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Question 1
Correct
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A 46-year-old woman with regular menstrual cycles presents with a history of menorrhagia for the last 6 years. Her menstrual cycles are normal, but she has bled excessively for eight days every month, and her haemoglobin level was 90g/L one month ago. She's already on iron supplementation. She has a history of cervical intraepithelial neoplasia grade 3 (CIN3) in addition to the anaemia, albeit her yearly smear test has been normal since the laser treatment six years ago. She is also undergoing hypertension treatment. Physical examination is unremarkable. She is not willing for endometrial ablation or hysterectomy until her menopause. Which of the following medical therapies would be the best for her to utilize between now and the time she is expected to hit menopause, which is around the age of 50?
Your Answer: HRT given from the time of menopause at the age of approximately 50 years, reduces the decline of cognitive function, often seen as an early manifestation of AD
Explanation:Adenomyosis or dysfunctional uterine haemorrhage are the most likely causes of heavy periods.
Because she refuses to have a hysterectomy or endometrial ablation, hormonal therapy must be administered in addition to the iron therapy she is already receiving.
Any of the choices could be employed, but using therapy only during the luteal phase of the cycle in someone who is virtually surely ovulating (based on her typical monthly cycles) is unlikely to work.Danazol is prone to cause serious adverse effects (virilization), especially when used for a long period of time.
GnRH agonists would cause amenorrhoea but are more likely to cause substantial menopausal symptoms, and the °fa contraceptive pill (OCP) is generally best avoided in someone using hypertension medication.Treatment with norethisterone throughout the cycle is likely to be the most successful of the treatments available.
If a levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine device (Mirena®) had been offered as an alternative, it would have been acceptable. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 2
Correct
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What is the contraception of choice for epileptics on enzyme inducing antiepileptic drugs?
Your Answer: Levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine contraceptive device.
Explanation:Clinical decision making which contraceptive regimen is optimal for an individual woman with epilepsy is one of the most challenging tasks when taking care of women with epilepsy. The bidirectional interactive potential of antiepileptic drugs (AEDs) and hormonal contraceptives needs to be taken into account. Enzyme inducing (EI)-AEDs may reduce the contraceptive efficacy of hormonal contraceptives.
If combined oral contraceptives (COCs) are used in combination with EI-AEDs, it is recommended to choose a COC containing a high progestin dose, well above the dose needed to inhibit ovulation, and to take the COC pill continuously (“long cycle therapy”). But even with the continuous intake of a COC containing a higher progestin dose contraceptive safety cannot be guaranteed, thus additional contraceptive protection may be recommended.
Progestin-only pills (POPs) are likely to be ineffective, if used in combination with EI-AEDs.
Subdermal progestogen implants are not recommended in patients on EI-AEDs, because of published high failure rates.
Depot medroxyprogesterone-acetate (MPA) injections appear to be effective, however they may not be first choice due to serious side effects (delayed return to fertility, impaired bone health).
The use of intrauterine devices is an alternative method of contraception in the majority of women, with the advantage of no relevant drug–drug interactions. The levonorgestrel intrauterine system (IUS) appears to be effective, even in women taking EI-AEDs. Likelihood of serious side effects is low in the IUS users.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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Regarding uterine fibroids, which of the following statements is false?
Your Answer: Approximately 40% of white women had detectable fibroids by 35 years of age
Correct Answer: The risk of fibroids is increased by pregnancy
Explanation:Fibroids are a common gynaecological condition found in many women above the age of 35. They are however uncommon before puberty. They are most common in black women vs white women, and its prevalence increases from puberty to menopause. Risk factors for fibroids include increasing age, obesity and infertility. Protective factors, on the other hand, include pregnancy, as the risk of fibroids decreases with increasing numbers of pregnancies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 4
Correct
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Regarding cardiac examination during pregnancy which of the following findings should be considered pathological?
Your Answer: Diastolic murmur
Explanation:Diastolic murmurs occur in conditions such as mitral stenosis, tricuspid stenosis and even in carditis. They are always pathological during pregnancy. Systolic murmurs and left axis deviation may be normal during pregnancy due to an increase in the blood volume and load on the heart.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 53 year old lady presents to clinic due to vulval itch and discolouration. examination reveals pale white discoloured areas to the vulva. A biopsy shows epidermal atrophy with sub-epidermal hyalinization and deeper inflammatory infiltrate. What is this characteristic of?
Your Answer: Lichen Simplex Chronicus
Correct Answer: Lichen Sclerosus
Explanation:Lichen sclerosus is characterized by hypopigmented atrophic plaque in the perineal region along with features of pruritis and dyspareunia.
It is more common in post menopausal women and on histology there is epidermal atrophy, inflammatory infiltrate in the dermis and basal layer degeneration.Vitiligo is characterised by hypopigmentation but without any other symptoms.
Extramammary Paget’s disease is characterized by erythematous plaque located mostly in the perianal region but its histology is different.
Lichen simplex chronicus is a chronic scaly pruritic condition characterized by itchy papules and plaques plus lichenification and it mostly results from chronic irritation and itching of the area. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 6
Incorrect
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What is the role of DHEA produced by the fetal adrenal glands?
Your Answer: None of the above
Correct Answer: Stimulate placenta to form oestrogen
Explanation:Dehydroepiandrosterone (DHEA) is a steroid hormone synthesised from cholesterol (via Pregnenolone) by the adrenal glands. The foetus manufactures DHEA, which stimulates the placenta to form oestrogen, thus keeping a pregnancy going. Production of DHEA stops at birth, then begins again around age seven and peaks when a person is in their mid-20s
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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Anna, a 39-year-old medical receptionist presents to your gynaecologic clinic for a refill of her Microgynin 30 (combined oral contraceptive pill). Her history is significant for smoking around 1 pack per day. Her BMI is 37.
What should be the next management step?Your Answer: Nicotine replacement therapy
Correct Answer: Offer her progestogen-only contraceptive options
Explanation:This patient is above 35 and smokes more than 15 cigarettes per day, which is an absolute contraindication to using a combined oral contraceptive pill. A BMI of greater than 35 is a relative contraindication to the usage of the combined oral contraceptive pill.
Progestogen-only contraception, such as etonogestrel implant, levonorgestrel intrauterine device, and depot medroxyprogesterone, should be offered to her.
Without initially attempting lifestyle changes, a referral for weight loss surgery is not required. Also, nicotine replacement therapy may aid in quitting smoking, but it may take time. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A patient arrives on labour ward she is 37 weeks pregnant. Her last pregnancy ended with delivery via uncomplicated lower segment C-Section 4 years ago. Contractions are 5 minutes apart and on examination the cervix is 5cm dilated. What is the risk of uterine rupture with vaginal delivery?
Your Answer: 1 per 10,000
Correct Answer: 25 per 10,000
Explanation:Consideration of the risk of scar rupture is probably the most important consideration when determining whether delivery should be by elective Caesarean section or by trial of vaginal delivery.
Most published studies do not differentiate between scar dehiscence and rupture, however, analysis of observational and comparative studies indicates that the excess risk of uterine rupture following trial of labour compared with women undergoing repeat elective Caesarean section is considerably lower than 1 per cent (25/10000); indeed, some studies do not demonstrate any increased risk. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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Question 10
Correct
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Galactorrhoea (non-gestational lactation) may result from all of the following EXCEPT:
Your Answer: Intrapartum haemorrhage
Explanation:Pituitary tumours, the most common pathologic cause of galactorrhoea can result in hyperprolactinemia by producing prolactin or blocking the passage of dopamine from the hypothalamus to the pituitary gland. Approximately 30 percent of patients with chronic renal failure have elevated prolactin levels, possibly because of decreased renal clearance of prolactin. Primary hypothyroidism is a rare cause of galactorrhoea in children and adults. In patients with primary hypothyroidism, there is increased production of thyrotropin-releasing hormone, which may stimulate prolactin release. Nonpituitary malignancies, such as bronchogenic carcinoma, renal adenocarcinoma and Hodgkin’s and T-cell lymphomas, may also release prolactin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 11
Correct
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What is the most common Type II congenital thrombophilia?
Your Answer: Factor V Leiden mutation
Explanation:The most common congenital thrombophilia is Factor V Leiden mutation. Other congenital causes are JAK-2 mutations and the Prothrombin G20210A mutation. Protein C and S deficiencies are type 1 and antiphospholipid syndrome is not congenital it is an acquired thrombophilia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 12
Incorrect
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You are reviewing a patient with a scan suggestive of partial molar pregnancy. What is the typical genotype of a partial molar pregnancy?
Your Answer: 46 XX
Correct Answer: 69 XXY
Explanation:The partial mole is produced when an egg is fertilized by two sperm producing genotype 69 XXY (triploid). It can also occur when one sperm reduplicates itself yielding the genotypes 92 XXXY (tetraploid) though this is less common The genotype of a complete mole is typically 46 XX (diploid) but can also be 46 XY (diploid)
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 15 year old girl is being investigated for primary amenorrhoea. She has normal FSH,LH and E2 levels on hormone profiling and normal secondary sexual characteristics. An ultrasound shows no uterus. What is the likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Complete Androgen Insensitivity Syndrome (CAIS)
Correct Answer: Rokitansky-Kuster-Hauser syndrome
Explanation:Mullerian agenesis occurs in 1 in 5000 to 1 in 40000 girls. The Mullerian system does not develop which results in an absent uterus and upper vagina. This condition is also known as Rokitansky-Kuster-Hauser syndrome, The ovarian function is normal and so the most common presentation is amenorrhea in the presence of an otherwise normal pubertal development.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Embryology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 26-year old woman, 36 weeks age of gestation, is admitted for deep venous thrombosis (DVT) of the right calf. She receives heparin treatment. Which of the following is true regarding the use of heparin rather than a coumarin derivative for anticoagulation?
