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  • Question 1 - A 20-year-old woman, presented to her GP after swallowing a tiny, sharp bone...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old woman, presented to her GP after swallowing a tiny, sharp bone and is referred to an ENT. She explains that the bone feels stuck in her throat. A laryngoscopy is performed and it shows the bone is lodged in the piriform recess.

      Name the nerve at highest risk of damage by the bone?

      Your Answer: Inferior laryngeal nerve

      Correct Answer: Internal laryngeal nerve

      Explanation:

      The internal laryngeal nerve lies inferior to the piriform recess mucous membrane, placing it at high risk of irritation or damage by sharp foreign objects which become lodged in the recess.

      Any attempt to retrieve lodged foreign objects must be done careful as there is also a high risk of damage during this process.

      The other mentioned nerves are not at risk of being affected.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      34.4
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Prior to rapid sequence induction of anaesthesia, a man with a BMI of...

    Incorrect

    • Prior to rapid sequence induction of anaesthesia, a man with a BMI of 35 is pre-oxygenated.

      Which method of pre-oxygenation with a tight-fitting face mask is the most effective?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oxygen 6 litres per minute via a Mapleson A breathing system, with patient sitting up at 30 degrees breathing four vital capacity breaths

      Explanation:

      This patient is morbidly obese and has a high risk of developing hypoxia. This will be exacerbated by the patient’s supine position, as a result of:

      Functional residual capacity has been reduced (FRC)
      Increased closing capacity (CC)
      Reduced tidal volume due to increased airway resistance, decreased thoracic cage compliance, and decreased respiratory muscle strength and endurance
      Following induction of general anaesthesia, there is a tendency for atelectasis and increased O2 consumption due to the increased workload of respiratory muscles and the overall increase in metabolism.

      Pre-oxygenation with 100 percent oxygen via a tight-fitting mask can be done using either tidal volume breaths for three to five minutes or four vital capacity breaths in normal circumstances. In the head-up position, this patient is much more likely to be adequately pre-oxygenated, maximising the FRC and minimising the CC. In spontaneously breathing patients, the Mapleson A and circle systems are both effective, but the Mapleson D requires 160-200 ml/kg/minute to prevent rebreathing.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A young woman presented with a gynaecological related infection and was prescribed a...

    Incorrect

    • A young woman presented with a gynaecological related infection and was prescribed a cephalosporin. Which of the following is correct about the mechanism of action of this drug?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bacterial cell wall synthesis inhibition

      Explanation:

      Cephalosporin belongs to a family of beta-lactam antibiotics. All ?-lactam antibiotics interfere with the synthesis of the bacterial cell walls. The ?-lactam antibiotics inhibit the transpeptidases so that cross-linking (which maintains the close-knit structure of the cell wall) does not take place i.e. they inhibit bacterial cell wall formation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Which of the following statements is true regarding enantiomers? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is true regarding enantiomers?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Desflurane is a chiral compound

      Explanation:

      A compound that contains an asymmetric centre (chiral atom or chiral centre) and thus can occur in two non-superimposable mirror-image forms (enantiomers) are called chiral compounds.

      Desflurane, Halothane, and isoflurane are chiral compounds but Sevoflurane is not a chiral compound.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - The typical fluid compartments in a normal 70kg male are: ...

    Incorrect

    • The typical fluid compartments in a normal 70kg male are:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: intracellular>extracellular

      Explanation:

      Body fluid compartments in a 70kg male:
      Total volume=42L (60% body weight)
      Intracellular fluid compartment (ICF) =28L
      Extracellular fluid compartment (ECF) = 14L

      ECF comprises:
      Intravascular fluid (plasma) = 3L
      Extravascular fluid = 11L

      Extravascular fluids comprises:
      Interstitial fluid = 10.5L
      Transcellular fluid = 0.5L

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Which of the following statements is true regarding alfentanil? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is true regarding alfentanil?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Is less lipid soluble than fentanyl

      Explanation:

      Alfentanil is less lipid-soluble than fentanyl and thus is less permeable to the membrane making it less potent.

      Alfentanil is a phenylpiperidine opioid analgesic with rapid onset and shorter duration of action.

      Alfentanil has less volume of distribution due to its high plasma protein binding (92%)

      It can cause respiratory depression and can cause sedation

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A young male is undergoing inguinal hernia repair. During the procedure, the surgeons...

    Incorrect

    • A young male is undergoing inguinal hernia repair. During the procedure, the surgeons approach the inguinal canal and expose the superficial inguinal ring.

      Which structure forms the lateral edge of the superficial inguinal ring?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: External oblique aponeurosis

      Explanation:

      The superficial inguinal ring is an opening in the aponeurosis of the external oblique muscle, just above and lateral to the pubic crest.

      The superficial ring resembles a triangle more than a ring with the base lying on the pubic crest and its apex pointing towards the anterior superior iliac spine. The sides of the triangle are crura of the opening in the external oblique aponeurosis. The lateral crura of the triangle is attached to the pubic tubercle. The medial crura of the triangle is attached to the pubic crest.

      The external oblique aponeurosis forms the anterior wall of the inguinal canal and also the lateral edge of the superficial inguinal ring. The rectus abdominis lies posteromedially, and the transversalis posterior to this.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      0
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  • Question 8 - Given the following hormones, which of these will stimulate glycogenesis and gluconeogenesis? ...

    Incorrect

    • Given the following hormones, which of these will stimulate glycogenesis and gluconeogenesis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Corticosteroids

      Explanation:

      Insulin is the primary anabolic hormone that dominates regulation of metabolism during digestive phase. It promotes glucose uptake in skeletal myocytes and adipocytes, and other insulin-target cells. It promotes glycogenesis and inhibits gluconeogenesis.

