratory and transferred to the uterus of the woman with the high FSH level after administering hormonal preparation of her uterus.

      If the FSH level is normal, ovulation-induction therapy is usually effective. For these patients, correction of thyroid function will be necessary if the thyroid function is not normal. Dopamine agonist therapy is indicated if the prolactin level is elevated. Clomiphene or gonadotrophin therapy can be used where the luteinising and oestradiol levels are low, normal, or minimally elevated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      65.4
      Seconds
  • Question 96 - Placental production of hPL, hCG, Oestrogen and Progesterone are examples of which type...

    Correct

    • Placental production of hPL, hCG, Oestrogen and Progesterone are examples of which type of mechanism

      Your Answer: Endocrine

      Explanation:

      Hormones that are secreted into the circulation at one site but have effects on distal target organs are endocrine as is the case with the hormones above. Autocrine and Intracrine messengers act within the same cell. Exocrine glands secrete their products into ducts. Apocrine is a histological term used to describe some types of exocrine gland.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      32.6
      Seconds
  • Question 97 - Which two nerves provide the primary cutaneous sensory innervation to the labia majora?...

    Incorrect

    • Which two nerves provide the primary cutaneous sensory innervation to the labia majora?

      Your Answer: Pudendal and perineal

      Correct Answer: Ilioinguinal and pudendal

      Explanation:

      The Pudendal provides cutaneous innervation to the posterior external genitalia via one of its terminal branches called the perineal nerve (this further branches into the posterior labial nerves or posterior scrotal nerve in men). The ilioinguinal nerve provides anterior sensation via the anterior labial nerves (anterior scrotal nerve in men). The genital branch of the genitofemoral nerve contributes some fibres to the skin of the mons pubis and labia majora in females. The posterior cutaneous nerve of thigh sometimes overlaps sensory areas.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      26.1
      Seconds
  • Question 98 - During pregnancy which hormone(s) inhibit lactogenesis? ...

    Correct

    • During pregnancy which hormone(s) inhibit lactogenesis?

      Your Answer: Oestrogen and Progesterone

      Explanation:

      Prolactin levels rise steadily during pregnancy during which time it promotes mammary growth (along with the other hormones mentioned below). Oestrogen and progesterone inhibit lactogenesis and it is only with the loss of these placental steroid hormones at term that Prolactin exhibits its lactogenic effect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      6.5
      Seconds
  • Question 99 - A 29 year old is diagnosed with stage 1A2 cervical cancer. Which of...

    Correct

    • A 29 year old is diagnosed with stage 1A2 cervical cancer. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment option?

      Your Answer: LLETZ

      Explanation:

      The treatment of stage 1A cervical cancer is excision of the margins using the Loop electrical excision procedure (LLETZ). Hysterectomy is not necessary. This treatment enables fertility to be preserved.

      2010 FIGO classification of cervical carcinoma
      0 – Carcinoma in situ
      1 – Confined to the cervix (diagnosed microscopy)
      1A1 – Less than 3mm depth & 7mm lateral spread
      1A2 – 3mm to 5mm depth & less than 7mm lateral spread
      1B1 – Clinically visible lesion or greater than A2 & less than 4 cm in greatest dimension
      1B2 – Clinically visible lesion, greater than 4 cm in greatest dimension
      2 – Invades beyond uterus but not to pelvic wall or lower 1/3 vagina
      2A1 – Involvement of the upper two-thirds of the vagina, without parametrical invasion & Less than 4cm
      2A2 – Greater than 4 cm in greatest dimension
      2B – Parametrial involvement
      3 – Extends to Pelvic side wall or lower 1/3 vagina or hydronephrosis
      3A – No pelvic side wall involvement
      3B – Pelvic side wall involved or hydronephrosis
      4 – Extends beyond true pelvis 4A Invades mucosa bladder and rectum
      4B – Distant Metastasis

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      17.1
      Seconds
  • Question 100 - In the foetus, the most well oxygenated blood flows into which part of...

    Correct

    • In the foetus, the most well oxygenated blood flows into which part of the heart:

      Your Answer: Right atrium

      Explanation:

      The placenta accepts the blue, unoxygenated blood from the foetus through blood vessels that leave the foetus through the umbilical cord (umbilical arteries, there are two of them). When blood goes through the placenta it picks up oxygen and becomes red. The red blood then returns to the foetus via the third vessel in the umbilical cord, the umbilical vein. The red blood that enters the foetus passes through the fetal liver and enters the right side of the heart.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      15.6
      Seconds
  • Question 101 - Regarding gestational diabetes which of the following statements is TRUE? ...

    Correct

    • Regarding gestational diabetes which of the following statements is TRUE?

      Your Answer: it occurs in 2-5% of pregnancies

      Explanation:

      Gestational Diabetes occurs in 2-9% of all the pregnancies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      18.6
      Seconds
  • Question 102 - A 28-year-old woman had a C-section due to pre-eclampsia. She now complains of...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman had a C-section due to pre-eclampsia. She now complains of right upper quadrant pain unrelated to the surgical wound. Which of the following investigations should be done immediately?

      Your Answer: LFT

      Explanation:

      There is a high risk of developing HELLP syndrome in pre-eclamptic patients. Considering that she is complaining of right upper quadrant pain, a LFT should be done immediately.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      17
      Seconds
  • Question 103 - A 26 year old patient who is currently 24 weeks pregnant presents with...