Your Answer: The foetus cannot metabolise the coumarin derivatives, so their effect on the foetus is increased.
Correct Answer: Reversal of the anticoagulant effect of heparin in the mother can be achieved more quickly than that of coumarin, should labour occur.
Explanation:Heparin is a large-sized molecule and does not cross the placenta; it can provide anticoagulation in the mother, however, has no effect on the baby. Heparin is the preferred anticoagulant therapy during pregnancy.
Moreover, the anticoagulant effect of heparin can be rapidly reversed by protamine sulphate.
Warfarin, a coumarin derivative, takes much longer to be reversed compared to heparin. This can be given to the mother between 13 and 36 weeks of pregnancy, however, should be avoided in the first trimester due to its teratogenic effects.
The anticoagulant effect of coumarin derivatives on the baby also takes longer to be reversed. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 15
Correct
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A 52-year-old lady comes to your office with vaginal bleeding 7 hours after sexual intercourse. She hasn't had a menstrual period in over a year. A year ago, she had a normal pap smear. She has no other symptoms and appears to be in good condition.
Which of the following is the most likely underlying cause of this woman's postcoital bleeding?Your Answer: Vaginal atrophy
Explanation:Vaginal atrophy (thinning of vaginal tissue): Oestrogen helps to keep this tissue healthy. After menopause, low oestrogen levels can cause your vaginal walls to become thin, dry, and inflamed. That often leads to bleeding after sex.
Vaginal atrophy is the most common cause of post menopausal vaginal bleeding.
With a normal pap smear a year ago, this patient is unlikely to develop cervical cancer.
Cervical ectropions are not common in post-menopausal women.
Endometrial cancer and cervical polyps are possible causes of postcoital bleeding, however, they are not as common as vaginal atrophy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 16
Correct
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Which of the following statements is true regarding management of caesarean section?
Your Answer: Uterine closure can be in 1 or 2 layers
Explanation:Closure of the uterus should be performed in either single or double layers with continuous or interrupted sutures. The initial suture should be placed just lateral to the incision angle, and the closure continued to a point just lateral to the angle on the opposite side. A running stitch is often employed and this may be locked to improve haemostasis. If a second layer is used, an inverting suture or horizontal suture should overlap the myometrium. Once repaired, the incision is assessed for haemostasis and ‘figure-of-eight’
sutures can be employed to control bleeding. Peritoneal closure is unnecessary. Abdominal closure is performed in the anatomical planes with high strength, low reactivity materials, such as polyglycolic acid or polyglactin. Diamorphine is advised for intra and post op analgesia and oxytocin is advised to reduce blood loss. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 17
Correct
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A 26-year-old lady (gravida 0, para-O) presents with occasional lower abdomen discomfort. She is not sexually active and her periods last between 32 and 35 days. Her most recent regular menstrual period began three weeks ago. A pelvic ultrasound was performed which shows a normal uterus, left ovary, and a thin unilocular cyst in the right ovary around 4 cm in size. The most likely cause of this ultrasound finding is?
Your Answer: A follicular cyst.
Explanation:If one believes that this cycle will last 35 days, the cyst in the left ovary was discovered at mid-cycle.
It’s too huge to be a ruptured pre-ovulatory follicle, and it doesn’t exhibit the characteristics of a corpus luteum, a benign cystic teratoma, or an endometrioma.As a result, a follicular cyst is the most likely diagnosis.
A benign cyst is almost always seen on ultrasound as a unilocular, thin-walled cystic formation.
The presence of solid materials in a multiloculated cystic structure strongly suggests the presence of a malignant mass.
In a 25-year-old woman, this would be unusual, but not unheard of. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 18
Correct
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You are called to see a patient in A&E who attended due to finger splinter that has been removed. The HCA took some routine obs that show her blood pressure to be 162/110. She is 32 weeks pregnant. According to the NICE guidelines which of the following is appropriate?
Your Answer: Admit and start oral labetalol
Explanation:BP over 159/109 is classed as Severe. NICE guidance advises admission and treatment with oral Labetalol as 1st Line. Patient should have BP checked QDS and shouldn’t be discharged until BP is below 159/109
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 19
Incorrect
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Study Z gets funding to increase the population size from 1000 to 2000 patients. What effect is this likely to have on the results?
Your Answer: Increase specificity of testing
Correct Answer: Decrease type 2 errors
Explanation:Increasing sample size decreases type 2 errors and increases power of the results. Sensitivity and specificity of the test should remain constant regardless of sample size. Confidence intervals are applied by a statistician and are dependent on the mean.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology
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Question 20
Correct
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Regarding the pelvic outlet, what structure marks the posterior boundary?
Your Answer: Tip of the coccyx
Explanation:The bony pelvis is made up of a girdle with a central canal. The rim that surrounds the upper opening of the canal is called the pelvic inlet, while the lower rim is the called the pelvic outlet. The pelvic outlet is diamond-shaped and is bounded posteriorly by the tip of the sacrum, and anteriorly by the pubic symphysis, with its lateral boundaries being the ischial tuberosities and the sacrotuberous ligament.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 21
Incorrect
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Screening for Group B Streptococcus (GBS) at around 36 weeks of gestation now is common practice as up to 20% of women carry the organism in the vagina.
If a pregnant woman is found to have GBS at this stage, which treatment would be most appropriate?
Your Answer: A two week course of oral penicillin given antenatally.
Correct Answer: Parenteral penicillin given six-hourly in labour.
Explanation:Up to 20% of women have been found to have Group B streptococcus (GBS). GBS is considered a normal flora of the gastrointestinal tract. GBS infection is generally asymptomatic although some women might end up having a UTI. Infants born to mothers who are colonised with GBS during labour are at a higher risk of developing early-onset GBS infection. If a pregnant woman develops a UTI due to GBS, it is suggestive of significant GBS colonisation. IV penicillin would be the drug of choice and is to be administered to the mother during labour which would provide sufficient protection for the foetus and would be effective enough. If penicillin is unavailable, ampicillin is a reasonable alternative. If a patient has penicillin allergy, vancomycin can be used. If not for penicillin, roughly 50% of babies delivered vaginally to women who are GBS positive would be colonised with the organism and out of this percentage, 1-2% can go on to develop a severe infection such as septicaemia and meningitis which could often be fatal.
IM penicillin can be administered to the newborn immediately post-delivery would be an effective prophylaxis in most cases but one should not wait until signs of infection are present to give the injection. Many newborns would still have an immature immune system which could cause some to die. Hence, it is more suitable to treat all women who tested positive during labour and the newborn as well if any signs of infection do appear. The majority of babies don’t need antibiotic treatment if their mother has been treated.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 22
Correct
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All the following hormones are products of placental synthesis, EXCEPT:
Your Answer: Prolactin
Explanation:The metabolic adaptations of pregnancy are orchestrated by hormones produced by the placenta and maternal pituitary gland, which undergo dramatic changes during gestation. After involution of ovarian sex steroid production by wk 6, placental oestrogen and progesterone production increases exponentially to term. Concurrently, there are progressive increases in prolactin (PRL), produced by the maternal pituitary gland and decidua, and human chorionic somatomammotropin (CSH, also called human placental lactogen), which has structural similarities to GH and PRL.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 23
Correct
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A 26 year old patient with a past medical history of 2 terminations of pregnancies over the past 2 years, presents to the emergency centre complaining of severe abdominal pain and some vaginal bleeding. She has a regular 28 day cycle, and is on an oral contraceptive pill, but missed last month's period. Her last termination was over 6 months ago. She smokes almost a pack of cigarettes a day.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Ectopic pregnancy
Explanation:The clinical picture demonstrated is most likely that of a ruptured ectopic pregnancy. The period of amenorrhea may point to pregnancy, while the past medical history of 2 recent terminations of pregnancy may indicate a failure of her current contraceptive method. Smoking cigarettes have been shown to not only decrease the efficacy of OCPs, but also serve as a known risk factor for ectopic pregnancy. The lady is unlikely to have endometritis as her last termination was over 6 months ago. The lack of fever helps to make appendicitis, PID and pyelonephritis less likely, though they are still possible.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 24
Correct
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Which of the following statements is true regarding renal blood flow in pregnancy?
Your Answer: Increases by approximately 50%
Explanation:Glomerular filtration rate (GFR) rises immediately after conception and increases by about 50 per cent overall, reaching its maximum at the end of the first trimester. GFR then falls by about 20 per cent in the third trimester, returning to pre-pregnancy levels within 12 weeks of delivery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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In the 3rd trimester anaemia is defined by?
Your Answer: Haemoglobin < 105 g/l
Correct Answer:
Explanation:Anaemia in pregnancy is defined by the British Committee for Standards in Haematology (BCSH) guidance: 1st trimester Hb < 110 g/l 2nd and 3rd trimester Hb < 105 g/l Postpartum Hb less than 100 g/l
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 26
Correct
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Androgen insensitivity syndrome is characterised by which one of the following karyotypes?
Your Answer: 46XY
Explanation:Genetically, patients suffering from androgen insensitivity syndrome are 46XY. They are males but insensitive to male hormones i.e. androgens.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Embryology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 33-year-old nulliparous pregnant female at the 21st week of pregnancy came to the gynaecological clinic for evaluation of vulval ulcer. A swab was taken revealing the herpes simplex type 2 virus. There is no prior history of such lesions and her partners of the last decade had no history of the infection. She's anxious about how she got the condition and the potential consequences for her and her unborn kid. Which of the following suggestions is the most appropriate?
Your Answer: Unless she has had a new sexual partner recently, this problem could not have been acquired sexually.
Correct Answer: The primary infection is commonly asymptomatic.