      Glucagon is the primary counterregulatory hormone that increases blood glucose levels, primarily through its effects on liver glucose output.

      Similar to glucagon, growth hormone, catecholamines and corticosteroids are also counterregulatory factors released in response to decreased glucose concentrations. Growth hormone promotes glycogenolysis and inhibits gluconeogenesis; catecholamines stimulate glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis; while corticosteroids stimulate glycogenesis and gluconeogenesis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
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      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Which of the following is correct for gas pipeline pressure? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is correct for gas pipeline pressure?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Pipeline gases (in the UK this includes: Oxygen, Nitrous oxide, Medical air, and Entonox) are supplied at 4 bar (or 400 kPa), and compressed air is supplied at 7 bar for power tools.

      Carbon dioxide and nitric oxide are usually only supplied in cylinders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Which of the following drugs is safe to be used in porphyria? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following drugs is safe to be used in porphyria?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Porphyria is a group of disorders in which there is excess production and excess excretion of porphyrins and their precursors. They are usually genetic and are caused due to defects in the haem metabolic pathway. However, other factors like infection, pregnancy, mensuration, starvation may precipitate the attack.

      Sulphonamides, barbiturates (methohexitone and thiopental), and phenytoin are considered to be precipitants so are not safe to use
      Chloral hydrate is thought to be safe to use.
      Etomidate lacks proper studies and may be used with caution but it is generally advised not to use this drug especially if other alternatives are available.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 68-year-old woman is a known case of acute myeloid leukaemia and was...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old woman is a known case of acute myeloid leukaemia and was treated with chemotherapy as a child. She now presents in casualty, and you are called in to attend this patient as it is getting difficult to gain vascular access in her arms. The medical registrar asks you to site a cannula during the arrest call as intraosseous access is delayed. The intern wants to assist you in performing a venous cutdown of one of the veins in the patients ankle that passes anterior to the medial malleolus. Which vessel is this?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Long saphenous vein

      Explanation:

      Venous cutdown is a surgical procedure when venous access is difficult, and other procedures like the Seldinger technique, ultrasound-guided venous access, and intraosseous vascular access have failed.

      The vein of choice for venous cutdown is the long/great saphenous vein. It is part of the superficial venous collecting system of the lower extremity. It is the preferred vein as the long saphenous vein has anatomic consistency and is superficially located at the ankle anterior to the medial malleolus. It is also the most commonly used conduit for cardiovascular bypass operations.

      Origin- in the foot at the confluence of the dorsal vein of the first digit and the dorsal venous arch of the foot
      Route- runs ANTERIOR to the medial malleolus and travels up in the medial leg and upper thigh.
      Termination: in the femoral vein within the femoral triangle

      Regarding the other options:
      The short saphenous vein passes posterior to the lateral malleolus.
      The dorsalis pedis vein accompanies the dorsalis pedis artery on the anterior foot.
      The posterior tibial vein is part of the deep venous system accompanying the posterior tibial artery. There is no significant sural vein (there is a sural nerve), but the sural veins accompany the sural arteries and drain to the popliteal vein.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      0
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  • Question 12 - Which of the following statements is true regarding vecuronium? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is true regarding vecuronium?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Has a similar structure to rocuronium

      Explanation:

      Vecuronium is used as a part of general anaesthesia to provide skeletal muscle relaxation during surgery or mechanical ventilation. It is a monoquaternary aminosteroid (not quaternary) non- depolarising neuromuscular blocking drug.

      It has a structure similar to both rocuronium and pancuronium. The only difference is the substitution of specific groups on the steroid structure.

      Vecuronium is not associated with the release of norepinephrine from sympathetic nerve endings. However, Pancuronium has norepinephrine releasing the property.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - What vessel is NOT considered a major branch of the descending thoracic aorta?...

    Incorrect

    • What vessel is NOT considered a major branch of the descending thoracic aorta?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inferior thyroid artery

      Explanation:

      The descending thoracic aorta begins at the lower border of T4 near the midline as a continuation of the arch of the aorta. It descends and ends at the level of T12 at the aortic hiatus in the diaphragm, where it becomes the abdominal aorta.

      The aorta gives off the following branches: (descending order)

      1. Bronchial arteries
      2. Mediastinal arteries
      3. Oesophageal arteries
      4. Pericardial arteries
      5. Superior phrenic arteries

      The posterior intercostal arteries are branches that originate throughout the length of the posterior aspect of the descending thoracic aorta.

      The inferior thyroid artery is usually derived from the thyrocervical trunk, a branch of the subclavian artery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 28-year-old woman who is 36 weeks pregnant presented with significant proteinuria and...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman who is 36 weeks pregnant presented with significant proteinuria and severe headache. On examination, the blood pressure recorded was consistently raised at 190/110. Subsequently, she was admitted to the labour ward as a case of pre-eclampsia.

      A loading dose of IV magnesium sulphate 4g is given, followed by a 1g/hour infusion.

      The most suitable parameter to access magnesium toxicity is?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tendon reflexes

      Explanation:

      Magnesium is a very important cation due to its various physiological roles in the body. This includes:
      – playing the role of a cofactor in many enzymatic reactions
      – influencing hormone receptor binding
      – affecting calcium channels
      – impact on cardiac, vascular and neural cells

      Magnesium sulphate is used as first line in the treatment of eclampsia. Moreover, it has some preventive role in patients with severe pre-eclampsia. All the clinical effects of magnesium are in line with its plasma concentration.

