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Question 1
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A 24-year-old college student comes to your clinic for contraception guidance. For the past three months, she has had migraine-like headaches once or twice a month. For the past two years, she has been taking combined oral contraceptive pills.
Which of the following suggestions is the most appropriate?Your Answer: Stopping the combined oral contraceptive pills and starting progesterone only pills (POP)
Explanation:Combined oral contraceptives are a safe and highly effective method of birth control, but they can also raise problems of clinical tolerability and/or safety in migraine patients. It is now commonly accepted that, in migraine with aura, the use of combined oral contraceptives is always contraindicated, and that their intake must also be suspended by patients suffering from migraine without aura if aura symptoms appear.
Discontinuation of contraception could risk in pregnancy. Barrier methods can be used but aren’t as effective as pills.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 2
Correct
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Which of the following is an acute complication of radiotherapy?
Your Answer: Moist skin desquamation
Explanation:Tissues with actively dividing cells, such as bone marrow and gastrointestinal mucosa, are particularly sensitive to ionising radiation. Lymphocyte depletion is the most sensitive marker of bone marrow injury, and after exposure to
a fatal dose, marrow aplasia is a common cause of death. The gonads are highly radiosensitive and radiation may result in temporary or permanent sterility. Stochastic (chance) effects occur with increasing probability
as the dose of radiation increases. Carcinogenesis represents a stochastic effect. With acute exposures, leukaemias may arise after an interval of around 2–5 years and solid tumours after an interval of about 10–20 years. Moist skin desquamation can be an acute reaction to both radio and chemotherapy whereas fibrosis and lymphoedema are late complications. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Biophysics
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old presented with vaginal bleeding after a 6-week duration of amenorrhea. The bleeding was described to be heavier than ever compared with her previous periods. Upon interview, it was noted that her menstrual cycles was ranging from 4 to 6 weeks.
A urine pregnancy test was performed and the result was positive. Upon vaginal examination, it was noted that her cervical os is closed. An endovaginal ultrasound was performed and the results showed an endometrial thickness of 12mm and an empty uterus. There was also clear adnexa, and no fluid in the pouch of Douglas was seen. A cyst in the corpus luteum of the left ovary was also noted.
Which of the following is most likely the diagnosis of the patient?Your Answer: Incomplete abortion
Correct Answer: Complete abortion
Explanation:Complete abortion is defined as a ‘complete’ passage of all conception products.
The first day of the last menstrual period and findings on any prior ultrasounds should be determined to establish the gestational age and location of the pregnancy. An abdominal exam should be performed to assess for peritoneal signs that might indicate a ruptured ectopic pregnancy or extra-uterine extension of a septic abortion. Lastly, a pelvic exam is central to the evaluation of suspected miscarriage. It should include both speculum-facilitated visualization of the cervix and a bimanual examination to assess for cervical motion tenderness that may indicate a septic abortion or an adnexal mass that may herald ectopic pregnancy.
Early pregnancy loss takes many different forms. In missed abortion, there is asymptomatic or ‘missed’ death of the embryo or foetus without sufficient uterine contractions to push out the products of conception. In contrast, threatened abortion is characterized by symptomatic, ‘threatened’ expulsion of the products of conception, yet the cervical os remains closed, and the embryo or foetus remains viable.
Although there is a lack of consensus, complete abortion is often defined as the absence of a gestational sac on ultrasound with an endometrial stripe thickness of less than 30 mm.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 4
Correct
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A 39-year-old woman who is 8 weeks pregnant presented to the medical clinic for consultation regarding the chance of her baby having Down syndrome. She mentioned that she has read somewhere that one of the risk factors for Down syndrome is advanced maternal age. She is concerned and asks if there are ways in which she can know whether her baby will be affected.
Which of the following is considered as both the safest and the most accurate diagnostic tool for the exclusion of Down syndrome?Your Answer: Amniocentesis at 16 weeks gestation
Explanation:Amniocentesis is a prenatal procedure performed on a pregnant woman to withdraw a small amount of amniotic fluid from the sac surrounding the foetus.