    Correct

    • A 26 year old patient who is currently 24 weeks pregnant presents with vaginal discharge. Swabs show Chlamydia Trachomatis detected. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment regime?

      Your Answer: Erythromycin 500 mg twice a day for 14 days

      Explanation:

      The following treatment regimes are recommended for the treatment of Chlamydia in Pregnancy: Erythromycin 500mg four times a day for 7 days or Erythromycin 500 mg twice a day for 14 days or Amoxicillin 500 mg three times a day for 7 days or Azithromycin 1 gm stat (only if no alternative, safety in pregnancy not fully assessed) The following treatment regimes are recommended for the treatment of Chlamydia in NON-PREGNANT patients: Doxycycline 100mg bd for 7 days OR Azithromycin 1gm orally in a single dose NOTE: Doxycycline and Ofloxacin are contraindicated in pregnancy

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      30.5
      Seconds
  • Question 104 - An 8-year-old girl presents with a history of a bright red bloodstain in...

    Correct

    • An 8-year-old girl presents with a history of a bright red bloodstain in her underpants one day prior to consultation. Her mother reports that the girl started cycling lessons one week ago. How will you proceed with the investigation in this case?

      Your Answer: Examination under Anaesthesia

      Explanation:

      A local exam might not help in locating the cause of the bleeding because it might be underneath the superficial structures. A thorough examination should be done under GA to accurately locate the source of bleeding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      25.1
      Seconds
  • Question 105 - Which of the following hormones is produced by the hypothalamus in response to...

    Correct

    • Which of the following hormones is produced by the hypothalamus in response to breastfeeding?

      Your Answer: Oxytocin

      Explanation:

      Nipple stimulation during breastfeeding triggers the production of oxytocin from the hypothalamus and its subsequent release from the posterior pituitary gland. The hormone causes the myoepithelial cells of the breast to contract causing milk to flow through the ducts.

      Ergometrine and Prostaglandin E2 are used during labour to control uterine bleeding after delivery, or ripen the cervix, while Atosiban is an oxytocin antagonist.

      Antidiuretic hormone is also released from the posterior pituitary, and acts on the kidneys to decrease fluid excretion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      27.4
      Seconds
  • Question 106 - An ultrasound in the 1st trimester of pregnancy is done for? ...

    Correct

    • An ultrasound in the 1st trimester of pregnancy is done for?

      Your Answer: Dating of the pregnancy

      Explanation:

      Early ultrasound improves the early detection of multiple pregnancies and improved gestational dating may result in fewer inductions for post maturity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      11.5
      Seconds
  • Question 107 - A 29-year-old woman presents to the emergency department of your hospital complaining of...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old woman presents to the emergency department of your hospital complaining of fever, she had given birth to a healthy male baby four days ago. During vaginal delivery, she sustained small vaginal laceration, suture repair was not done as the lesion were small. Presently she is breastfeeding her baby.

      Physical examination shows no uterine tenderness and the rest of the examinations were unremarkable.

      Which of the following can be the most likely cause of this Patient's fever?

      Your Answer: Endometritis

      Correct Answer: Infection of the unrepaired vaginal laceration

      Explanation:

      As the time of onset of fever is the 4th day of postpartum and absence of uterine tenderness on exam makes infection of vaginal laceration the most likely cause of this presentation.

      Exquisite uterine tenderness will be experienced in case of endometritis and symptoms are expected to start much earlier like by 2-3 days of postpartum.

      UTI is often expected on days one or two of postpartum, also there are no urinary symptoms suggestive of UTI

      Breast engorgement usually develops by 7th -2st day of postpartum and in the given case it’s too soon for it to occur.

      As it is expected during the first 2 hours postpartum, Atelectasis is unlikely to be the cause of symptoms in the given case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      44.9
      Seconds
  • Question 108 - A 28-year-old female patient comes in for a prenatal appointment. She eats only...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old female patient comes in for a prenatal appointment. She eats only vegetables.

      Which of the following is the most appropriate suggestion for folic acid supplementation?

      Your Answer: She should be started on folic acid 0.5 mg per day

      Explanation:

      Folate has been in the news because of its connection with a type of birth defect called neural tube defect. Studies have shown that women who have infants with neural tube defects have lower intakes of folate and lower blood folate levels than other women. Folate is needed early in pregnancy (before many women know they are pregnant) for normal neural tube development.

      Many vegan foods including enriched bread, pasta, and cold cereal; dried beans; green leafy vegetables; and orange juice are good sources of folate. Vegan diets tend to be high in folate, however, to be on the safe side, women capable of becoming pregnant should take a supplement or use fortified foods that provide 400 micrograms of folate daily.

      For the above mentioned reasons, all other options are incorrect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      28.2
      Seconds
  • Question 109 - DHEA is synthesized from which molecule? ...

    Correct

    • DHEA is synthesized from which molecule?