      The first sign of magnesium toxicity in obstetric patients is the loss of patellar reflex, which is regularly monitored during treatment. The other options are all late signs of magnesium toxicity.

      Whenever there is a doubt, serum magnesium levels should always be monitored.

      The table below correlates the effects of increased levels of magnesium on the body:

      Plasma Concentration
      (mmol/L) Effect
      0.7-1.2 Normal
      4-8 Decreased deep tendon reflexes, nausea, headache, weakness, malaise, lethargy and facial flushing
      5-10 ECG changes (prolonged PR, prolonged QT, and widened QRS)
      10 Muscle weakness, loss of deep tendon reflexes, hypotension
      15 SA/AV nodal block, respiratory paralysis and depression
      20 Cardiac arrest

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
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      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Regarding gas laws, which one best explains the ability of a Bourdon gauge...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding gas laws, which one best explains the ability of a Bourdon gauge to measure temperature?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Charles's law

      Explanation:

      Charles’ Law states that there is a direct correlation between temperature and volume, where pressure and amount gas are constant. As temperature increases, volume also increases.

      Boyle’s Law states that Pressure is inversely proportional to volume, assuming that temperature and amount of gas are constant. As volume increases, pressure decreases. In Dalton’s law of partial pressure, the total pressure exerted by a mixture of gases is equal to the sum of the partial pressure of the gases in mixture.

      According to Henry’s Law for concentration of dissolved gases, at a constant temperature, the amount of a given gas that dissolves in a given type and volume of liquid is directly proportional to the partial pressure of that gas in equilibrium with that liquid. An equivalent way of stating the law is that the solubility of a gas in a liquid is directly proportional to the partial pressure of the gas above the liquid.

      Gay-Lussac’s Law states that the pressure of a given mass of gas varies directly with the absolute temperature of the gas, when the volume is kept constant. This law is very similar to Charles’ Law, with the only difference being the type of container. Whereas the container in a Charles’ Law experiment is flexible, it is rigid in a Gay-Lussac’s Law experiment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Physics
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  • Question 16 - The SI unit of energy is the joule. Energy can be kinetic, potential,...

    Incorrect

    • The SI unit of energy is the joule. Energy can be kinetic, potential, electrical or chemical energy.

      Which of these correlates with the most energy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Energy released when 1 kg fat is metabolised to CO2 and water (the energy content of fat is 37 kJ/g)

      Explanation:

      The derived unit of energy, work or amount of heat is joule (J). It is defined as the amount of energy expended if a force of one newton (N) is applied through a distance of one metre (N·m)

      J = 1 kg·m/s2·m = 1 kg·m2/s2 or 1 kg·m2·s-2

      Kinetic energy (KE) = ½ MV2

      An object with a mass of 1500 kg moving at 30 m/s correlates to 675 kJ:

      KE = ½ (1500) × (30)2 = 750 × 900 = 675 kJ

      Total energy released when 1 kg fat is metabolised to CO2 and water is 37 MJ. 1 g fat produces 37 kJ/g, therefore 1 kg fat produces 37,000 × 1000 = 37 MJ.

      Raising the temperature of 1 kg water from 0°C to 100°C correlates to 420 kJ. The amount of energy needed to change the temperature of 1 kg of the substance by 1°C is the specific heat capacity. We have 1 kg water therefore:

      4,200 J × 100 = 420,000 J = 420 kJ

      In order to calculate the energy involved in raising a 100 kg mass to a height of 1 km against gravity, we need to calculate the potential energy (PE) of the mass:

      PE = mass × height attained × acceleration due to gravity
      PE = 100 kg × 1000 m × 10 m/s2 = 1 MJ

      The heat generated when a direct current of 10 amps flows through a heating element for 10 seconds when the potential difference across the element is 1000 volts can be calculated by applying Joule’s law of heating:

      Work done (WD) = V (potential difference) × I (current) × t (time)
      WD = 10 × 10 × 1000 = 100 kJ

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      0
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  • Question 17 - The most sensitive indicator of mild obstructive airway disease is? ...

    Incorrect

    • The most sensitive indicator of mild obstructive airway disease is?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Forced expiratory flow (FEF25-75%)

      Explanation:

      The volume expired in the first second of maximal expiration after a maximal inspiration is known as forced expiratory volume in one second (FEV1), and it indicates how quickly full lungs can be emptied. It is the most commonly measured parameter for bronchoconstriction assessment.

      The maximum volume of air exhaled after a maximal inspiration is known as the ‘slow’ vital capacity (VC). VC is normally equal to FVC after a forced vital capacity (FVC) or slow vital capacity (VC) manoeuvre, unless there is an airflow obstruction, in which case VC is usually higher than FVC.

      The FEV1/FVC (Tiffeneau index) is a clinically useful index of airflow restriction that can be used to distinguish between restrictive and obstructive respiratory disorders.

      The average expired flow over the middle half (25-75 percent) of the FVC manoeuvre is the forced expiratory volume (FEF25-75). The airflow from the resistance bronchioles corresponds to this. It’s a more sensitive indicator of mild small airway narrowing than FEV1, but it’s difficult to tell if the VC (or FVC) is decreasing or increasing.

      The maximum expiratory flow rate achieved is called the peak expiratory flow (PEF), which is usually 8-14 L/second.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
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  • Question 18 - Which of the following would most likely explain a failed post-operative analgesia via...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following would most likely explain a failed post-operative analgesia via local anaesthesia of a neck abscess?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: pKA

      Explanation:

      For the local anaesthetic base to be stable in solution, it is formulated as a hydrochloride salt. As such, the molecules exist in a quaternary, water-soluble state at the time of injection. However, this form will not penetrate the neuron. The time for onset of local anaesthesia is therefore predicated on the proportion of molecules that convert to the tertiary, lipid-soluble structure when exposed to physiologic pH (7.4).