Explanation:Despite the fact that this question includes many true-false options, the knowledge examined is particularly essential in the treatment of women who have genital herpes.
It answers many of the questions that such women have regarding the disease, how it spreads, how it may be controlled, and how it affects an unborn or recently born child.
All of these issues must be addressed in a counselling question.
Currently, the most prevalent type of genital herpes is type 1, while in the past, type 2 was more common, as confirmed by serology testing.
Type 2 illness is nearly always contracted through sexual contact, but it can go undetected for years.
Acyclovir can be taken during pregnancy, and there are particular reasons for its usage.
Neonatal herpes is most usually diagnosed when the newborn has no cutaneous lesions, and past genital herpes in the mother is protective against neonatal infection, although not always.
Where the genital infection is the initial sign of the disease rather than a relapse of earlier disease, neonatal herpes is far more frequent.
Many patients and doctors are unaware that, while the original infection might be deadly, it is usually asymptomatic.
This explains how the illness spreads between sexual partners when neither has had any previous symptoms of the disease. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 28
Correct
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A 27-year-old woman, at 27 weeks of gestation, who lives 40 kilometres from the nearest tertiary obstetric hospital, is referred due to premature rupture of membranes (PROM) which occurred 2 days ago. This is her first pregnancy, which had been progressing normally until the rupture of membranes. Over the last 48 hours, she did not have any contractions. Transfer was made to the tertiary referral obstetric hospital where she was started on glucocorticoid therapy. Cervical swabs were taken and she underwent ultrasound and cardiotocography assessments. She was also started on prophylactic antibiotics. Cervical swabs only showed growth of normal vaginal flora whereas the abdominal ultrasound found almost no liquor. CTG was normal and reactive.
Which is the most appropriate next step in her management?
Your Answer: The white cell count (WCC) and C-reactive protein (CRP) levels should be assessed every 2-3 days.
Explanation:If a patient presents with PROM at 27 weeks of gestation, her management plan would have to include:
1) Cervical swabs to rule out infection
2) Commencement of prophylactic antibiotics such as erythromycin until results from the swabs are available
-If only normal vaginal flora are seen, prophylactic antibiotics can be stopped.
3) Administration of glucocorticoid- usually for 48 hours to promote maturity of the fetal lung and lower the chance of intracranial bleeding if the foetus has to be delivered prematurely
4) Transfer to a healthcare centre that has neonatal intensive care facilities to ensure if intensive care is needed post-delivery, the healthcare staff are prepared
5) Blood profile (particularly white cell count) and inflammatory markers (CRP) to look for any signs of chorioamnionitis
6) CTG assessment every 2-3 days. Abnormalities found on the CTG tracing are often the first evidence of problems such as a subclinical chorioamnionitis
7) Tocolysis with tocolytics such as IV salbutamol or nifedipine if contractions start before the course of glucocorticoid therapy is finished. Post-glucocorticoid therapy, tocolysis would not be often employed since there is a risk of masking contractions that occur due to an infection. In those cases, it is better to deliver the baby rather than to prolong the pregnancy. If there is no infection, the management plan should aim to prolong the pregnancy and delay delivery of a very premature baby. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 29
Correct
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A 42 years old woman presents to a gynaecologic clinic with mid-cycle, moderate-intensity abdominal pain. There is also a similar episode of pain around a month ago, which remained for about 3 days and resolved spontaneously. She is otherwise healthy with a normal regular cycle of about 28 days duration.
Examination reveals normal vitals, soft and non-tender abdomen without any guarding or rebound tenderness.
The most likely cause of the patient's problem is?Your Answer: Ovulation pain
Explanation:This patient has developed symptoms of ovulation discomfort, which is also known as Mittelschmerz syndrome. Lower abdominal and pelvic pain that arises around the middle of a woman’s menstrual cycle characterises this condition.
The discomfort usually appears suddenly and disappears within hours, though it can continue up to three days.The symptoms of ovulation pain can include:
– Lower abdomen pain.
– The pain typically occurs about two weeks before the menstrual period is due.
– The pain is felt on the right or left side, depending on which ovary is releasing an egg.
– The pain may switch from one side to the other from one cycle to the next, or remain on one side for a few cycles.
The duration of pain ranges anywhere from minutes to 48 hours. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 30
Correct
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In developed countries, Group B streptococcus is the leading cause of early-onset neonatal sepsis. The risk of early onset neonatal Group B Streptococcus sepsis can be reduced by screening for Group B streptococcus status and by the use of intrapartum antibiotics.
From the below given statements, which is false regarding Group B streptococcus screening and intrapartum antibiotics prophylaxis?Your Answer: For elective caesarian section before the commencement of labour give antibiotics prophylaxis is recommended, irrespective of Group B streptococci carriage
Explanation:A rectovaginal swab taken for Group B streptococci culture should be done in women presenting with threatened preterm labour
If labour is establishes, intrapartum antibiotic prophylaxis for Group B streptococci should be commenced and continued until delivery. In cases were labour is not establish, prophylaxis for Group B streptococci should be ceased and should be re-established only if the culture is found to be positive, that too at the time of onset of labour.
Strategies acceptable for reducing early onset Group B streptococci sepsis includes universal culture-based screening using combined low vaginal plus or minus anorectal swab at 35-37 weeks gestation or a clinical risk factor based approach.
No additional prophylaxis is recommended irrespective of Group B streptococci carriage, for elective cesarean section before the commencement of labour. However, if a woman who commences labour or has spontaneous rupture of the membranes before her planned Caesarean section is screened positive for Group B streptococci, she should receive intrapartum antibiotic prophylaxis while awaiting delivery.
Although there is little direct evidence to guide this practice, consideration of the above mentioned evidences it is recommendation that, every women with unknown Group B streptococci status at the time of delivery should be managed according to the presence of intrapartum risk factors.
All women at increased risk of early onset Group B streptococci sepsis must be offered an intrapartum antibiotic prophylaxis with IV penicillin-G or ampicillin. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 31
Correct
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A 32-year-old woman, at 37 weeks of gestation, presents to the emergency department due to sudden onset of severe abdominal pain with vaginal bleeding of approximately 1200 cc and cessation of contractions after 18 hours of active pushing at home. Her pregnancy has been uneventful until the event.
On examination, patient is conscious and pale, with a blood pressure of 70/45 mm of Hg and pulse rate of 115 bpm. Abdomen is found to be irregularly distended with shifting dullness and fluid thrill. Fetal heart sounds are not audible.
Which among of the following will most likely be her diagnosis?Your Answer: Uterine rupture
Explanation:The given case where the patient presents with sudden abdominal pain, cessation of uterine contraction and the urge to push along with vaginal bleeding is typical for uterine rupture. Examination shows a decreased or lost fetal heart rate, along with signs of fluid collection including fluid thrill and shifting dullness due to the entry of blood into the peritoneal cavity.
Other common manifestations of uterine rupture include:
– Loss of the station of the fetal presenting part
– Vaginal bleeding which is not be proportionate to the hemodynamic status
-Maternal tachycardia and hypotension ranging from subtle to severer shock
– Uterine tenderness
– Change in uterine shape and contour
– Easily palpable fetal parts
– No fetal presentation on vaginal examination
– Hematuria if the rupture extends to the bladder
Anterior lower transverse segment is the most common site of spontaneous uterine rupture.Placenta previa usually presents as painless vaginal bleeding, which rules it out as the diagnosis in given case.
Vaginal bleeding with a tender and tense uterus is the presentation in placental abruption, also contrary to uterine rupture, uterine contractions will continue in case of placental abruption.
Cervical laceration can be a possibility, but in such cases more amount of vaginal blood loss was expected in this patient with hemodynamic instability. Also symptoms like deformed uterus, abdominal distention and cessation of contractions are inconsistent with cervical laceration.
Excessive generation of thrombin and fibrin in the circulating blood results in Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) which leads to increased platelets aggregation and consumption of coagulation factors resulting in consequent bleeding at one site and thromboembolism at another. Placental abruption and retained products of conception in the uterine cavity are the most common obstetric causes of DIC. The condition will not fit as diagnosis in this clinical scenario.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 32
Incorrect
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The ovaries produce androgen and progesterone. What is the common precursor for both of these hormones?
Your Answer: Sorbitol
Correct Answer: Cholesterol
Explanation:Both the female hormones, namely progesterone and oestrogen as well as the male hormones or androgens are lipid soluble. The common precursor of these is cholesterol.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 33
Incorrect
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Which of the following amniotic fluid indexes define oligohydramnios?
Your Answer: < 5 mm
Correct Answer:
Explanation:An assessment of amniotic fluid in pregnancy can be done by taking ultrasound measurements of the depth of amniotic fluid pockets. The combination of the measurements in four quadrants is called the amniotic fluid index (AFI), one of the major determinants of the biophysical profile which predicts pregnancy outcome. An AFI of less than 5 cm, or less than the 5th percentile is defined as oligohydramnios while an AFI of more than 25 cm is considered polyhydramnios.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Biophysics
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Question 34
Incorrect
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The transvaginal ultrasound of a 37 year old woman reveals a left ovarian mass. The mass is a unilocular cyst with diffuse homogenous ground glass echoes as a result of hemorrhagic debris. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Functional cyst
Correct Answer: Endometrioma
Explanation:An endometrioma, also known as a chocolate cyst is a benign ovarian cyst that occurs as a result of the trapping of endometriosis tissue inside the ovary. The findings on transvaginal ultrasound are often a unilocular cyst, with ground glass echogenicity due to haemorrhage. Other benign masses that can be evaluated using transvaginal ultrasound are functional cysts, serous and mucinous cystadenomas and mature teratomas.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Data Interpretation
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Question 35
Correct
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Which of the following terms best describes the pelvic type of small posterior sagittal diameter, convergent sidewalls, prominent ischial spines, and narrow pubic arch?