      Your Answer: Cholesterol

      Explanation:

      Dehydroepiandrosterone is an androgen precursor produced primarily by the adrenal glands in women. The steroid hormone is produced from cholesterol at birth by the fetal adrenal glands, after which its output reduces. DHEA production picks up again from the age of 5-7 years and peaks between the ages of 20-30.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      13.8
      Seconds
  • Question 110 - A 38 year old woman has had amenorrhea for a year now. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 38 year old woman has had amenorrhea for a year now. She admits she stopped her COCP treatment 18 months ago. Her blood exams reveal the following: FSH=8, LH=7, Prolactin=400, Oestradiol=500. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Prolactinoma

      Correct Answer: Hypothalamic amenorrhea

      Explanation:

      Functional Hypothalamic Amenorrhea (FHA) is a form of chronic anovulation, due to non-identifiable organic causes and often associated with stress, weight loss, excessive exercise, or a combination thereof. Investigations should include assessment of systemic and endocrinologic aetiologies, as FHA is a diagnosis of exclusion. A multidisciplinary treatment approach is necessary, including medical, dietary, and mental health support. Medical complications include, among others, bone density loss and infertility.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      81.4
      Seconds
  • Question 111 - You are asked to review a patient. They have attended for a scan...

    Incorrect

    • You are asked to review a patient. They have attended for a scan at 13 weeks following a positive pregnancy test. The patient has had 2 previous pregnancies for which she opted for termination on both occasions. The scan shows a large irregular haemorrhagic mass that appears to be invading into the myometrium. What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Placenta Accreta

      Correct Answer: Choriocarcinoma

      Explanation:

      Choriocarcinoma may arise as a complication of gestation or as spontaneous germ cell tumours. As this scenario depicts that the women has previous abortion points to the fact that these may have been molar pregnancies. As choriocarcinoma can arise from a molar pregnancy it can be differentiated from it by the presence of invasion into the uterus and metastasis to the lungs primarily.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      67.5
      Seconds
  • Question 112 - The transvaginal ultrasound of a 37 year old woman reveals a left ovarian...

    Correct

    • The transvaginal ultrasound of a 37 year old woman reveals a left ovarian mass. The mass is a unilocular cyst with diffuse homogenous ground glass echoes as a result of hemorrhagic debris. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Endometrioma

      Explanation:

      An endometrioma, also known as a chocolate cyst is a benign ovarian cyst that occurs as a result of the trapping of endometriosis tissue inside the ovary. The findings on transvaginal ultrasound are often a unilocular cyst, with ground glass echogenicity due to haemorrhage. Other benign masses that can be evaluated using transvaginal ultrasound are functional cysts, serous and mucinous cystadenomas and mature teratomas.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Data Interpretation
      31760.3
      Seconds
  • Question 113 - Which of the following best describes the mechanism of action of radiotherapy? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following best describes the mechanism of action of radiotherapy?

      Your Answer: DNA damage via free radical generation

      Explanation:

      Radiotherapy works on the principle of ionisation. In particularly that of water leading to the formation of free radicals, these radicals are highly reactive and they react with the DNA leading to damage and cell death.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Biophysics
      14.7
      Seconds
  • Question 114 - You are reviewing a patient who is complaining of pain and numbness to...

    Incorrect

    • You are reviewing a patient who is complaining of pain and numbness to the right anterior aspect of her labia following abdominal hysterectomy. You suspect ilioinguinal nerve injury. What spinal segment is the ilioinguinal nerve derived from?

      Your Answer: T12

      Correct Answer: L1

      Explanation:

      Ilioinguinal nerve injury is one of the most common nerve injuries associated with pelvic surgery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      27.7
      Seconds
  • Question 115 - Which structure reinforces the inguinal canal anterolaterally? ...

    Correct

    • Which structure reinforces the inguinal canal anterolaterally?

      Your Answer: Internal oblique

      Explanation:

      The anatomy of the inguinal canal is of surgical importance. In the male, the inguinal canal carries the spermatic cord, ilioinguinal nerve and important blood vessels, while in females the inguinal canal holds the round ligament, ilioinguinal nerve and blood vessels. The floor of the inguinal canal is made of the inguinal ligament (a thickened portion of the inguinal ligament), while the posterior wall is made of the transversalis muscle. The anterior wall is made of the external oblique aponeurosis, and the roof is made up of fibres of the internal oblique, transversus abdominis and its aponeurosis, and the conjoint tendon. This means that the anterolateral support structure of the inguinal canal would be the fibres of the internal oblique.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      25.3
      Seconds
  • Question 116 - Regarding the uterine artery which of the following statements are TRUE? ...

    Correct

    • Regarding the uterine artery which of the following statements are TRUE?

      Your Answer: It arises from the internal iliac artery

      Explanation:

      The uterine artery arises from the internal iliac artery, in particular the anterior division of the internal iliac artery. Some older texts refer to the internal iliac as the hypogastric artery. The vaginal artery typically arises as its own branch of the internal iliac artery. The ovarian arteries are branches of the aorta

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      23.1
      Seconds
  • Question 117 - A 21-year-old woman has been stable on medicating with lamotrigine after developing epilepsy...

    Correct

    • A 21-year-old woman has been stable on medicating with lamotrigine after developing epilepsy 2 years ago. She is planning to conceive but is concerned about what her medications may do to her baby.

      Which of the following is considered to reduce the incidence of neural tube defects?

      Your Answer: High dose folic acid for one month before conception and during first trimester

      Explanation:

      CDC urges all women of reproductive age to take 400 micrograms (mcg) of folic acid each day, in addition to consuming food with folate from a varied diet, to help prevent some major birth defects of the baby’s brain (anencephaly) and spine (spina bifida).