The goal of amniocentesis is to examine a small amount of this fluid to obtain information about the baby, including its sex, and to detect physical abnormalities such as Down syndrome or spina bifida.
Amniocentesis is only performed on women thought to be at higher risk of delivering a child with a birth defect.Amniocentesis is performed between 16 and 20 weeks into the pregnancy. By around this time, the developing baby is suspended in about 130ml of amniotic fluid, which the baby constantly swallows and excretes. A thin needle is used to withdraw a small amount of this fluid from the sac surrounding the foetus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 5
Correct
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A 30-year-old woman with histories of obesity and type 2 diabetes Mellitus comes to you for advice as she is planning to conceive in next three months. Her blood sugar levels are under control with a HBA1C value of 6%.
Among the following which is an essential supplement for her?Your Answer: Folic acid
Explanation:Patient mentioned above is a known case of type 2 diabetes which makes her at high risk of having neural tube defects. She should be advised to start taking a high dose of (5mg) folic acid supplement daily for at least 1-month prior to conception and it should be continued upto 12 weeks of her pregnancy.
Folate, which is a water-soluble B vitamin, is usually obtained from diet or through supplementation. For those patients with a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus, who are planning for pregnancy, high doses are recommended to prevent any possible neural tube defects.
Vitamin A is not safe and should be avoided in pregnancy due to chances for toxicity.
Vitamin C and iron are not considered as essential vitamins to be taken during pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 6
Correct
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Anna, a 39-year-old medical receptionist presents to your gynaecologic clinic for a refill of her Microgynin 30 (combined oral contraceptive pill). Her history is significant for smoking around 1 pack per day. Her BMI is 37.
What should be the next management step?Your Answer: Offer her progestogen-only contraceptive options
Explanation:This patient is above 35 and smokes more than 15 cigarettes per day, which is an absolute contraindication to using a combined oral contraceptive pill. A BMI of greater than 35 is a relative contraindication to the usage of the combined oral contraceptive pill.
Progestogen-only contraception, such as etonogestrel implant, levonorgestrel intrauterine device, and depot medroxyprogesterone, should be offered to her.
Without initially attempting lifestyle changes, a referral for weight loss surgery is not required. Also, nicotine replacement therapy may aid in quitting smoking, but it may take time. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 7
Correct
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What percentage of testosterone is bound to SHBG?
Your Answer: 70%
Explanation:About 97% of the testosterone that is secreted loosely binds to the SHBG and circulates in the blood for several hours in this bound state until it is transported to the target organs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 8
Correct
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Question 9
Correct
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Among the following conditions which is not a contraindication to tocolysis?
Your Answer: Maternal hypothyroidism
Explanation:Maternal hypothyroidism which is usually treated with thyroxine is not a contraindication for suppression of labour.
Suppression of labour known as tocolysis is contraindicated in situations like suspected foetal compromise, which is diagnosed by cardiotocograph warranting delivery, in cases of placental abruption, in chorioamnionitis, in severe pre-eclampsia, cases were gestational age is more than 34 weeks, in cases of foetal death in utero and in cases where palliative care is planned due to foetal malformations. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 10
Correct
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Hirsutism can be found in all of the following conditions, EXCEPT:
Your Answer: Patient on oral contraceptive pills
Explanation:Classically, hirsutism has been considered a marker of increased androgen levels in females from increased production of androgens (i.e. testosterone) either by the adrenals or due to an ovarian disease. The ovarian causes for hyperandrogenism are polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS) and ovarian tumours. Adrenal causes include Cushing’s syndrome, androgen-producing tumours, and congenital adrenal hyperplasia (CAH), most commonly due to 21-hydroxylase deficiency. Less common causes include the hyperandrogenic-insulin resistant-acanthosis nigricans syndrome (HAIRAN). Hyperprolactinemia by increasing adrenal dehydroepiandrosterone sulphate (DHEA-S) production may cause hirsutism. Androgenic drugs are also an important cause of hirsutism. About 20% of the patients may present with idiopathic hirsutism (IH) with normal androgen levels and ovarian function. The cause of increased hair in these women is thought to be related to disorders in peripheral androgen activity. Onset of IH occurs shortly after puberty with slow progression. PCOS and IH account for 90% of the hirsutism in women. Hirsutism can also occur in some premenopausal women and continue for a few years after menopause. This is due to decrease in ovarian oestrogen secretion with continuous androgen production.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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Your consultant agrees to supervise you performing a Caesarean Section (CS). When making a Joel Cohen incision where should this be placed?