Your Answer: Android
Explanation:There are four types pelvic shapes:
1) Android pelvis: it has a larger inlet and smaller outlet along with small posterior sagittal diameter, prominent ischial spines and has a two finger arch.
2) Gynecoid pelvis: it has a transverse or nearly a circular ellipse and it is the most favourable for delivery.
3) Anthropoid pelvis: the brim is an anteroposterior ellipse.
4) Platypelloid pelvis: in this type the pelvic brim is kidney shape -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 36
Correct
-
The number of chromosomes in the human somatic cell is:
Your Answer: 46
Explanation:In eukaryotes, the genome comprises several double-stranded, linear DNA molecules bound with proteins to form complexes called chromosomes. Each species of eukaryote has a characteristic number of chromosomes in the nuclei of its cells. Human body cells (somatic cells) have 46 chromosomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cell Biology
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Question 37
Incorrect
-
Which of the following has been shown to improve pruritus and liver function in patients with obstetric cholestasis?
Your Answer: Cholestyramine
Correct Answer: Ursodeoxycholic acid
Explanation:Intrahepatic cholestasis characterized by reversible cholestasis typically occurring in the second or third trimester of pregnancy, elevated serum aminotransferases and bile acid level and resolution of symptoms by 2 to 3 weeks after delivery. Ursodeoxycholic acid has shown to reduce the symptoms of this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 38
Incorrect
-
A 29-year-old woman presents to her local Emergency Department with the complaint of feeling unwell.
Her last menstrual period was eight weeks ago. Normally, she has regular monthly periods.
She reports that she had heavy vaginal bleeding on the previous day; the bleeding had reduced today.
On examination, she appears unwell, her pulse rate is 130 beats/min, BP is 110/60 mmHg, and temperature is 39.5°C
Suprapubic tenderness and guarding is noted on abdominal examination.
There is no evidence of a pelvic mass.
Speculum examination shows that the cervix is open and apparent products of conception are present in the upper vagina.
From the following, choose the most appropriate treatment option for optimal management of this patient.
Your Answer: Curettage after twelve hours of antibiotic therapy.
Correct Answer: Cervical swabs for microscopic assessment and culture.
Explanation:This woman has experienced a septic abortion. Therefore the first step is commencement of intensive antibiotic treatment as soon as cervical swabs have been taken.
The next step is evacuation of the uterus. Curettage can be performed after a few hours, to extract any remaining infected products of conception from the uterine cavity.
The choice of antibiotics depends on the most likely microorganism involved. Therefore, prior to commencing any other procedure, it is vital to take cervical swabs for microscopic examination to guide further antibiotic therapy (correct answer).
If curettage is performed immediately there is a risk that the infection would spread.
However, if Clostridium welchii infection is suspected from the cervical smear (particularly if encapsulation of the microorganisms is present), then curettage should be performed immediately along with commencing antibiotic treatment.
Curettage can be delayed for up to 12-24 hours if other microorganisms are suspected; unless a significant increase in bleeding occurs.
Ergometrine is not essential as an immediate treatment measure as the patient is not bleeding heavily and reports that her bleeding has decreased. However, ergometrine is commonly given when curettage is performed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 39
Correct
-
The femoral triangle is bounded medially by which of the following structures?
Your Answer: Adductor longus
Explanation:The femoral triangle is bounded superiorly by the inguinal ligament which forms the base of the triangle, medially by the lateral border of the adductor longus and laterally by the sartorius muscle.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 40
Correct
-
Among the following situations which one is NOT considered a risk factor for isolated spontaneous abortions?
Your Answer: Retroverted uterus
Explanation:Most common risk factors for spontaneous abortion are considered to be:
– Age above 35 years.
– Smoking.
– High intake of caffeine.
– Uterine abnormalities like leiomyoma, adhesions.
– Viral infections.
– Thrombophilia.
– Chromosomal abnormalities.
Conditions like subclinical thyroid disorder, subclinical diabetes mellitus and retroverted uterus are not found to cause spontaneous abortions.
The term retroverted uterus is used to denote a uterus that is tilted backwards instead of forwards. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 41
Correct
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A 36-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department after she twisted her ankle, once initial management of her current problem is done, you realize that she is 10 weeks pregnant.
On further questioning, she admits to heroin addiction and says that Doc, I sometimes need to get high on meth, but my favorite wings to fly are cocaine though, since I cannot afford it, I take a bit when I manage to crash a party. She also drinks a bottle of whisky every day. During the past few weeks, she started worrying about not being a good mother, and for this she is taking diazepam at night which she managed to get illegally.
Considering everything this patient revealed, which is most likely to cause fetal malformations?Your Answer: Alcohol
Explanation:Woman in the given case is taking a full bottle of Whisky every day. As per standards, a small glass of Whisky (1.5 Oz) is equivalent of a standard drink and a bottle definitely exceeds 12 standard drinks. This makes her fetus at significant risk for fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS) which is associated with many congenital malformations. Low-set ears, midfacial hypoplasia, elongated philtrum, upturned nose and microcephaly along with skeletal and cardiac malformations are the congenital malformations commonly associated with fetal alcohol syndrome.
Health risks of benzodiazepines during pregnancy has not been clearly established, but there are inconsistent reports of teratogenic effects associated with fetal exposure to benzodiazepines. Neonatal abstinence syndrome of delayed onset can be associated with regular use of benzodiazepine in pregnancy.
Use of Amphetamine in controlled doses during pregnancy is unlikely to pose a substantial teratogenic risk, but a range of obstetric complications such as reduced birth weight and many these outcomes which are not specific to amphetamines but influenced by use of other drug and lifestyle factors in addition to amphetamine are found commonly among women who use it during pregnancy. Exposure to amphetamines in utero may influence prenatal brain development, but the nature of this influence and its potential clinical significance are not well established.
3,4- methylenedioxymetham phetamine(MOMA), which is an amphetamine derivative and commonly known as ecstasy, have existing evidences suggesting that its use during first trimester poses a potential teratogenic risk. So it is strongly recommended to avoided the use of ecstasy during 2-8 weeks post conception or between weeks four to ten after last menstrual period as these are the considered periods of organogenesis.
Role of cocaine in congenital malformations is controversial as cases reported of malformations caused by cocaine are extremely rare. However, it may lead to fetal intracranial haemorrhage leading to a devastating outcome.
Opiate addictions carry a significant risk for several perinatal complications, but it has no proven association with congenital malformation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 42
Correct
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What percentage of pregnant women have asymptomatic vaginal colonisation with candida?
Your Answer: 40%
Explanation:Vulvovaginal candidiasis is the most common genital infections and it is caused by candida albicans in 80-92% of the cases. It colonise the vaginal flora in 20% of non pregnant and 40% pregnant women.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 43
Incorrect
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Which of the following Oestrogens (Oestrogens) becomes the predominant circulating oestrogen during pregnancy?
Your Answer: Oestradiol
Correct Answer: Estriol
Explanation:The 3 main oestrogens are Estrone (E1) Oestradiol (E2) and Estriol (E3). Oestradiol is the predominant oestrogen during female reproductive years except during the early follicular phase when Estrone predominates. During pregnancy Estriol levels rise significantly and this becomes the dominant oestrogen during pregnancy. Ethinylestradiol and Mestranol are oestrogen found in COCP’s
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 44
Correct
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All of the following factors increase the risk of endometrial cancer except which one?
Your Answer: High Coffee Consumption
Explanation:The risk factors for uterine carcinoma include obesity, diabetes, Nulliparity, late menopause, unopposed oestrogen therapy, tamoxifen therapy, HRT and a family history of ovarian or uterine carcinoma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology
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Question 45
Incorrect
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At what week in pregnancy is testing for gestational diabetes (GD) advised
Your Answer: 24-28 weeks of pregnancy if past history of GD
Correct Answer: As soon as possible after booking if past history of GD
Explanation:Gestational diabetes (GDM) occurs in 2–9 per cent of all pregnancies. Screening for diabetes in pregnancy can be justified to diagnose previously unrecognized cases of pre-existing diabetes and to identify a group of women who are at risk of developing NIDDM later in life. No single screening test has been shown to be perfect in terms of high sensitivity and specificity for gestational diabetes. Urinary glucose is unreliable, and most screening tests now rely on blood glucose estimation, with an oral glucose tolerance test commonly used. The aim of glucose control is to keep fasting levels between 3.5 and 5.5 mmol/L and postprandial levels 7.1 mmol/L, with insulin treatment usually indicated outside these ranges. The women should be tested as soon as possible after booking if there is a history of GD.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 46
Incorrect
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In which part of the body does clomiphene trigger ovulation by antagonising oestrogen receptors?
Your Answer: Ovaries
Correct Answer: Hypothalamus
Explanation:Clomiphene citrate is widely used in the induction of ovulation, especially in the treatment of anovulatory infertility and in conditions such as PCOS. The drug functions as a selective oestrogen receptor modulator, which acts in the hypothalamus to indicate low serum oestrogen levels. Reduced levels of negative feedback stimulate the secretion of GnRH from the hypothalamus, which in turn stimulate the production of gonadotropins (FSH and LH) from the anterior pituitary. These work to increase ovarian follicular activity.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 47
Correct
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Which of the following statements regarding prolactin is true?
Your Answer: Prolactin levels increase during stress
Explanation:Causes of Hyperprolactinemia: Prolactinomas, Medication (phenothiazines, metoclopramide, risperidone, selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors, oestrogens, verapamil), Stress, Pregnancy, Hypothyroidism, Kidney disease, Chest trauma
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 48
Incorrect
-
A 33-year-old woman is under your care during her pregnancy.