      The ionization constant (pKa) for the anaesthetic predicts the proportion of molecules that exists in each of these states. By definition, the pKa of a molecule represents the pH at which 50% of the molecules exist in the lipid-soluble tertiary form and 50% in the quaternary, water-soluble form. The pKa of all local anaesthetics is >7.4 (physiologic pH), and therefore a greater proportion the molecules exists in the quaternary, water-soluble form when injected into tissue having normal pH of 7.4.

      Furthermore, the acidic environment associated with inflamed tissues favours the quaternary, water-soluble configuration even further. Presumably, this accounts for difficulty when attempting to anesthetize inflamed or infected tissues; fewer molecules exist as tertiary lipid-soluble forms that can penetrate nerves.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
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  • Question 19 - Regarding the blood supply of the heart, are the following statements true? ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding the blood supply of the heart, are the following statements true?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The left coronary artery originates from the left posterior aortic sinus

      Explanation:

      The left coronary artery arises from the left posterior aortic sinus and divides into the circumflex arteries and the left anterior descending (LAD) artery.

      The right coronary artery arises from the anterior aortic sinus and supplies:
      – the right ventricle
      – part of the interventricular septum
      – the atrioventricular (A-V) node and
      – in 85% of cases the inferior part of the left ventricle.
      The right coronary artery provides a posterior interventricular branch and a marginal branch that anastomoses with the LAD at the apex.

      The oblique vein together with the small, middle and great cardiac veins drain into the coronary sinus, which drains into the right atrium.

      The anterior cardiac vein drains directly into the right atrium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
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  • Question 20 - A 19-year-old woman presents to the emergency department. She complains of symptoms indicative...

    Incorrect

    • A 19-year-old woman presents to the emergency department. She complains of symptoms indicative of an acute exacerbation of known 'brittle' asthma. On history, she reveals her asthma is normally controlled using inhalers and she has never had an acute exacerbation requiring hospitalisation.

      On her admission into the ICU, further examination and diagnostic investigations are conducted. Her readings are:

      Physical state: Alert, anxious and non-cyanotic.
      Respiratory rate: 30 breaths/min
      Pulse: 120 beats/min
      Blood pressure: 150/90 mmHg
      SPO2: 95% on air
      Auscultation: Quiet breath sounds at both lung bases

      What is the next most important step of investigation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Peak expiratory flow rate

      Explanation:

      Peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR) is the maximum speed of air flow generated during a single forced exhaled breath. It is most useful when expressed as a percentage of the best value obtained from the patient.

      Forced expiratory volume over 1 second (FEV1) is a lung parameter measured using spirometry. It is the amount of air forced out of the lung in one exhaled breath. It is a more accurate measure of lung obstructions as it doesn’t rely on effort like PEFR

      PEFR and FEV1 are usually similar, but become more different in asthmatic patients as airflow becomes increasingly obstructed.

      Acute severe asthma is most often diagnosed on history taking and examinations:

      Respiratory rate: >25 breaths/min
      Heart rate: >110 beats/min
      PEFR: 33 – 50% predicted (<200L/min)
      Patient state: Unable to complete a sentence in a single breath.

      A chest x-ray is not routinely required, and is only indicated in specific circumstances, which are:

      If a pneumomediastinum or pneumothorax is suspected
      Possible life threatening asthma
      Possible consolidation
      Unresponsive asthma
      If ventilation is required.

      An echocardiograph (ECG) is not necessary in this case

      Routine haematological and biochemical investigations are not urgent in this case as any abnormalities they detect will be secondary to the patient’s presentation.

      An arterial blood gas (ABG) will only be indicated if SPO2 was <92% or if patient presented with life threatening symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
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  • Question 21 - Which of the following statements best describes adenosine receptors? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements best describes adenosine receptors?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Adenosine receptors are expressed on the surface of most cells.
      Four subtypes are known to exist which are A1, A2A, A2B and A3.

      Of these, the A1 and A2 receptors are present peripherally and centrally. There are agonists at the A1 receptors which are antinociceptive, which reduce the sensitivity to a painful stimuli for the individual. There are also agonists at the A2 receptors which are algogenic and activation of these results in pain.

      The role of adenosine and other A1 receptor agonists is currently under investigation for use in acute and chronic pain states.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
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  • Question 22 - Where should you insert a needle to obtain a femoral artery sample to...

    Incorrect

    • Where should you insert a needle to obtain a femoral artery sample to be used for an arterial blood gas?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mid inguinal point

      Explanation:

      The needle should be inserted just below the skin at the mid inguinal point which is the surface indicator for the femoral artery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
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  • Question 23 - A chain smoker is interested in knowing how many years of his life...

    Incorrect

    • A chain smoker is interested in knowing how many years of his life would be lessened by smoking. You tell him explicitly that precise determination is impossible but you can tell him the proportion of people who died due to smoking. Which of the following epidemiological term is apt in this regard?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Attributable risk - the rate in the exposed group minus the rate in the unexposed group

      Explanation:

      Attributable proportion is the proportion of disease that is caused due to exposure. It refers to the proportion of disease that would be eradicated from a particular population if the disease rate was diminished to match that of the unexposed group.

      Risk ratio (relative risk) compares the probability of an event in an exposed (experimental) group to that of an event in the unexposed (control) group. Thus two are not the same.