Your Answer: In the transverse abdominal skin crease
Correct Answer: 3 cm above the symphysis pubis
Explanation:The Joel Cohen incision is superior to the Pffannenstiel incision. It is a straight incision that is 3 cm below the line joining the anterior iliac spines.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 12
Correct
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A 36 year old patient is seen in clinic for follow up of a vaginal biopsy which confirms cancer. What is the most common type?
Your Answer: Squamous cell carcinoma
Explanation:Squamous cell carcinoma is the most common type of vaginal cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 13
Correct
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According to NICE guidance what should be used for wound cleansing for the first 48 hours postoperatively?
Your Answer: Sterile saline
Explanation:NICE guidelines (CG74) advise the following regarding postoperative wound management Use sterile saline for wound cleansing up to 48 hours after surgery. Advise patients that they may shower safely 48 hours after surgery. Use tap water for wound cleansing after 48 hours if the surgical wound has separated or has been surgically opened to drain pus. Do not use topical antimicrobial agents for surgical wounds that are healing by primary intention to reduce the risk of surgical site infection
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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You are asked to explain to a patient the results of her Rubella screen. They are as follows:
Your Answer: Chronic Rubella Infection
Correct Answer: Acute Rubella Infection
Explanation:IgM rise is typically seen with acute infection. IgG is produced in response to infection but is produced later than IgM. IgG is also produced in response to vaccination. If IgG and IgM are negative the patient is susceptible to Rubella infection. If IgG +ve and IgM -ve the patient should be considered immune. If IgM +ve this suggests acute infection or false positive IgM (not uncommon)
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
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Question 15
Correct
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Question 16
Correct
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DHEA is synthesized from which molecule?
Your Answer: Cholesterol
Explanation:Dehydroepiandrosterone is an androgen precursor produced primarily by the adrenal glands in women. The steroid hormone is produced from cholesterol at birth by the fetal adrenal glands, after which its output reduces. DHEA production picks up again from the age of 5-7 years and peaks between the ages of 20-30.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 17
Correct
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A 29-year-old woman had just delivered a stillborn vaginally, following a major placental abruption. Choose the single most likely predisposing factor for developing PPH in this woman?
Your Answer: DIC
Explanation:Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) in pregnancy is the most common cause of an abnormal haemorrhage tendency during pregnancy and the puerperium. Although pregnancy itself can cause DIC, its presence is invariably evidence of an underlying obstetric disorder such as abruptio placentae, eclampsia, retention of a dead foetus, amniotic fluid embolism, placental retention or bacterial sepsis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 18
Incorrect
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Which of the following amniotic fluid indexes define oligohydramnios?
Your Answer: < 5 cm
Correct Answer:
Explanation:An assessment of amniotic fluid in pregnancy can be done by taking ultrasound measurements of the depth of amniotic fluid pockets. The combination of the measurements in four quadrants is called the amniotic fluid index (AFI), one of the major determinants of the biophysical profile which predicts pregnancy outcome. An AFI of less than 5 cm, or less than the 5th percentile is defined as oligohydramnios while an AFI of more than 25 cm is considered polyhydramnios.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Biophysics
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Question 19
Correct
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A 45 year old women has a transvaginal ultrasound that is reported as showing a partially echogenic mass with posterior sound attenuation owing to sebaceous material and hair within the cyst cavity. What is the likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Mature teratoma
Explanation:Dermoid cysts and teratomas contain elements from multiple germ cell layers. They are often considered the same entity (even in medical texts) however a dermoid is composed only of dermal and epidermal elements. A teratoma has mesodermal and endodermal elements Mature teratomas are composed of well-differentiated derivations from at least 2/3 germ cell layers (i.e. ectoderm, mesoderm, and endoderm). They contain developmentally mature skin complete with hair follicles, sweat glands, sometimes hair, and sometimes sebum, blood, fat, bone, nails, teeth, eyes, cartilage, and thyroid tissue.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Data Interpretation
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Question 20
Correct
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During difficult labour, mediolateral episiotomy is favoured to midline episiotomy because?