She has had only one previous pregnancy in which her foetus had spina bifida.
Identify the most appropriate assessment, from the following choices, that would aid in detection of spina bifida in her current pregnancy.Your Answer: Maternal alpha-fetoprotein at 15-16 weeks of gestation.
Correct Answer: Ultrasound of the fetal spine at 16-18 weeks of gestation.
Explanation:An ultrasound of the foetal spine at 16-18 weeks of gestation is the most appropriate assessment (correct answer).
Ultrasound performed at 11-12 weeks of gestation can diagnose anencephaly, another neural tube defect, however; any vertebral column defect is unlikely to be detected.
In most cases of neural tube defects in the foetus, elevations will be noted in maternal alpha-fetoprotein levels at 12 to 15 weeks. However, it may not be possible to detect all such abnormalities and a confirmed diagnosis cannot be made.
Additionally, elevations in alpha-fetoprotein levels do not always correlate to the presence of foetal neural tube defects.
Nuchal translucency scans do not detect neural tube defects. They are performed to identify the risk of chromosomal abnormalities in the foetus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 49
Correct
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A 75 year old woman has a lesion biopsied from the cervix that is histologically confirmed as endometrial carcinoma. Further staging investigations shows no spread to the serosa or adnexa, no spread to the para-aortic, pelvic or inguinal lymph nodes and no evidence of distant metastasis. What FIGO stage is this?
Your Answer: 2
Explanation:It is stage 2 of the disease.
Staging:
1 Confined to uterus
1A < 50% myometrial invasion
1B > 50% myometrial invasion
2 Cervical stromal invasion but not beyond uterus
3 Extension beyond the uterus
3A Tumour invades the serosa or adnexa
3B Vaginal and/or parametrial invasion
3C1 Pelvic nodal involvement
3C2 Para aortic nodal involvement
4 Distant Metastasis
4A Tumour invasion of the bladder and/or bowel mucosa
4B Distant metastases including abdominal metastases and/or inguinal lymph nodes -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 50
Correct
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A 25-year-old Aboriginal woman at ten weeks of gestation presents with a 2-week history of nausea, vomiting and dizziness. She has not seen any doctor during this illness.
On examination, she is found to be dehydrated, her heart rate is 135 per minute (sinus tachycardia), blood pressure 96/60 mm of Hg with a postural drop of more than 20 mm of Hg systolic pressure and is unable to tolerate both liquids and solids.Urine contains ketones and blood tests are pending.
How will you manage this case?Your Answer: Give metoclopramide and intravenous normal saline
Explanation:Analysis of presentation shows the patient has developed hyperemesis gravidarum.
She is in early shock, presented as sinus tachycardia and hypotension, with ketonuria and requires immediate fluid resuscitation and anti-emetics. The first line fluid of choice is administration of normal saline 0.9%, and should avoid giving dextrose containing fluids as they can precipitate encephalopathy and worsens hyponatremia.The most appropriate management of a pregnant patient in this situation is administration of metoclopramide as the first line and Ondansetron as second line antiemetic, which are Australian category A and B1 drugs respectively. The following also should be considered and monitored for:
1. More refractory vomiting.
2. Failure to improve.
3. Recurrent hospital admissions.Steroids like prednisolone are third line medications which are used in resistant cases of hyperemesis gravidarum after proper consultation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 51
Incorrect
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Delayed puberty in girls is defined as?
Your Answer: Primary amenorrhoea at age 16
Correct Answer: Absence of breast development in girls beyond 13 years old
Explanation:Breast development occurs from the age of 9-13 at the onset of puberty. Delayed puberty is defined as the absence of breast development after the age of 13.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 52
Correct
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Question 53
Correct
-
Which of the following factors is fetal nutrition dependant on?
Your Answer: All of the options given
Explanation:Fetal nutrition is dependant upon multiple factors such as maternal nutritional state, quality of maternal diet, malnutrition, anorexia nervosa, metabolic rate of the mother or whether they suffer from malabsorption syndrome or other related conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 54
Incorrect
-
What is the anterior boundary of the pelvic outlet?
Your Answer: pubic tubercle
Correct Answer: pubic arch
Explanation:The pelvic outlet is bounded anteriorly by the inferior border of the pubic arch, posteriorly by the sacrotuberous ligament and the tip of the coccyx and laterally by the ischial tuberosities.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 55
Correct
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Question 56
Correct
-
Premature menopause is defined as cessation of menses before the age of:
Your Answer: 40
Explanation:Premature menopause occurs if menopause happens before the age of 40. It effects 1% of women under the age of 40 and 0.1% under 30.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 57
Correct
-
A 14-year-old female presents with complaints of intermittent lower abdominal pain episodes that last for about three days each month.
These symptoms have been ongoing for the past 12 months.
She reports that pubertal breast changes started about four years ago, however she has not yet had her first period.
On examination of her abdomen there is no evidence of any suprapubic mass or tenderness when she is not in pain.
Blood tests indicate that she is ovulating.
From the following developmental abnormalities, identify the one that is most likely to be the cause of her abdominal pain.Your Answer: Mullerian (paramesonephric) agenesis.
Explanation:The clinical evaluation indicates that the patient is ovulating but has not started menstruating. These observations suggest that the pain she is experiencing on a monthly basis could be related to ovulation or there could be an obstruction preventing the flow of menstrual blood from the uterus.
Uterine or vaginal anomalies that can obstruct menstrual flow include imperforate hymen, absent vagina, a transverse vaginal septum, or cervical obstruction.
If the cause was an obstruction to the flow, the retained menstrual products would have developed into a suprapubic mass (hematometra/ haematocolpos). However, no palpable mass was detected on abdominal examination.
Mullerian (paramesonephric) agenesis (correct answer) is the only condition that would result in no endometrial development; consequently there was no palpable mass observed and no menstrual loss that could be shed was present. A pelvic (lower abdominal) ultrasound examination can confirm the diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 58
Correct
-
Aromatase is key to Oestradiol production in the ovaries. Which of the following statements is true?
Your Answer: FSH induces the granulosa cells to make aromatase
Explanation:The two main cell types of the ovaries:
1. The theca cells produce androgen in the form of androstenedione. The theca cells are not able to convert androgen to oestradiol themselves. The produced androgen is therefore taken up by granulosa cells.
2. The neighbouring granulosa cells then convert the androgen into oestradiol under the enzymatic action of aromatase FSH induces the granulosa cells to produce aromatase for this purpose -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 59
Correct
-
A 73-year-old woman presents with a complaint of blood-stained vaginal discharge.
On speculum examination, her ectocervix and vagina show signs of atrophy.
No evidence of malignant cells is seen on cervical cytology, although no endocervical cells were visualised.
Choose the most suitable next step for management of this patient.
Your Answer: Hysteroscopy and dilatation and curettage
Explanation:Diagnostic hysteroscopy with dilatation and curettage (D&C) is the most suitable step for immediate management of this patient (correct answer). This would aid in determining if an endometrial lesion exists and enable histologic examination of any endometrium that may be present.
Assessment of endometrial thickness via ultrasound examination is commonly used to decide if a patient requires D&C. In postmenopausal women, an endometrial thickness of more than 4mm indicates need for D&C.However, this method is more beneficial in younger postmenopausal women. In women who are 70 years or older, postmenopausal bleeding should be considered to be due to a malignancy until confirmed otherwise.
In this patient, a vaginal swab for culture or a colposcopy would not be appropriate.
Similarly, laparoscopy is not indicated unless the bleeding continued despite a normal hysteroscopy and D&C.
If the endometrial thickness is less than 4mm, a malignancy is less likely to be present; however, the risk cannot be completely excluded.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 60
Correct
-
A 26 year old female patient comes to a GP asking to see a gynaecologist for cervical screening test. She has no history of sexual intercourse and is not a lesbian.
What would you do next?Your Answer: Reassure her there is no need for cervical screening test at this stage
Explanation:Women, who have never had sexual encounter, do not need cervical screening. However, any sort of sexual encounter (Lesbian or heterosexual) is considered a risk and the patient must be screened. Otherwise, routine cervical screening test can be performed every five years for woman 25-74 years who ever had sex with no evidence of cervical pathology. Perform a cervical screening test at the age of 25 or 2 years after first sexual intercourse-whichever is later in sexually active women. Perform cervical screening test in patients above 75 years if they request or if they never had any symptoms.
All other options are unacceptable.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 61
Correct
-
A 28-year-old, currently at 26 weeks’ gestation of her third pregnancy, presents with irregular uterine contractions for the past 24 hours and has concerns about premature delivery. She delivered her first child at 38 weeks of gestation and her second at 39 weeks gestation. On examination, BP and urinalysis have come back normal. Her symphysis-fundal height measures 27cm, the uterus is lax and non-tender. Fetal heart rate is 148/min. She also undergoes a pelvic examination along with other investigations.
Which findings would suggest that delivery is most likely going to happen before 30 weeks’ of gestation?
Your Answer: The cervix is closed, but the fetal fibronectin test on cervical secretions is positive.
Explanation:Predisposing factors of preterm delivery include a short cervix (or if it shortens earlier than in the third trimester), urinary tract or sexually transmitted infections, open cervical os, and history of a previous premature delivery. Increased uterine size can also contribute to preterm delivery and is seen with cases of polyhydramnios, macrosomia and multiple pregnancies. The shorter the cervical length, the greater the risk of a premature birth.
In this case, the risk of bacterial vaginosis and candidiasis contributing to preterm delivery would be lower than if in the context of an open cervical os. However, the risk of premature delivery is significantly increased if it is found that the fetal fibronectin test is positive, even if the os is closed. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 62
Correct
-
After 18 months of frequent sexual activity, a young couple was unable to conceive.