      The attributable risk is the rate of a disease in an exposed group to that of a group that has not been exposed to it i.e. how many deaths did the exposure cause.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
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  • Question 24 - A 60-year-old man is having his central venous pressure (CVP) measured. A long...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man is having his central venous pressure (CVP) measured. A long venous line was inserted via the femoral vein into the right atrium for this purpose. The catheter is advanced through the IVC.

      Which level of the vertebra is the site where this vessel enters the thorax?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: T8

      Explanation:

      The diaphragm divides the thoracic cavity from the abdominal cavity. Structures penetrate the diaphragm at different vertebral levels through openings in the diaphragm to communicate between the two cavities. The diaphragm has openings at three vertebral levels:

      T8: vena cava, terminal branches of the right phrenic nerve
      T10: oesophagus, vagal trunks, left anterior phrenic vessels, oesophageal branches of the left gastric vessels
      T12: descending aorta, thoracic duct, azygous and hemi-azygous vein

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
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  • Question 25 - An aged patient that has been suffering from diabetes criticised the health minister...

    Incorrect

    • An aged patient that has been suffering from diabetes criticised the health minister for his comments on incidence and prevalence. The minister had said that they both are two separate entities. It can be therefore inferred that the patient thinks that prevalence and incidence are the same thing.

      Is he right?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: No. In chronic disease prevalence is greater than incidence.

      Explanation:

      Only on rare occasions has it been found that the prevalence and incidence were same. Incidence can be greater than prevalence in acute cases only. In case of chronic diseases prevalence is far greater than incidence. One needs to have a deeper understanding of both the concepts to understand the health literature.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
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  • Question 26 - Left ventricular afterload is mostly calculated from systemic vascular resistance.

    Which...

    Incorrect

    • Left ventricular afterload is mostly calculated from systemic vascular resistance.

      Which one of the following factors has most impact on systemic vascular resistance?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Small arterioles

      Explanation:

      Systemic vascular resistance (SVR), also known as total peripheral resistance (TPR), is the amount of force exerted on circulating blood by the vasculature of the body. Three factors determine the force: the length of the blood vessels in the body, the diameter of the vessels, and the viscosity of the blood within them. The most important factor that determines the systemic vascular resistance (SVR) is the tone of the small arterioles.

      These are otherwise known as resistance arterioles. Their diameter ranges between 100 and 450 µm. Smaller resistance vessels, less than 100 µm in diameter (pre-capillary arterioles), play a less significant role in determining SVR. They are subject to autoregulation.

      Any change in the viscosity of blood and therefore flow (such as due to a change in haematocrit) might also have a small effect on the measured vascular resistance.

      Changes of blood temperature can also affect blood rheology and therefore flow through resistance vessels.

      Systemic vascular resistance (SVR) is measured in dynes·s·cm-5

      It can be calculated from the following equation:

      SVR = (mean arterial pressure − mean right atrial pressure) × 80 cardiac output

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
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  • Question 27 - The following foetal anatomical features functionally closes earliest at birth? ...

    Incorrect

    • The following foetal anatomical features functionally closes earliest at birth?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Foramen ovale

      Explanation:

      Foramen ovale, ductus arteriosus (DA) and ductus venosus (DV) are the three important cardiac shunts in-utero.

      At birth the umbilical vessels constrict in response to stretch as they are clamped. Blood flow through the ductus venosus (DV) decreases but the DV closes passively in 3-10 days.

      As the pulmonary circulation is established, there is a drastic fall in pulmonary vascular resistance and an increased pulmonary blood flow. This increases flow and pressure in the Left Atrium that exceeds that of the right atrium. The difference in pressure usually leads to the IMMEDIATE closure of the foramen ovale.

      The DA is functionally closed within the first 36-hours of birth in a healthy full-term newborn. Subsequent endothelial and fibroblast proliferation leads to permanent anatomical closure within 2 – 3 weeks.

      Oxygenated blood from the placenta passes via the umbilical vein to the liver. Blood also bypasses the liver via the ductus venosus into the inferior vena cava (IVC). The Crista dividens is a tissue flap situated at the junction of the IVC and the right atrium (RA). This flap directs the oxygen-rich blood, along the posterior aspect of the IVC, through the foramen ovale into the left atrium (LA).

      The Eustachian valve also known as the valve of The IVC is a remnant of the crista dividens.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
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  • Question 28 - The structure most likely to be damaged during cannulation of the subclavian vein...

    Incorrect

    • The structure most likely to be damaged during cannulation of the subclavian vein is?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Subclavian artery

      Explanation:

      The subclavian artery lies behind and partly above the subclavian vein. 3-4% of the time, it can be inadvertently cannulated during cannulation of the subclavian vein

      Because of its anatomical position, putting pressure on the subclavian artery is impossible so arresting bleeding with pressure when it is punctured is not viable.

      One of the consequences of subclavian vein cannulation (1%) is pleural puncture leading to a pneumothorax. This is because the apical pleura is inferior and caudal to the subclavian vein.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
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  • Question 29 - International colour coding is used on medical gas cylinders. Other characteristics also play...

    Incorrect

    • International colour coding is used on medical gas cylinders. Other characteristics also play a role in determining the gas's identity within a cylinder.

      Which of the following options best describes a cylinder containing analgesics for obstetrics?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Blue body, blue/white shoulder, full cylinder; 13700 KPa, gas mixture, requires a dual stage pressure regulator

      Explanation:

      The body of the Entonox cylinder is usually blue (occasionally white), with blue and white shoulders. Entonox contains a 50:50 mixture of oxygen and nitrous oxide, with a full cylinder pressure of 13700 KPa (137 bar). The cylinder is equipped with a two-stage pressure regulator for safe operation.