      The use of lamotrigine during pregnancy has not been associated with an increased risk of neural tube defects; however, the recommendation regarding higher doses of folic acid supplementation is often, but not always, broadened to include women taking any anticonvulsant, including lamotrigine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      28.9
      Seconds
  • Question 118 - Which of the following procedures allow the earliest retrieval of DNA for prenatal...

    Correct

    • Which of the following procedures allow the earliest retrieval of DNA for prenatal diagnosis in pregnancy:

      Your Answer: Chorionic Villi Sampling (CVS)

      Explanation:

      CVS has decreased in frequency with the recent increased uptake of cell-free DNA screening. It remains the only diagnostic test available in the first trimester and allows for diagnostic analyses, including fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH), karyotype, microarray, molecular testing, and gene sequencing. CVS is performed between 10 and 14 weeks’ gestation. CVS has been performed before 9 weeks in the past, though this has shown to increase the risk of limb deformities and, therefore, is no longer recommended.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      17.3
      Seconds
  • Question 119 - While evaluating a 33-year-old woman for infertility, you diagnose a bicornuate uterus. You...

    Correct

    • While evaluating a 33-year-old woman for infertility, you diagnose a bicornuate uterus. You explain that additional testing is necessary because of the woman's increased risk of congenital anomalies in which system?

      Your Answer: Urinary

      Explanation:

      Bicornuate uterus is associated with an increased chance of urinary tract anomalies. Urinary tract anomalies were present in about 23.6% of cases of bicornuate uterus patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      13
      Seconds
  • Question 120 - A 49-year-old lady presents with amenorrhea of 11-months’ duration. Her periods were previously...

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old lady presents with amenorrhea of 11-months’ duration. Her periods were previously normal and regular. She is planned for an assessment of her FSH (follicle-stimulating hormone) and oestradiol (E2) levels.

      Assuming she has attained menopause, which pattern would most likely be found?

      Your Answer: Normal FSH and law E2.

      Correct Answer: High FSH and low E2.

      Explanation:

      High FSH and low E2 levels would be expected in menopause. FSH levels would be raised as her body attempts to stimulate ovarian activity and E2 would be low due to reduced ovarian function. The other options would be possible if she was younger, and if occurring with amenorrhea, would warrant further hormonal tests.

      It is often challenging to interpret hormone test results close to the time of menopause, especially if the woman is still experiencing irregular menstruation, as remaining ovarian follicles might still produce oestrogen, causing both bleeding and FSH suppression. Elevation of FSH then can be seen again once the oestrogen level drops. Hence, the results would be influenced by the timing of blood sample collection. Once amenorrhea occurs more consistently, it would be easier to interpret the results.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      186.7
      Seconds
  • Question 121 - Urinary incontinence has brought a 69-year-old woman to your clinic. When she laughs,...

    Incorrect

    • Urinary incontinence has brought a 69-year-old woman to your clinic. When she laughs, sneezes, or coughs, as well as during activity, she experiences minor quantities of urine incontinence.

      Which of the following is the most appropriate management next step?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pelvic floor muscles exercise

      Explanation:

      Pelvic floor muscle exercises are the mainstay of behavioural therapy for stress incontinence. Up to 38 percent of patients with stress incontinence alone who follow a pelvic floor muscle exercise regimen for at least three months experience a cure.

      Weighted cones or topical steroids can be used as adjuvants but are not sufficient when used alone.

      Tension free vaginal tape and Burch’s colposuspension are considered for patients who fail to respond to conservative management strategies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 122 - The resting pulse in pregnancy is: ...

    Incorrect

    • The resting pulse in pregnancy is:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Increased by 10 to 15 bpm

      Explanation:

      During pregnancy cardiac output increases by 30 to 50%. As a result, the resting pulse speeds up from a normal of about 70 bpm to 80 or 90 bpm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 123 - A woman in early pregnancy is worried because of several small raised nodules...

    Incorrect

    • A woman in early pregnancy is worried because of several small raised nodules on the areola of both breasts. There are no other findings. Your immediate management should be:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reassurance after thorough examination

      Explanation:

      The correct answer is reassurance after thorough examination. Most breast lesions diagnosed during pregnancy and lactation, even some specific ones such as lactation and adenoma galactocele, are benign. The diagnosis of breast cancer, which is difficult to elucidate and is less common among women who are pregnant or lactating than among those of the same age who are not, continues to be a challenge for clinicians.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 124 - A 32-year-old woman, who is 18 weeks pregnant, is diagnosed with antiphospholipid syndrome...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman, who is 18 weeks pregnant, is diagnosed with antiphospholipid syndrome and positive anticardiolipin antibodies. She has a history of three miscarriages, each one during the first trimester. What would be the next most appropriate step?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aspirin & heparin

      Explanation:

      The syndrome with which the woman was diagnosed is an autoimmune, hypercoagulable state which most possibly was the reason of her previous miscarriages. This is the reason why she should be on aspirin and heparin in order to prevent any future miscarriage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 125 - Which of the following fasting plasma glucose (FPG) values for OGTT (Oral glucose...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following fasting plasma glucose (FPG) values for OGTT (Oral glucose tolerance test) is diagnostic of gestational diabetes according to the WHO criteria?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: FPG 6.1mmol/L; 2 hour 7.8mmol/L

      Explanation:

      There are several criteria that aid in the diagnosis of gestational diabetes in pregnancy including NICE, WHO and modified WHO:
      GDM Diagnostic Criteria:
      NICE: Immediate FBG >5.6, 2 hour glucose >7.8
      WHO: Immediate FBG >6.1, 2 hour glucose >7.8
      Modified WHO: Immediate FBG >7.1, 2 hour glucose >7.8

      Random glucose and OGTT 2 hour readings of >11.1 are diagnostic of diabetes in non-pregnant states but are not part of the gestational diabetes criteria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 126 - The external carotid artery develops from which pharyngeal arch? ...