Which of the following conditions has the best prognosis for infertility treatment?Your Answer: Stein-Leventhal syndrome
Explanation:Approximately 75–80% of patients with PCOS will ovulate after Clomiphene citrate. Although there appears to be discrepancy between ovulation and pregnancy rates, life-table analysis of the largest and most reliable studies indicates a conception rate of up to 22% per cycle in those ovulating on CC.
Pelvic TB causes tubal occlusion by scarring leading to infertility. Once occlusion occurs, IVF is usually the only option for conception. This is also the case for women with Turner syndrome.
Azoospermia maybe treated with surgery or hormonal therapy based on the cause but the success rate is low.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 63
Correct
-
The uterine vein drains where?
Your Answer: Internal iliac vein
Explanation:The venous drainage of the uterus is via the uterine veins which form a plexus passing below the artery within the base of the broad ligament communicating with the rectal and the vesical venous plexus before draining into the internal iliac veins.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 64
Correct
-
To avoid potential haemolysis, Anti D immunoglobulin should be administered to which of the following?
Your Answer: Rhesus negative mother, non-sensitised, fetal cord blood Rh positive
Explanation:The Rhesus status of a mother is important in pregnancy and even abortion. The exposure of an Rh-negative mother exposed to Rh antigens from a positive foetus, will influence the development of anti-Rh antibodies. This may cause problems in subsequent pregnancies leading to haemolysis in the newborn. Rh Anti RhD- globulin is therefore given to non-sensitised Rh-negative mothers who give birth to Rh-positive children to prevent the formation of anti-Rh antibodies. Anti RhD globulin is not useful for already sensitized, or RhD positive mothers; its administration could result in maternal blood being bound and taken out of circulation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Immunology
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Question 65
Correct
-
When consenting someone for laparoscopy you discuss the risk of vascular injury. The incidence of vascular injury during laparoscopy according to the BSGE guidelines is?
Your Answer: 0.2/1000
Explanation:Major vessel injury is the most important potential complication when undertaking laparoscopy. It’s incidence is 0.2/1000. Bowel Injury is more common at 0.4/1000
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 66
Correct
-
A 27-year-old woman would usually take her oral contraceptive pill (ethinyl oestradiol 30µg, levonorgestrel 150 µg) each night at around 11 pm. One day, she presents at 7pm and says that she had forgotten to take her pill the evening before and would like some advice as to what she should do. Last sexual intercourse was last night and she is now on day-27 of her cycle. She is due to take her last pill tonight and then start the first of seven lactose tablets tomorrow night.
What would be the best advice to give her?
Your Answer: Stop the current course of contraceptive pills, and start the next course of hormone tab lets in five days’ time.
Explanation:Taking into consideration that she had only missed one pill and that they were going to be stopped the next day anyway, the rate of pregnancy would be low; hence all of the responses would be acceptable and effective. However, the most appropriate step would be to initiate her hormone-free interval starting from the time she missed her pill i.e. 11pm the night before. This would make tonight the 2nd lactose pill day and hence she should commence the next course of hormone pills on the 5 nights from tonight. In doing this, her hormone-free period would be the usual length of 7 days. Although the risk of pregnancy is low after missing only one pill, this opposite occurs when the missed pill causes a longer than normal hormone-free duration between the end of the current cycle and the starting of the subsequent one.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 67
Incorrect
-
A 21-year-old lady comes to your office complaining of unpredictable vaginal bleeding for the past four months since starting to take combined oral contraceptive tablets (Microgynon 30). She engages in sexual activity and uses condoms to prevent sexually transmitted illnesses.
Which of the following suggestions is the most appropriate?Your Answer: She should use intrauterine contraceptive device
Correct Answer: She should switch to a new combined pill with ethinylestradiole 50mcg
Explanation:Evidence is not yet of sufficient quality for there to be evidence-based guidelines or recommendations. Having excluded other causes:
Reassure patients that breakthrough bleeding is a common side-effect of CHC and usually resolves after three cycles of use.
Advise women who smoke that stopping smoking may improve cycle control.
If bleeding persists after three cycles, consider changing formulation:
Increase dose of oestrogen, particularly if on a 20-microgram ethinylestradiol (EE) preparationAll other options are not acceptable.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 68
Correct
-
HPV genotypes 6 and 11 are associated with which of the following?
Your Answer: Low grade squamous intraepithelial lesions of the cervix (LSIL)
Explanation:HPV types 6 and 11 are associated with low risk, low grade squamous intraepithelial lesion. While types 16,18,31 and 33 are associated with high risk, high grade neoplasia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
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Question 69
Correct
-
A 30-year-old G2P1 woman presented to the maternity unit, in labour at 38 weeks gestation. During her previous pregnancy she delivered a healthy baby through caesarean section. The current pregnancy had been uneventful without any remarkable problems in antenatal visits except for the first trimester nausea and vomiting.
On arrival, she had a cervical dilation of 4 cm and the fetal head was at -1 station. After 5 hours, the cervical length and fetal head station are still the same despite regular uterine contractions. Suddenly, there is a sudden gush of blood, which is approximately 1000 ml and the fetal heart rate have dropped to 80 bpm on CTG.
Which of the following could be the most likely cause for this presentation?Your Answer: Ruptured uterus
Explanation:Due to the previous history of caesarean section, uterine rupture would be the most likely cause of bleeding in this patient who is at a prolonged active phase of first stage of labour.
Maternal manifestations of uterine rupture are highly variable but some of its common features includes:
– Constant abdominal pain, where the pain may not be present in sufficient amount, character, or location suggestive of uterine rupture and may be masked partially or completely by use of regional analgesia.
– Signs of intra abdominal hemorrhage is a strong indication. Although hemorrhage is common feature, but signs and symptoms of intra-abdominal bleeding in cases of uterine rupture especially in those cases not associated with prior surgery may be subtle.
– Vaginal bleeding is not considered as a cardinal symptom as it may be modest, despite major intra-abdominal hemorrhage.
– Maternal tachycardia and hypotension
– Cessation of uterine contractions
– Loss of station of the fetal presenting part
– Uterine tenderness
As seen in this case, fetal bradycardia is the most common and characteristic clinical manifestation of uterine rupture, preceded by variable or late decelerations, but there is no other fetal heart rate pattern pathognomonic of rupture. Furthermore, fetal heart rate changes alone have a low sensitivity and specificity for diagnosing a case as uterine rupture.
Pain and persistent vaginal bleeding despite the use of uterotonic agents are characteristic for postpartum uterine rupture. If the rupture extends into the bladder hematuria may also occur.
A definite diagnosis of uterine rupture can be made only after laparotomy. Immediate cesarean section should be performed to save both the mother and the baby in cases where uterine rupture is suspected. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 70
Correct
-
Physiological changes in the reproductive system include:
Your Answer: The uterus 1st enlarges by hyperplasia then by hypertrophy
Explanation:Although uterine growth during the first few weeks of pregnancy is accomplished by increased numbers of smooth muscle cells (i.e. hyperplasia) and a smaller contribution from increased cell size (i.e. hypertrophy), the predominant growth of the uterus during pregnancy is by way of stretch‐induced myometrial hypertrophy. This ongoing process of stretch‐induced tissue remodelling and smooth muscle hypertrophy is accompanied by the lack of uterine contractions during most of gestation to accommodate the developing foetus (phase 0 of parturition). Phase 1 of parturition represents myometrial activation. The final stages of pregnancy are characterized by increases in spontaneous low‐amplitude contractions that gradually increase in frequency, rhythmicity and strength, normally culminating in labour and delivery of the foetus at term (phase 2 of parturition).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 71
Correct
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Which pharyngeal arch is closest to the head of the embryo?
Your Answer: 1st
Explanation:The arches are numbered according to their proximity to the head i.e. the 1st is the closest to the head end of the embryo and the 6th closest to the tail end as shown by the diagram below the table
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Embryology
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Question 72
Correct
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Which of the following dugs is a strong inducer of cytochrome P450?
Your Answer: Phenytoin
Explanation:It is important to be aware of which ant-epileptics induce cytochrome P450. Of the above Topiramate and Phenytoin are moderate and strong inducers respectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 73
Incorrect
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A 28 year old patient has a diagnosis of PCOS. She has been trying to conceive for 2 years. Her BMI is 26 kg/m2 and she is a non-smoker. She has been taking Clomiphene and metformin for the past 6 months. What is the next most appropriate treatment?
Your Answer: Continue current treatment for further 6 months
Correct Answer: Gonadotrophins
Explanation:Management of PCOS includes OCP, cyclical oral progesterone, metformin, clomiphene (which is more effective in inducing ovulation than metformin) and life-style changes. In women who are tolerant to these therapies Gonadotrophins should be trialled. However lifestyle changes should be able to improve the condition significantly. Clomiphene shouldn’t be continued for more than 6 months.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 74
Correct
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The ureters receive autonomic supply from which spinal segments?
Your Answer: T11-L2
Explanation:The ureters receive innervation by a number of nerve plexuses. The nerves supplying the ureters originate from spinal segments T11 to L2. When you think about ureteric colic giving classic ‘loin to groin’ pain it is because the pain is referred to these dermatomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 75
Correct
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A lady who is 29-weeks pregnant, comes to a general practice, complaining of a sudden gush of clear fluid.
On Speculum examination, premature rupture of membranes is confirmed with closed cervix.
In addition to transferring patient to a tertiary care, what is the most appropriate in the management of this case?Your Answer: Betamethasone
Explanation:This patient who is at her 29 weeks of pregnancy, presented with sudden gush of clear fluid and Speculum examination has confirmed premature rupture of membrane (PROM).
Approximately, 50% of PROM progress to labour within 24 hours and in the remaining, 80% within seven days. The most important next step of management in this case is transferring this patient to tertiary care hospital as soon as possible. It is equally important to give corticosteroid therapy, like Betamethasone, if delivery prior to 34 weeks is likely to occur, as it will help in fetal lung maturity.