      The cylinder body and shoulder of nitrous oxide are (French) blue.

      In today’s anaesthetic workstations, carbon dioxide cylinders are no longer used.

      The body of an oxygen cylinder is black, with a white shoulder.

      The white Heliox (21 percent oxygen and 79 percent helium) cylinder has a brown and white shoulder. The administration of this gas mixture, which is less dense than air, is used to reduce turbulence (stridor) of inspiratory flow in patients with upper airway obstruction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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  • Question 30 - A normal woman at term, not in labour, has her arterial blood gas...

    Incorrect

    • A normal woman at term, not in labour, has her arterial blood gas analysed.

      Which set of results is most likely her own?

      Option - pH - PaCO2 - HCO3 - PaO2
      A - 7.35 - 28 mmHg (3.73 kPa) - 27 mmol/L - 104 mmHg (13.8kPa)
      B - 7.43 - 32 mmHg (4.27 kPa) - 21 mmol/L - 104 mmHg (13.8kPa)
      C - 7.44 - 36 mmHg (4.8 kPa) - 27 mmol/L - 104 mmHg (13.8kPa)
      D - 7.45 - 40 mmHg (5.33 kPa) - 21 mmol/L - 104 mmHg (13.8kPa)
      E - 7.46 - 44 mmHg (5.87kPa) - 21 mmol/L - 104 mmHg (13.8kPa)

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: B

      Explanation:

      Due to an increased tidal volume with little change or slight increase in respiratory rate, Minute ventilation at term is increased by about 50%. Hypothalamic function are thought to influence by Progesterone, oestradiol and prostaglandins. This causes a mild compensated respiratory alkalosis.

      Maternal PaCO2 is usually decreased to about 32 mmHg (4.27 kPa) as a result of this increased alveolar ventilation at term . A compensatory decrease in serum bicarbonate from 27 to 21 mmol/L by renal excretion lessens the impact of maternal alkalosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
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  • Question 31 - A 5-year old male has ingested a peanut and has developed urticaria, vomiting...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year old male has ingested a peanut and has developed urticaria, vomiting and hypotension. The pathogenesis of this condition is derived from predominant cells of which cell line?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Common myeloid progenitor

      Explanation:

      A is correct. Common myeloid progenitor cells are involved in the anaphylaxis reaction.
      B is incorrect. The common lymphoid lineage gives rise to T-cells, B-cell and NK cells.
      C is incorrect as megakaryocytes give rise to platelets.
      D is incorrect – Neural crest cells give rise to various cells throughout the body, including melanocytes, enterochromaffin cells and Schwann cells. However, they do not give rise to mast cells.
      E is incorrect. Reticulocytes give rise to erythrocytes.

      This is a classic case of anaphylaxis. In this situation, IgE previously raised against antigens (in this case peanut antigen) bind to mast cells, and this causes them to degranulate.
      There is release of vasoactive substances like histamine into the blood, and this is responsible for the symptoms seen. Therefore, the main type of cells involved in the pathogenesis of the disease is mast cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
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  • Question 32 - The following are results of some pulmonary function tests:

    Measurement - Predicted result -...

    Incorrect

    • The following are results of some pulmonary function tests:

      Measurement - Predicted result - Test result
      Forced vital capacity (FVC) (btps) - 3.21 - 1.94
      Forced expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV1) (btps) - 2.77 - 1.82
      FEV1/FVC ratio % (btps) - 81.9 - 93.5
      Peak expiratory flow (PEF) (L/second) - 6.55 - 3.62
      Maximum voluntary ventilation (MVV) (L/minute) - 103 - 87.1

      Which statement applies to the results?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The patient has a moderate restrictive pulmonary defect

      Explanation:

      Severity of a reduction in restrictive defect (%FVC) or obstructive defect (%FEV1/FVC) predicted are classified as follows:

      Mild 70-80%
      Moderate 60-69%
      Moderately severe 50-59%
      Severe 35-49%
      Very severe <35% This patient has a %FVC predicted of 60.4% and this corresponds to a moderate restrictive deficit. %FEV1/FVC ratio is 93.5%. FEV1/FVC ratio 80% < predicted and VC < 80% = mixed picture. FEV1/FVC ratio 80% < predicted and VC > 80% = obstructive picture.

      FEV1/FVC ratio 80% > predicted and VC > 80% = normal picture.

      FEV1/FVC ratio 80% > predicted and VC < 80% predicted= restrictive picture. The integrity of the alveolar-capillary barrier is measured by carbon monoxide transfer factor (TLCO) and carbon monoxide transfer coefficient (KCO). These values are seen to be reduced in emphysema, interstitial lung diseases and in pulmonary vascular pathology. However, the KCO (as % predicted) is high in extrapulmonary restriction (pleural, chest wall and respiratory neuromuscular disease), and in loss of lung units provided the structure of the lung remaining is normal. The KCO distinguishes extrapulmonary (high KCO) causes of ‘restriction’ from intrapulmonary causes (low KCO).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
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  • Question 33 - Which of the following statement is true regarding the mechanism of action of...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statement is true regarding the mechanism of action of macrolides?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inhibits protein synthesis

      Explanation:

      The mechanism of action of macrolides is inhibition of bacterial protein synthesis by preventing peptidyltransferase from adding to the growing peptide which is attached to tRNA to the next amino acid.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 34 - Suppose a diabetic patient is to undergo an elective surgery under general anaesthesia,...