    Incorrect

    • The external carotid artery develops from which pharyngeal arch?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 1st

      Explanation:

      The external carotid develops from the 1st arch. The common and internal carotid develop from the 3rd arch.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 127 - Which immunoglobulin provides passive immunity to the neonate? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which immunoglobulin provides passive immunity to the neonate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: IgG

      Explanation:

      Passive immunity to the neonate is provided by immunoglobulin G (IgG) since it can be transferred through the placenta from mother to the foetus.
      IgA is transferred from mothers to offspring through breast milk.
      IgM molecular structure is too big to be filtered through the placental vasculature to the foetus. IgM is the first Ig to be synthesised by the neonate

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 128 - Oligohydramnios is defined as an amniotic fluid index of? ...

    Incorrect

    • Oligohydramnios is defined as an amniotic fluid index of?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      AFI involves measuring the depth of amniotic fluid pockets in all 4 quadrants.
      Oligohydramnios AFI< 5cm or deepest amniotic fluid pocket < 2cm
      Polyhydramnios AFI > 25cm or deepest amniotic fluid pocket > 8cm

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Biophysics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 129 - Lactogenesis at term is stimulated by which hormone? ...

    Incorrect

    • Lactogenesis at term is stimulated by which hormone?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prolactin

      Explanation:

      Prolactin is the hormone that is responsible for the production of milk (Lactogenesis). Oxytocin is responsible for the let down reflex during suckling.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 130 - Ovulation may be indicated by all the following, EXCEPT: ...

    Incorrect

    • Ovulation may be indicated by all the following, EXCEPT:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mid-cycle elevation in prolactin

      Explanation:

      An elevation in serum PRL is associated with a variety of reproductive disorders, including amenorrhea, oligomenorrhea, anovulation and/or luteal phase defects with subsequent infertility.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 131 - What kind of biochemical changes occur during the follicular phase of menstrual cycle?...

    Incorrect

    • What kind of biochemical changes occur during the follicular phase of menstrual cycle?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Endometrial gland proliferation

      Explanation:

      During follicular phase, there is an increase in gonadotrophin hormones and a proliferation of the endometrium occurs. The duration of the cycle depends upon the overall length of the menstrual cycle. The progesterone levels are increased in the luteal phase and not in follicular phase.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 132 - What form is 99% of body calcium found in? ...

    Incorrect

    • What form is 99% of body calcium found in?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Calcium Phosphate

      Explanation:

      Calcium phosphate salts are the most abundant form of calcium in the body, making up 99%. The majority of these salts are stored in the skeleton in different forms, mostly, hydroxyapatite, a lattice-like crystal composed of calcium, phosphates and hydroxide. The remaining calcium can be found in the extracellular fluid, tissues and skeletal muscle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 133 - Intrapartum antibiotics prophylaxis is required in which of the following conditions? ...

    Incorrect

    • Intrapartum antibiotics prophylaxis is required in which of the following conditions?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A previous infant with Group B streptococcus disease regardless of present culture

      Explanation:

      Group B Streptococcus (GBS) or Streptococcus agalactiae is a Gram-positive bacteria which colonizes the gastrointestinal and genitourinary tract. In the United States of America, GBS is known to be the most common infectious cause of morbidity and mortality in neonates. GBS is known to cause both early onset and late onset infections in neonates, but current interventions are only effective in the prevention of early-onset disease.

      The main risk factor for early-onset GBS infection is colonization of the maternal genital tract with Group B Streptococcus during labour. GBS is a normal flora of the gastrointestinal (GI) tract, which is thought to be the main source for maternal colonization.

      The principal route of neonatal early onset GBS infection is vertical transmission from colonized mothers during passage through the vagina during labour and delivery.

      Intravenous penicillin G is the treatment of choice for intrapartum antibiotic prophylaxis against Group B Streptococcus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 134 - A foetus is noted to be small for gestational age (SGA) on the...

    Incorrect

    • A foetus is noted to be small for gestational age (SGA) on the 20 week scan. One of the mothers medications is stopped at this time. Follow up scans reveal renal dysgenesis. Which of the below medications was stopped?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ramipril

      Explanation:

      Use of angiotensin II receptors blocks and ACE inhibitors are known to result in renal dysgenesis. Due to renal dysgenesis oligohydramnios occurs that leads to IUGR.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 135 - The following drugs cross the placenta to the foetus, EXCEPT: ...

    Incorrect

    • The following drugs cross the placenta to the foetus, EXCEPT:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Heparin

      Explanation:

      Standard heparin, an effective treatment for antepartum thromboembolic disease, is thought to be safe for the foetus since it does not cross the placenta.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 136 - A 22-year-old woman, G1P0, comes to your clinic at the 12th week of...