Your Answer: Less extension of the incision
Explanation:Mediolateral episiotomy is favoured to midline episiotomy because there is less extension of the incision and decreased chances of injury to the anal sphincter and rectum.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 21
Correct
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Oxytocin causes increased myometrial contractions via which of the following messenger pathways?
Your Answer: Activates phospholipase-C which produces IP3 which triggers intracellular Calcium ion release
Explanation:Oxytocin activates phospholipase C to produce inositol 1,4,5-trisphosphate (IP3), which releases Ca2+ from intracellular stores. There are thought to be other mechanisms by which myometrium is stimulated by Oxytocin including increased sensitisation of the myometrium and increased calcium entry into cells. cAMP and Protein Kinase A inhibit myometrial contractility.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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In the 3rd trimester anaemia is defined by?
Your Answer: Haemoglobin < 105 g/l
Correct Answer:
Explanation:Anaemia in pregnancy is defined by the British Committee for Standards in Haematology (BCSH) guidance: 1st trimester Hb < 110 g/l 2nd and 3rd trimester Hb < 105 g/l Postpartum Hb less than 100 g/l
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 23
Correct
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A 21-year old female, gravida 1 para 0, term pregnancy, comes in due to labour for eight hours. Two hours prior to onset of contractions, her membranes have allegedly ruptured. Fetal heart rate is at 144/min. Contractions are of good quality, noted every 2-3 minutes, with a duration of 45 seconds. On examination, her cervix is fully dilated and the patient has been pushing all throughout. Vertex is palpated in the occipito-anterior (OA) position and has descended to station 2 cm below the ischial spines in the previous hour. Which of the following most likely depicts the current condition of the patient?
Your Answer: Normal progress.
Explanation:The patient’s condition can be described as a normal progress of labour. The scenario shows a normal descent of the head in the pelvic cavity, with a favourable position, and occurring within an hour of the second stage of labour. A normal second stage of labour in a nulliparous individual occurs at a maximum of two hours, which is consistent with this patient. Hence, there is no delay in the second stage.
There is evident progress of labour in this patient, hence, obstructed labour or cephalopelvic disproportion is ruled out.
No signs of maternal distress such as tachycardia or pyrexia is described in this patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A women has undergone genetic testing due to her family history and has the BRCA 2 gene. What would you advise her lifetime risk of breast cancer is?
Your Answer: 30%
Correct Answer: 45%
Explanation:The life time risk of breast cancer in BRCA 2 gene is 45% and of ovarian cancer is 15%.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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Question 25
Correct
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Regarding gestational diabetes which of the following is NOT a recognised risk factor
Your Answer: High polyunsaturated fat intake
Explanation:There are several risk factors for gestational diabetes:
Increasing age
– Certain ethnic groups (Asian, African Americans, Hispanic/Latino Americans and Pima Indians)
– High BMI before pregnancy (three-fold risk for obese women compared to non-obese women)
– Smoking doubles the risk of GDM
– Change in weight between pregnancies – an inter-pregnancy gain of more than three units (of BMI) doubles the risk of GDM
– Short interval between pregnancies
– Previous unexplained stillbirth
– Previous macrosomia
– Family history of type 2 diabetes or GDM – more relevant in nulliparous than parous womenHigh polyunsaturated fat intake has been shown in some studies to be protective against gestational diabetes. Physical activity is also thought to be effective.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 26
Correct
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Which of the following conditions are the most common cause in post-partum haemorrhage?