    Incorrect

    • Suppose a diabetic patient is to undergo an elective surgery under general anaesthesia, which of the following will most effectively prevent a hyperglycaemic stress response during the surgical procedure?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Spinal block to T4

      Explanation:

      Every surgical procedure is associated with a stress response which comprises a number of endocrine, metabolic, and immunological changes triggered by neuronal activation of the hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal axis. The overall metabolic effect of the stress response to surgery includes an increase in secretion of catabolic hormones, such as cortisol and catecholamine, and a decrease in secretion of anabolic hormones, such as insulin and testosterone. The increase in levels of catabolic hormones in plasma stimulates glucose production, and there is a relative lack of insulin together with impaired tissue insulin sensitivity and glucose utilization, which is called insulin resistance. Consequently, blood glucose concentrations will increase, even in the absence of pre-existing diabetes.

      A study compared the effects of spinal and general anaesthesia on changes in blood glucose concentrations during surgery in nondiabetic patients. Although mean blood glucose concentrations showed a significant proportional increase during surgery in both groups, this effect was much more significant with general anaesthesia than with spinal anaesthesia. These results indicate that spinal anaesthesia is more effective than general anaesthesia in attenuating the hyperglycaemic response to surgery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
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  • Question 35 - Regarding management of chronic pain, which of the following describes the mode of...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding management of chronic pain, which of the following describes the mode of action of gabapentin?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Modulation of voltage dependent calcium channels and NMDA receptor transmission

      Explanation:

      Gabapentin is an amino acid-like molecules that was originally synthesized as an analogue of GABA but is now known not to act through GABA mechanisms. It is used in the treatment of focal seizures and various nonepilepsy indications, such as neuropathic pain, restless legs syndrome, and anxiety disorders.

      Despite its close structural resemblance to GABA, gabapentin does not act through effects on GABA receptors or any other mechanism related to GABA-mediated neurotransmission. Rather gabapentin binds avidly to ?2?, a protein that serves as an auxiliary subunit of voltage-gated calcium channels. Moreover, it binds to NMDA receptor to modulate its transmission.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 36 - A 59-year-old smoker booked for an emergency laparotomy is in the anaesthetic room...

    Incorrect

    • A 59-year-old smoker booked for an emergency laparotomy is in the anaesthetic room prior to intubation. He is breathing room air and an arterial blood gas is obtained on insertion of an arterial cannula and sent for analysis.

      The following results are available:

      Haemoglobin 75 g/L
      PaO2 10.7 kPa
      PaCO2 5.2 kPa

      After intravenous induction, intubation is difficult and he rapidly begins to de-saturate.

      Which of the following is most effective in prolonging the oxygen de-saturation time?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pre-oxygenation with 100% O2 for three minutes

      Explanation:

      Breathing 100% oxygen for three minutes will provide the best reservoir of oxygen during apnoea by oxygenating the functional residual capacity (FRC).

      Sitting at 45 degrees might increase the FRC and improve oxygen reserve but not compared with 100% oxygenation.

      The following table compares the oxygen reserves in the body following pre-oxygenation with room air and 100% oxygen:

      Compartment Factors Room air (mL) 100% O2 (mL)
      Lung FAO2, FRC 630 2850
      Plasma PaO2, DF, PV 7 45
      Red blood cells Hb, TGV, SaO2 788 805
      Myoglobin – 200 200
      Interstitial space – 25 160

      FAO2 = alveolar fraction of oxygen.
      FRC = Functional residual capacity.
      PaO2 = partial pressure of oxygen dissolved in arterial blood
      DF = dissolved form.
      PV = plasma volume.
      TG = total globular volume .
      Hb = haemoglobin concentration.
      SaO2 = arterial oxygen saturation

      Stopping smoking one month prior to surgery will not be more effective than pre-oxygenation with 100% oxygen though it may reduce postoperative pulmonary complications. Note that both long term and short term abstinence reduces pulse rate and blood pressure thus reducing oxygen consumption and also reduce carboxyhaemoglobin levels.

      Blood transfusion will not make a big difference in oxygen reserve, particularly if a blood transfusion is administered within 12-24-hours before surgery.

      Heliox (79% helium and 21% oxygen) despite its lower viscosity is unlikely to be more effective than 100% oxygen .

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
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  • Question 37 - Which of the following may indicate an inadequate reversal of non-depolarising neuromuscular blockade?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following may indicate an inadequate reversal of non-depolarising neuromuscular blockade?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Post tetanic count of 5

      Explanation:

      A post-tetanic count of 5 denotes a deep neuromuscular blockade.

      Post tetanic count (PTC) is a well-established method of evaluating neuromuscular recovery during intense neuromuscular blockade. It cam ne used when there is no response to single twitch, tetanic, or train-of-four (TOF) stimulation to assess the intensity of neuromuscular blockade and to estimate the duration after which the first twitch in the TOF (T1) is likely to reappear.

      During a nondepolarizing block, the high frequency of tetanic stimulation will induce a transient increase in the amount of acetylcholine released from the presynaptic nerve ending, such that the intensity of subsequent muscle contractions will be increased (potentiated) briefly (period of post-tetanic potentiation, which may last 2 to 5 min. The neuromuscular response to stimulation during post tetanic potentiation can be used to gauge the depth of block when TOF stimulation otherwise evokes no responses. The number of post tetanic responses is inversely proportional to the depth of block: fewer post tetanic contractions denote a deeper block. When the post tetanic count (PTC) is 6 to 8, recovery to TOF count = 1 is likely imminent from an intermediate-duration blocking agent; when the PTC is 0, the depth of block is profound, and no additional NMBA should be administered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
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  • Question 38 - If a large volume of 0.9% N. saline is administered during resuscitation, it...