    Incorrect

    • A 22-year-old woman, G1P0, comes to your clinic at the 12th week of her pregnancy, complaining of a mild vaginal bleeding since last 12 hours along with mild but periodic pain.

      On vaginal examination, cervical os is found to be closed with mild discharge which contains blood clots. Ultrasound performed confirms the presence of a live fetus with normal foetal heart sound.

      What among the following will be the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Threatened miscarriage

      Explanation:

      The case is most likely diagnosed a threatened miscarriage.
      A diagnosis of threatened miscarriage is made when there is uterine bleeding in the presence of a closed cervix and is confirmed by the sonographic visualisation of an intrauterine pregnancy with detectable fetal cardiac activity. Miscarriages may not always follow even though there was multiple episodes or large amounts of bleeding, therefore the term “threatened” is used in these cases.
      At 7 to 11 weeks of gestation, about 90 to 96 percent cases of pregnancies, will not usually miscarry if they have presented with an intact fetal cardiac activity along with vaginal bleeding and if bleeding occurs at the later weeks of gestational age chances of success rate is higher.

      Topic review:
      – Inevitable miscarriages presents with a dilated cervix, increasing uterine bleeding and painful uterine contractions. The gestational tissues can often be felt or seen through the cervical os and its passage occurs within a short time.
      – In Incomplete miscarriage, the membranes will rupture passing the fetus out, but significant amounts of placental tissue will be retained. This occurs most commonly in late first trimester or early second trimester. On examination, the cervical os will be opened and the gestational tissue can be observed in the cervix, with a uterine size smaller than expected for gestational age, but not well contracted. The amount of bleeding varies but can be severe enough to cause hypovolemic shock. There will be painful cramps
      ontractions and ultrasound reveals tissue in the uterus.
      – A missed miscarriage refers to the in-utero death of the embryo or fetus prior to 20th week of gestation, with retention of the pregnancy for a prolonged period of time. In this case, women may notice that symptoms associated with early pregnancy like nausea, breast tenderness, etc have abated and they don’t “feel pregnant” anymore.
      Vaginal bleeding may occur but the cervix usually remains closed. Ultrasound reveals an intrauterine gestational sac with or without an embryonic/fetal pole, but no embryonic/fetal cardiac activity will be noticed.
      – Complete miscarriage, usually occurs before 12 weeks of gestation and the entire contents of the uterus will be expelled resulting in a complete miscarriage. In this case, physical examination reveals a small, well contracted uterus with an open or closed cervix with scanty vaginal bleeding and mild cramping. Ultrasound will reveal an empty uterus with no extra-uterine gestation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 137 - A 30-year-old female patient visits you for a cervical cancer screening. You inform...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old female patient visits you for a cervical cancer screening. You inform her that while Pap smears are no longer performed, Cervical Screening tests are done five times a year.

      She has a cervical screening test, which reveals that she has non-16/18 HPV and low-grade cytology alterations.

      What's would you do next?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Repeat cervical screening test in 12 months

      Explanation:

      An LSIL Pap test shows mild cellular changes. The risk of a high-grade cervical precancer or cancer after an LSIL Pap test is as high as 19 percent.

      As with an ASC-US Pap test, an LSIL Pap test is evaluated differently depending upon age. For women ages 25 or older, follow-up depends upon the results of human papillomavirus (HPV) testing:

      – Women who test positive for HPV or who have not been tested for HPV should have colposcopy.
      – Women who test negative for HPV can be followed up with a Pap test and HPV test in one year.

      Referral to an oncologist is not necessary since there is no established diagnosis of malignancy. All other options are unacceptable.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 138 - You see a 23 year old women in clinic complaining of vaginal discharge....

    Incorrect

    • You see a 23 year old women in clinic complaining of vaginal discharge. The lab phone to tell you microscopy and staining shows a gram negative diplococcus. Which organism is most likely to be responsible?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Neisseria gonorrhoeae

      Explanation:

      The most common gram negative diplococci include Neisseria, haemophilus and Moraxella.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 139 - A 21-year-old woman, 9 weeks of gestation, has been admitted due to intractable...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old woman, 9 weeks of gestation, has been admitted due to intractable vomiting with concurrent ketonuria. Past medical is unremarkable except for an appendectomy at the age of 12 years. Which of the following is the next best step in this investigation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Serum electrolytes, urea and creatinine.

      Explanation:

      The finding of ketonuria in this patient indicates profound dehydration and electrolyte loss. Immediate investigation with baseline serum electrolytes, urea, and creatinine is recommended for aid In intravenous resuscitation and rehydration.

      All other assessments listed are appropriate, however, baseline electrolyte concentration is important before initiating intravenous resuscitation.

      Other causes that can lead to vomiting in early pregnancy include normal pregnancy, multiple pregnancies, molar pregnancies, or urinary tract infection. Urine culture is necessary to exclude urinary tract infection, pelvic ultrasound to confirm singleton or multiple pregnancy and rule out a molar pregnancy.

      An erect abdominal Xray may help to rule out an organic intestinal obstruction in this patient. Her history of an appendectomy predisposes this patient to adhesions leading to small bowel obstruction. However, it is not the immediate assessment in this case.