Cardiotocography (CTG) is usually not available in general practice settings and it can be done only while in the hospital. If CTG shows any abnormality or if there is any presence of infection it is better to induce labor.
Salbutamol and nifedipine are of no use in this case, as the patient is not in labour and does not require tocolytics.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 76
Correct
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A 39-week pregnant patient presents with acute epigastric pain and general signs of malaise. She has a normal body temperature but clinical examination shows RUQ tenderness. Blood tests revealed a mild anaemia, high liver enzyme values, low platelets and haemolysis. What is the most possible diagnosis?
Your Answer: HELLP syndrome
Explanation:HELLP syndrome stands for haemolysis, elevated liver enzyme levels, and low platelet levels and is a very severe condition that can happen during pregnancy. Management of this condition requires immediate delivery of the baby.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 77
Correct
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Question 78
Correct
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Question 79
Incorrect
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A 19 year old patient on Lamotrigine 125 mg twice a day for the past two years has recently been prescribed Microgynon 30 as a contraceptive before she leaves for Uni. What could the main concern be?
Your Answer: Lamotrigine is a strong enzyme inducer and may inhibit contraceptive effect
Correct Answer: Combined contraceptive may reduce Lamotrigine levels and increase seizure risk
Explanation:Lamotrigine, a drug used to treat epilepsy, is less effective when taken with combined oral contraceptives. The oestrogen component of the pill decreases the circulating levels of Lamotrigine, increasing the risk of seizures. The combination is therefore classified as a UKMEC 3, as the risk of the drug combination may outweigh the benefit. As an alternative, the progesterone-only pill, depo progesterone, Mirena or the copper IUD may be considered as there is no restriction on concomitant use. Lamotrigine is not metabolised through cytochrome P450 like other antiepileptic drugs such as carbamazepine and phenytoin, neither is it an enzyme inhibitor.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 80
Incorrect
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Among the following which is the most likely finding of placental abruption in a pregnant woman?
Your Answer: Uterine tenderness
Correct Answer: Vaginal bleeding
Explanation:Placental abruption is defined as the premature separation of placenta from uterus and the condition usually presents with bleeding, uterine contractions and fetal distress. It is one of the most significant cause of third-trimester bleeding and is often associated with fetal and maternal mortality and morbidity. In all pregnant women with vaginal bleeding in the second half of the pregnancy, this condition should be considered as a differential diagnoses.
Though vaginal bleeding is the most common presenting symptom reported by almost 80% of women with placental abruption, vaginal bleeding is concealed in 20% of women with placental abruption, therefore, absence of vaginal bleeding does not exclude placental abruption.Symptoms and complications of placental abruption varies according to patient, frequency of appearance of some common features is as follows:
- Vaginal bleeding is the common presentation in 80% of patients.
- Abdominal or lower back pain with uterine tenderness is found in 70%
- Fetal distress is seen in 60% of women.
- Abnormal uterine contractions like hypertonic, high frequency contractions are seen in 35% cases.
- Idiopathic premature labor in 25% of patients.
- Fetal death in about 15% of cases.Examination findings include vaginal bleeding, uterine contractions with or without tenderness, shock, absence of fetal heart sounds and increased fundal height due to an expanding hematoma. Shock is seen in class 3 placental abruption which represents almost 24% of all cases of placental abruption.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 81
Correct
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Which of the following prolongs Prothrombin time?
Your Answer: Factor V deficiency
Explanation:Prothrombin time is increased in:
– Factor V deficiency
– Vitamin K deficiency (which affects factors 2,7 and 10)
– Warfarin therapy
– Severe liver failure
Protein C is an anticoagulant and deficiency results in a hyper-coagulable state with tendency towards thrombosis. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Biochemistry
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Question 82
Correct
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You review a patient in the fertility clinic. The ultrasound and biochemical profile are consistent with PCOS. She has been trying to conceive for 2 years. Her BMI is 26 kg/m2. She is a non-smoker. Which of the following is the most appropriate first line treatment?
Your Answer: Clomiphene
Explanation:Clomiphene and/or Metformin are 1st line agents. Weight loss in the setting of subfertility is advised if BMI >30 kg/m2
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 83
Correct
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A 25-year-old woman presented to the medical clinic due to fever and dysuria which has been going on for the past 3 days. The presence a pruritic, erythematous vulvar rash that is particularly painful during urination was also noted on the patient. Upon history taking, she mentioned that she is sexually active with one partner, and they use condoms inconsistently.
Physical examination was done and the following are her results:
Temperature is 38.7 deg C
Blood pressure is 120/80mmHg
Pulse is 84/min
Abdominal examination was done and revealed that there is suprapubic fullness.
Upon pelvic examination, the presence of several tender ulcerated lesions with circular borders on the inside of the left labia minora were noted.
Speculum examination revealed no cervical friability or mucopurulent discharge. There is also enlarged and tender left inguinal lymph nodes.
Urethral catheterization was then performed due to difficulty with spontaneous voiding.
The results of her urinalysis are as follows:
Leukocyte esterase = positive
Nitrites = negative
Bacteria = none
White blood cells = 15/hpf
Her urine pregnancy test turned out negative.
Which of the following tests will most likely be considered to establish the patient’s diagnosis?Your Answer: Viral culture of lesion for herpes simplex virus
Explanation:While HSV-1 often affects the perioral region and can be known to cause genital lesions, HSV-2 is more commonly the consideration when patients present with genital lesions.
HSV-2 is transmitted through direct contact of sections in a seropositive individual who is actively shedding the virus. The virus preferentially affects the skin and mucous membranes with the virus invading epithelial cells on initial exposure and ultimately replicating intracellularly at that site.HSV-2, in particular, may present as a primary infection with painful genital ulcers, sores, crusts, tender lymphadenopathy, and dysuria. The classical features are of macular or papular skin and mucous membrane lesions progressing to vesicles and pustules that often last for up to 3 weeks. Genital lesions can be especially painful, leading to swelling of the vulva in women, burning pain, and dysuria.
Given that symptoms can mimic acute urinary tract infection, consider urinalysis and culture.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 84
Correct
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Among the statements given below which one is correct regarding shoulder dystocia?
Your Answer: Erb palsy is common fetal injury
Explanation:Shoulder dystocia occurs when the bisacromial diameter, which is the breadth of the shoulders, exceed the diameter of pelvic inlet. This typically results in a bony impaction of the anterior shoulder against the maternal symphysis pubis, instead of an arrest at the pelvic inlet. Brachial plexus palsies including Erb’s palsy is the most common foetal injury associated with shoulder dystocia.
It is not hyper-extension but the hyper-flexion of maternal legs tightly on her abdomen, called as McRoberts manoeuvre, which facilitates delivery during shoulder dystocia. This technique is effective as it increases the mobility of sacroiliac joint during pregnancy, which allows the rotation of pelvis and thereby facilitating the release of fetal shoulder.
If this manoeuvre does not succeed, another technique called suprapubic pressure is done where an assistant applies pressure on the lower abdomen and gently pulls the delivered head. This technique is useful in about 42% of cases with shoulder dystocia.Maternal diabetes mellitus and foetal macrosomia both are a risk factor for shoulder dystocia.
Administration of epidural anaesthesia during labour increases the possibility of shoulder dystocia.
Risk of shoulder dystocia may increase with Oxytocin augmentation also.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 85
Correct
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During vertex presentation, the position is determined by relationship of which part of the fetal vertex to the mother's pelvis?
Your Answer: Occiput
Explanation:A cephalic presentation is the one where head of the foetus enters the pelvic cavity at the time of delivery. The commonest form of cephalic presentation is the vertex presentation in which the occiput of the foetus enters the birth canal.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 86
Correct
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If your patient is 8 weeks pregnant which one of the following USS measurements is most useful?
Your Answer: Crown rump length
Explanation:Fetal crown-rump length (CRL) is recommended over last menstrual period for estimating GA when measured in early pregnancy i.e. before 9 to 13+6 weeks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 87
Correct
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A couple present to the fertility clinic after failing to conceive despite trying for 2.5 years. The semen analysis shows azoospermia. You perform a full examination of the male partner which reveals Height 192cm, BMI 20.5, small testes and scant facial hair. You decide to organise karyotyping. What is the result likely to show?
Your Answer: 47XXY
Explanation:Klinefelter syndrome is associated with testicular atrophy, eunuchoid body shape, tall, long extremities, female hair distribution and gynaecomastia. It is a common cause of hypogonadism seen during fertility workup.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 88
Correct
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A 40 year old women who is 13 weeks pregnant is found to have be high risk for Downs following the combined screening test. What is the most appropriate further test to see if the foetus is affected?
Your Answer: Chorionic Villous Sampling
Explanation:Chorion villus sampling is an invasive procedure which aims to collect the rapidly dividing cells in the placenta. It is used for numerous reasons including detection of early pregnancy, viability of the foetus, singleton pregnancy, confirm gestation age and for prenatal diagnosis of the fetal chromosomal abnormalities including diagnosis of Down’s syndrome. However it hold a 2% chance of miscarriage during the procedure. Nuchal thickness and imaging are part of the combined test that must have been performed before.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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Question 89
Correct
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A 23-year-old woman presents to the local hospital clinic for her first antenatal visit.
She is primigravid at 39 weeks of gestation (exact dates uncertain).
She has just arrived from overseas, and no antenatal care had been available in her origin country.
On examination, BP is 120/80 mmHg. The fundal height is 30cm above the pubic symphysis. Fetal heart sounds are present at a rate of 144/min.
Pelvic examination indicates a long, closed cervix. The baby is noted to be in cephalic presentation.