Your Answer: Uterine atony
Explanation:Uterine atony is the most common cause for postpartum haemorrhage and the conditions like multiple pregnancy, polyhydramnions, macrosomia, prolonged labour and multiparity are the most common risk factor for uterine atony.
Whereas less common causes for postpartum haemorrhage are laceration of genital tract, uterine rupture, uterine inversion and coagulopathy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 27
Correct
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In a patient who undergoes a medical abortion at 10 weeks gestation, what advice would you give regarding Rhesus Anti-D Immunoglobulin?
Your Answer: All RhD-negative women who are not alloimmunized should receive Anti-D IgG
Explanation:The Rhesus status of a mother is important in pregnancy and abortion. The exposure of an Rh-negative mother to Rh antigens from a positive foetus, will influence the development of anti-Rh antibodies. This may cause problems in subsequent pregnancies leading to haemolysis in the newborn. Rh Anti RhD- globulin is therefore given to non-sensitised Rh-negative mothers to prevent the formation of anti-Rh antibodies within 72 hours following abortion. Anti RhD globulin is not useful for already sensitized, or RhD positive mothers.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 28
Correct
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In reducing the risk of blood transfusion in pregnancy and labour which of the following strategies is recommended?
Your Answer: A Hb of less than 10.5g/l should prompt haematinics and exclusion of haemoglobinopathies
Explanation:Anaemia in pregnancy is most frequently caused by iron or folate deficiency, however, a wide variety of other causes may be considered, especially if the haemoglobin value is below 9.0 g/dL. A haemoglobin level of 11 g/dL or more is considered normal early in pregnancy, with the upper limit of the ‘normal range’ dropping to 10.5 g/dL by 28 weeks gestation. Haemoglobin < 10.5 g/dl in the antenatal period, one should exclude haemoglobinopathies and consider haematinic deficiency. Oral iron is 1st line treatment for iron deficiency. Anaemia not due to haematinic deficiency will not respond to any form of iron. This should be managed with transfusion
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 29
Correct
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Regarding threatened abortion:
Your Answer: Ultrasound should be done to confirm the diagnosis
Explanation:Patients with a threatened abortion should be managed expectantly until their symptoms resolve. Patients should be monitored for progression to an inevitable, incomplete, or complete abortion. Analgesia will help relieve pain from cramping. Bed rest has not been shown to improve outcomes but commonly is recommended. Physical activity precautions and abstinence from sexual intercourse are also commonly advised. Repeat pelvic ultrasound weekly until a viable pregnancy is confirmed or excluded. A miscarriage cannot be avoided or prevented, and the patients should be educated as such. Intercourse and tampons should be avoided to decrease the chance of infection. A warning should be given to the patient to return to the emergency department if there is heavy bleeding or if the patient is experiencing light-headedness or dizziness. Heavy bleeding is defined as more than one pad per hour for six hours. The patient should also be given instructions to return if they experience increased pain or fever. All patients with vaginal bleeding who are Rh-negative should be treated with Rhogam. Because the total fetal blood volume in less than 4.2 mL at 12 weeks, the likelihood of fetal blood mixture is small in the first trimester. A smaller RhoGAM dose can be considered in the first trimester. A dose of 50 micrograms to 150 micrograms has been recommended. A full dose can also be used. Rhogam should ideally be administered before discharge. However, it can also be administered by the patient’s obstetrician within 72 hours if the vaginal bleeding has been present for several days or weeks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 30
Correct
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Among the following presentations during pregnancy, which is not associated with maternal vitamin D deficiency?
Your Answer: Large for gestational age
Explanation:Retarded skeletal growth resulting in small for gestational age babies are the usual outcomes of an untreated vitamin D deficiency in pregnancy.
Symptoms associated with maternal vitamin D deficiency during pregnancy are:
– Hypocalcemia in newborn.
– Development of Rickets later in life.
– Defective tooth enamel.
– Small for gestational age due to its effect on skeletal growth
– Fetal convulsions or seizures due to hypocalcemia. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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