      Before the advent of ultrasound, a quantitative hCG analysis was indicated to assess the presence of molar pregnancy. However, ultrasound is now preferred to confirm this diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 140 - A 20-year-old nulligravid woman comes to the office for a routine checkup, as...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old nulligravid woman comes to the office for a routine checkup, as she is concerned about having gained 4.5 kg over the last year. She believes that the gain is related to her oral contraceptive pills. 

      Patient takes low-dose ethinyl estradiol
      orethindrone daily. Prior to starting the pills, she had regular but heavy periods lasting for 4-5 days.  Patient used to miss her school every month, on the first day of her period, due to severe cramping. Her pain symptoms resolved 3 months after starting the pills and she takes no other medications.  Patient's coitarche was at the age of 18 and she has had 2 partners since then. Patient and her current partner use condoms inconsistently. 

      On examination her vital signs are normal, with a BMI of 27 kg/m2 and physical examination is unremarkable. 

      Among the following which is the most appropriate advice for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reassure that the weight gain is not related to combined OCPs

      Explanation:

      Breakthrough bleeding, breast tenderness, nausea, bloating, amenorrhea, hypertension, venous thromboembolic disease, increased risk of cervical cancer with decreased risk of ovarian & endometrial cancer, liver disorders like hepatic adenoma and increase in triglycerides due to estrogen component are the common side effects & risks of using combination oral contraceptives.

      Patient in the given case mentioned symptoms of primary dysmenorrhea, which is recurrent lower abdominal pain associated with menstruation. Combination estrogen-progestin oral contraceptive pills (OCPs) are considered as the first-line treatment for dysmenorrhea in sexually active patients as OCPs help to reduce pain by thinning the endometrial lining, reducing prostaglandin release and by decreasing uterine contractions.
      Nausea, bloating and breast tenderness, are considered as the early side effects of OCPs and will usually improve with continued use. The most common side effect is breakthrough bleeding which is usually associated with lower estrogen doses and other adverse effects caused by the pills include hypertension, increased risk of cervical cancer and venous thromboembolism. Although common perception considers weight gain as a side effect, several studies have shown that no significant weight gain is associated with OCPs, particularly with low-dose formulations.  Considering this, the patient should be reassured that her weight gain is not associated with regular use of OCPs.

      In patients who are not sexually active, nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs are considered as the first-line treatment for primary dysmenorrhea. As stopping contraception will increase this Patient’s risk of unintended pregnancy this is not advisable to her.

      Switching the patient to a copper intrauterine device (IUD) will decrease systemic side effects, but as its inflammatory reaction in the uterus may increase pain symptoms, copper IUD is not recommended for patients with dysmenorrhea.

      As Medroxyprogesterone will increase body fat and decrease lean muscle mass resulting in weight gain is not a good option for this patient. Also medroxyprogesterone due to its risk of significant loss of bone mineral density, is not recommended for adolescents or young women. So it can be used in this age group only if other options are unacceptable.

      Presence of estrogen component is the main reason behind the side effects of combination OCPs. Progesterone-only pills have relatively fewer side effects but as they do not inhibit ovulation, they are less effective for treating dysmenorrhea and for contraception.

      Combination oral contraceptive pills are the first-line therapy for primary dysmenorrhea in sexually active patients.  Its side effects include breakthrough bleeding, hypertension, and increased risk of venous thromboembolism. Researches proves that weight gain is usually not an adverse effect of OCPs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 141 - The β-hCG curve in maternal serum in a normal pregnancy peaks at: ...

    Incorrect

    • The β-hCG curve in maternal serum in a normal pregnancy peaks at:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 10 weeks of pregnancy

      Explanation:

      During the first 8 weeks of pregnancy, concentrations of hCG in the blood and urine usually double every 24 hours. Levels of the hormone typically peak at around 10 weeks, decline until 16 weeks, then remain constant.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
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  • Question 142 - The external carotid artery develops from which pharyngeal arch? ...

    Incorrect

    • The external carotid artery develops from which pharyngeal arch?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 1st

      Explanation:

      The maxillary arteries and the external carotid arteries develop from the first pharyngeal arch. The stapedial arteries arise from the second, the common carotid artery and the internal carotid arteries from the third and the arch of the aorta and the right subclavian artery from the forth arch.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
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  • Question 143 - Regarding twin pregnancies all of the following are correct EXCEPT: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding twin pregnancies all of the following are correct EXCEPT:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Identical or monozygotic twins arise from fertilization of two ovum

      Explanation:

      Monozygotic (MZ) twins originate when a single egg is fertilized to form one zygote, which then divides into two embryos. Although they share the same genotype they are not phenotypically identical.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
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  • Question 144 - All of the following statements are true regarding Turner's syndrome except? ...