What is the appropriate choice for initial management of this woman?Your Answer: Ultrasound examination.
Explanation:In this case, the fundus height appears to be smaller than the suggested dates of gestation. However, this is uncertain as the exact gestation dates are not known. Head-sparing intrauterine growth restriction needs to be excluded or managed appropriately if detected.
The best initial management step would be to perform an ultrasound examination (correct answer). This would enable complete assessment of the foetus and all the measurable parameters can be determined. This would aid in identifying any discrepancy in size of the abdomen, limbs and head, and the liquor volume (amniotic fluid index) could be evaluated.
If asymmetrical growth restriction was detected via ultrasound examination, further evaluations such as cardiotocography (CTG) and umbilical arterial wave form analysis by Doppler could be initiated.
Additionally, foetal movement counting could then be commenced and evaluation of foetal lung maturity by amniocentesis could be considered.
If the ultrasound was normal (no evidence of asymmetrical growth restriction, normal amniotic fluid), repeat ultrasound should be performed after two weeks to evaluate the foetal growth.
If normal growth is observed on the repeat ultrasound, the estimated due date can be calculated (assuming normal foetal growth around the 50th percentile for the population).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 90
Correct
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You see a diabetic women in preconception clinic. Which of the following is appropriate advice regarding folic acid supplementation?
Your Answer: 5 mg daily until week 12
Explanation:The aim of pre-pregnancy counselling is to achieve the best possible glycaemic control before pregnancy and to educate diabetic women about the implications of pregnancy. Patient information leaflets about pregnancy should make clear the risks of pregnancy in diabetes, and include advice to take high dose (5 mg) folic acid pre-conception and for the first 12 weeks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 91
Correct
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Question 92
Incorrect
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All of the following factors are associated with umbilical cord prolapse, except?
Your Answer: Cephalo pelvic disproportion
Correct Answer: Anencephaly
Explanation:Anencephaly means the missing of a particular portion of the scalp and brain tissue. The other factors listed are associated with umbilical cord prolapse like multiparity, twin birth, polyhydramnios, premature delivery, long umbilical cord or breech presentation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 93
Incorrect
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Sensory supply to the clitoris is via branches of which nerve?
Your Answer: Ilioinguinal
Correct Answer: Pudendal nerve
Explanation:The pudenal nerves has three branches, namely the inferior rectal, perineal and the dorsal nerve of the clitoris. The perineal nerve has two branches: The superficial perineal nerve gives rise to posterior scrotal or labial (cutaneous) branches, and the deep perineal nerve supplies the muscles of the deep and superficial perineal pouches, the skin of the vestibule, and the mucosa of the inferior most part of the vagina. The inferior rectal nerve communicates with the posterior scrotal or labial and perineal nerves. The dorsal nerve of the penis or clitoris is the primary sensory nerve serving the male or female organ, especially the sensitive glans at the distal end.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 94
Correct
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The midwife asks for your advice about a 33 year old woman who she has just seen at her booking appointment. The patient had an uncomplicated pregnancy 10 years ago. This is her second pregnancy. There is no significant personal or family history. On examination the patients blood pressure is 120/75, BMI 32.5kg/m2. The midwife asks your advice on testing for gestational diabetes. What would you advise?
Your Answer: OGTT at 24-28 weeks
Explanation:Gestational diabetes (GDM) occurs in 2–9 per cent of all pregnancies. Screening for diabetes in pregnancy can be justify ed to diagnose previously unrecognized cases of pre-existing diabetes and to identify a group of women who are at risk of developing NIDDM later in life. No single screening test has been shown to be perfect in terms of high sensitivity and specific city for gestational diabetes. Urinary glucose is unreliable, and most screening tests now rely on blood glucose estimation, with an oral glucose tolerance test commonly used. The aim of glucose control is to keep fasting levels between 3.5 and 5.5 mmol/L and postprandial levels 7.1 mmol/L, with insulin treatment usually indicated outside these ranges.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 95
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old lady comes to your clinic for a refill on her oral contraceptive tablets (Microgynon 30®). You discover she has a blood pressure of 160/100mmHg during your examination, which is confirmed by a second reading 20 minutes later. Her husband and she are expecting a child in six months.
Which of the following recommendations is the best for her?Your Answer: She can continue the same OCP but should use methyldopa for hypertension
Correct Answer: She should stop OCP, use condoms for contraception and reassess her blood pressure in 3 months
Explanation:Overt hypertension, developing in about 5% of Pill users, and increases in blood pressure (but within normal limits) in many more is believed to be the result of changes in the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system, particularly a consistent and marked increase in the plasma renin substrate concentrations. The mechanisms for the hypertensive response are unclear since normal women may demonstrate marked changes in the renin system. A failure of the kidneys to fully suppress renal renin secretion could thus be an important predisposing factor.
These observations provide guidelines for the prescription of oral contraceptives. A baseline blood pressure measurement should be obtained, and blood pressure and weight should be followed at 2- or 3-month intervals during treatment. Oral contraceptive therapy should be contraindicated for individuals with a history of hypertension, renal disease, toxaemia, or fluid retention. A positive family history of hypertension, women for whom long-term therapy is indicated, and groups such as blacks, especially prone to hypertensive phenomena, are all relative contraindications for the Pill.
All other options are incorrect.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 96
Correct
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A 28-year-old presented with vaginal bleeding after a 6-week duration of amenorrhea. The bleeding was described to be heavier than ever compared with her previous periods. Upon interview, it was noted that her menstrual cycles was ranging from 4 to 6 weeks.
A urine pregnancy test was performed and the result was positive. Upon vaginal examination, it was noted that her cervical os is closed. An endovaginal ultrasound was performed and the results showed an endometrial thickness of 12mm and an empty uterus. There was also clear adnexa, and no fluid in the pouch of Douglas was seen. A cyst in the corpus luteum of the left ovary was also noted.
Which of the following is most likely the diagnosis of the patient?Your Answer: Complete abortion
Explanation:Complete abortion is defined as a ‘complete’ passage of all conception products.
The first day of the last menstrual period and findings on any prior ultrasounds should be determined to establish the gestational age and location of the pregnancy. An abdominal exam should be performed to assess for peritoneal signs that might indicate a ruptured ectopic pregnancy or extra-uterine extension of a septic abortion. Lastly, a pelvic exam is central to the evaluation of suspected miscarriage. It should include both speculum-facilitated visualization of the cervix and a bimanual examination to assess for cervical motion tenderness that may indicate a septic abortion or an adnexal mass that may herald ectopic pregnancy.
Early pregnancy loss takes many different forms. In missed abortion, there is asymptomatic or ‘missed’ death of the embryo or foetus without sufficient uterine contractions to push out the products of conception. In contrast, threatened abortion is characterized by symptomatic, ‘threatened’ expulsion of the products of conception, yet the cervical os remains closed, and the embryo or foetus remains viable.
Although there is a lack of consensus, complete abortion is often defined as the absence of a gestational sac on ultrasound with an endometrial stripe thickness of less than 30 mm.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 97
Correct
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Which cell type of the testis secrete inhibin?
Your Answer: Sertoli cells
Explanation:Summary points of the two key testicular cell types:
1. Sertoli Cells = Secrete Inhibin. Forms blood-testis barrier. Have FSH receptors
2. Leydig Cells = Secrete testosterone. Have LH receptors -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 98
Correct
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Polyhydramnios is associated with which one of the following conditions?
Your Answer: Tracheo-oesophageal fistula
Explanation:Oesophageal atresia/TE fistula may be suspected prenatally with ultrasound findings of polyhydramnios, absence of fluid in the stomach, small sized abdomen, or the presence of a dilated proximal oesophageal pouch. An underlying disease is only found in 17 % of cases in mild polyhydramnios. In contrast, an underlying disease is detected in 91 % of cases in moderate to severe polyhydramnios. The literature lists the following potential aetiologies: fetal malformations and genetic anomalies (8–45 %), maternal diabetes mellitus (5–26 %), multiple pregnancies (8–10 %), fetal anaemia (1–11 %), other causes, e.g. viral infections, Bartter syndrome, neuromuscular disorders, maternal hypercalcemia. Viral infections which can lead to polyhydramnios include parvovirus B19, rubella, and cytomegalovirus. Other infections, e.g. toxoplasmosis and syphilis, can also cause polyhydramnios.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 99
Incorrect
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A 24-year-old woman presented to the medical clinic for advice regarding pregnancy. Upon history taking and interview, it was noted that she had a history of valvular heart disease. She has been married to her boyfriend for the last 2 years and she now has plans for pregnancy.
Which of the following can lead to death during pregnancy, if present?Your Answer: Aortic stenosis
Correct Answer: Mitral stenosis
Explanation:Mitral stenosis is the most common cardiac condition affecting women during pregnancy and is poorly tolerated due to the increased intravascular volume, cardiac output and resting heart rate that predictably occur during pregnancy.
Young women may have asymptomatic mitral valve disease which becomes unmasked during the haemodynamic stress of pregnancy. Rheumatic mitral stenosis is the most common cardiac disease found in women during pregnancy. The typical increased volume and heart rate of pregnancy are not well tolerated in patients with more than mild stenosis. Maternal complications of atrial fibrillation and congestive heart failure can occur, and are increased in patients with poor functional class and severe pulmonary artery hypertension.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 100
Correct
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Where is fetal DHEA produced?
Your Answer: Adrenals
Explanation:Dehydroepiandrosterone (DHEA) is a steroid hormone synthesised from cholesterol (via Pregnenolone) by the adrenal glands. The foetus manufactures DHEA, which stimulates the placenta to form oestrogen, thus keeping a pregnancy going. Production of DHEA stops at birth, then begins again around age seven and peaks when a person is in their mid-20s
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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