    Incorrect

    • All of the following statements are true regarding Turner's syndrome except?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The streak ovaries should be removed surgically due to 25% tendency to be malignant

      Explanation:

      Girls with Turner’s syndrome (45,X) are not at risk for malignancy. Patients with feminizing testicular syndrome with XY chromosome composition and patients with mixed gonadal dysgenesis are at risk for malignancy, and bilateral gonadectomy is performed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
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  • Question 145 - A 40-year-old woman arrives at the hospital at eight weeks of her first...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old woman arrives at the hospital at eight weeks of her first pregnancy, anxious that her kid may have Down syndrome. Which of the following best reflects the risk of spontaneous abortion after an amniocentesis performed at 16 weeks?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 18%

      Explanation:

      This question assesses critical clinical knowledge, as this information must be presented to a patient prior to an amniocentesis to ensure that she has given her informed permission for the treatment.
      Amniocentesis is most typically used for genetic counselling in the second trimester of pregnancy. Another option is to do a chorion-villus biopsy (CVB) between 10 and 11 weeks of pregnancy.
      The chances of miscarriage after both operations are roughly 1 in 200 for amniocentesis and 1 in 100 for CVB, according to most experts.
      The significance of this question is that professionals must be able to weigh the procedure’s danger against the risk of the sickness they are trying to identify.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 146 - The first stage of labour: ...

    Incorrect

    • The first stage of labour:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ends with fully dilation of the cervix

      Explanation:

      First stage of the labour starts with the contractions of the uterus. With time, the no. of contractions, its duration and intensity increases. It ends once the cervix is fully dilated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 147 - Regarding congenital CMV infection, what percentage of infants are symptomatic? ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding congenital CMV infection, what percentage of infants are symptomatic?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 10-15%

      Explanation:

      Congenital cytomegalovirus infections are the most common cause of sensorineural hearing loss in babies. Cytomegalovirus infection during the perinatal period can be transferred to the foetus especially if the primary infection is during pregnancy. In babies born with congenital CMV about 10-15% are symptomatic, while 10-15% of those who are asymptomatic will develop symptoms in life. Some of the features of CMV infection include sensorineural hearing loss, visual impairment, cerebral palsy, microcephaly and seizures. Other causes of infective congenital sensorineural hearing loss include: Rubella, HIV, Herpes Simplex Virus, Measles, Varicella Zoster virus, Mumps and West Nile Virus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
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  • Question 148 - A 24-year-old Aboriginal woman at 10 weeks of gestation presents with a 2-week...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year-old Aboriginal woman at 10 weeks of gestation presents with a 2-week history of nausea and vomiting along with dizziness. She has not seen any doctor during this period.

      On examination, she is found to be dehydrated and her blood pressure is 95/60 mmHg with a drop in systolic blood pressure by more than 20% when she stands. She is unable to tolerate oral intake and her laboratory results show ketonuria.

      Which one of the following would be the best next step in management of this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Give metoclopramide and intravenous normal saline

      Explanation:

      Clinical picture mentioned is indicative of hyperemesis gravidarum with resultant hypovolemia and pre-shock state, were patient needs urgent fluid resuscitation and intravenous antiemetic medications. The first-line fluid for resuscitation is normal saline (0.9% NaCl) and metoclopramide an antiemetic drug which is safe for use in pregnancy (category A).

      Dextrose should be avoided in this situation as the sugar in the solution will leave behind a hypotonic fluid leading to severe hyponatraemic state which increases the risk for encephalopathy due to edema.

      Ondansetron is considered as the second-line of antiemetic drug under category B1 which is used in situations like more refractory vomiting, when patient is not responding to metoclopramide and in cases of recurrent hospital admissions due to hyperemesis gravidarum.

      Steroids such as prednisolone are considered as the third-line medication mostly used in resistant cases of hyperemesis gravidarum and should be used only after consulting an expert in the field.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 149 - An 80 year old female patient comes to the hospital with stress urinary...

    Incorrect

    • An 80 year old female patient comes to the hospital with stress urinary incontinence. Pelvic organ prolapse is not apparent on physical exam.

      What is the most appropriate next step in management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pelvic floor muscle exercise

      Explanation:

      Stress incontinence is characterized by the involuntary loss of urine with increases in intra-abdominal pressure. It is the most common type of incontinence in younger women, but also occurs in older women. Key risk factors include childbirth, medications that relax the urethral sphincter, obesity, lung disease (from chronic cough), and prior pelvic surgeries. Numerous treatments are available, although few studies compare one treatment with another.

      Pelvic floor muscle exercises are the mainstay of behavioural therapy for stress incontinence. Up to 38 percent of patients with stress incontinence alone who follow a pelvic floor muscle exercise regimen for at least three months experience a cure.

      Routine urodynamic tests are not recommended for urinary incontinence. Surgery is reserved for refractory incontinence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 150 - The most common cause of abnormal vaginal discharge in a sexually active 19-year-old...

    Incorrect

    • The most common cause of abnormal vaginal discharge in a sexually active 19-year-old female is:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mixed vaginal flora

      Explanation:

      Bacterial vaginosis is the most common cause of acute vaginitis, accounting for up to 50% of cases in some populations. It is usually caused by a shift in normal vaginal flora- Mixed vaginal flora is considerably more common as a cause of vaginal discharge than – albicans and T. vaginalis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Gynaecology (6/16) 38%
Clinical Management (22/25) 88%
Microbiology (4/4) 100%
Embryology (7/7) 100%
Obstetrics (26/29) 90%
Anatomy (7/10) 70%
Physiology (11/11) 100%
Epidemiology (2/5) 40%
Data Interpretation (3/3) 100%
Pharmacology (1/1) 100%
Immunology (2/2) 100%
Biophysics (2/2) 100%
Biochemistry (0/1) 0%
Genetics (0/1) 0%
Endocrinology (3/3) 100%
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