    Incorrect

    • If a large volume of 0.9% N. saline is administered during resuscitation, it is most likely to cause?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hyperchloremic metabolic acidosis

      Explanation:

      Crystalloids recommended for fluid resuscitation include 0.9% N saline and Hartmann’s solution(a physiological solution). 0.9% N. saline is not a physiological solution for the following reasons:

      Compared with the normal range of 98-102 mmol/L, its chloride concentration is high (154 mmol/L)
      It lacks calcium, magnesium, glucose and potassium
      It does not have bicarbonate or bicarbonate precursor buffer necessary to maintain plasma pH within normal limits

      There is a difference in the activity (concentration) of strong ions at a physiological pH. This imbalance can explain abnormalities of acid base balance. A normal strong ion difference (SID) is in the order of 40.

      SID = ([Na+] + [K+] + [Ca2+] + [Mg2+]) – ([Cl-] + [lactate] + [SO42-])

      This imbalance is made up with the weaker anions to maintain electrical neutrality.
      Administration of a large volume of 0.9% normal saline during resuscitation results in excessive chloride administration and this impairs renal bicarbonate reabsorption. The SID of 0.9% normal saline is 0 (Na+ = 154mmol/L and Cl- = 154mmol/L = 154 – 154 = 0). A large volume of NS will decrease the plasma SID causing an acidosis.

      Other causes of a hyperchloremic acidosis are:

      Diabetic ketoacidosis
      Total Parenteral Nutrition
      Overdose of ammonium chloride and hydrochloric acid
      Gastrointestinal losses of bicarbonate like in diarrhoea and pancreatic fistula
      Proximal renal tubular acidosis with failure of bicarbonate reabsorption

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
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  • Question 39 - A 41-year-old man, with symptomatic tracheal compression is scheduled for a thyroidectomy. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 41-year-old man, with symptomatic tracheal compression is scheduled for a thyroidectomy. He has previous personal history of hyperthyroidism, controlled by a carbimazole prescription.
      He has previously presented to the emergency department with dyspnoea and stridor, for which the surgery is indicated. Prior to his thyroidectomy, excessive bleeding is controlled for by ligation of the superior thyroid artery.
      The superior thyroid artery branches into the superior laryngeal artery which is closely related to a structure which upon injury will cause loss of sensation in the laryngeal mucosa.

      What is the name of this structure?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Internal laryngeal nerve

      Explanation:

      The internal laryngeal nerve provides sensory innervation to the laryngeal mucosa, and injury to it will cause loss of sensation.

      The internal laryngeal nerve lies inferior to the piriform recess mucous membrane, placing it at high risk of irritation or damage by objects which become lodged in the recess.

      The internal laryngeal artery branches off the superior laryngeal artery accompanied by the superior laryngeal nerve, inferior to the thyroid artery which branches off the superior thyroid artery close to its bifurcation from the external carotid artery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
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  • Question 40 - Obeying Boyle's law and Charles's law is a characteristic feature of an ideal...

    Incorrect

    • Obeying Boyle's law and Charles's law is a characteristic feature of an ideal gas.

      The gas which is most ideal out of the following options is?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Helium

      Explanation:

      The ideal gas equation makes the following assumptions:

      The gas particles have a small volume in comparison to the volume occupied by the gas.
      Between the gas particles, there are no forces of interaction.
      Individual gas particle collisions, as well as gas particle collisions with container walls, are elastic, meaning momentum is conserved.
      PV = nRT
      Where:

      P = pressure
      V = volume
      n = moles of gas
      T = temperature
      R = universal gas constant

      Helium is a monoatomic gas with a small helium atom. The attractive forces between helium atoms are small because the helium atom is spherical and has no dipole moment. Because helium atoms are spherical, collisions between them approach the ideal state of elasticity.

      Most real gases behave qualitatively like ideal gases at standard temperatures and pressures. When intermolecular forces and molecular size become important, the ideal gas model tends to fail at lower temperatures or higher pressures. It also fails to work with the majority of heavy gases.

      Helium, argon, neon, and xenon are noble or inert gases that behave the most like an ideal gas. Xenon is a noble gas with a much larger atomic size than helium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 41 - Which of the following describes the mechanism of action of erythromycin? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following describes the mechanism of action of erythromycin?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inhibit 50S subunit of ribosomes

      Explanation:

      Erythromycin binds to the 50s subunit of bacterial rRNA complex and inhibits protein synthesis.

      Gentamicin is a broad-spectrum antibiotic whose mechanism of action involves inhibition of protein synthesis by binding to 30s ribosomes. Its major adverse effect is nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity

      Aminoglycoside bind to 30s subunit of ribosome causing misreading of mRNA

      Tetracyclines inhibit protein synthesis through reversible binding to bacterial 30s ribosomal subunits, which prevent binding of new incoming amino acids (aminoacyl-tRNA) and thus interfere with peptide growth.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 42 - A 65-year-old man has been diagnosed with transitional cell carcinoma of the left...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man has been diagnosed with transitional cell carcinoma of the left kidney. He will be operated on, and as part of the surgery, the left renal artery has to be located and dissected.

      Which of the following vertebral levels gives rise to this artery?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: L1

      Explanation:

      The renal arteries branch from the abdominal aorta just below the origin of the superior mesenteric artery. The right renal artery is higher and longer than the left renal artery. The left renal artery passes behind the left renal vein, the body of the pancreas, and the splenic vein.

      The important landmarks of vessels arising from the abdominal aorta at different levels of vertebrae are:

      T10 – oesophageal opening in the diaphragm

      T12 – Coeliac trunk, aortic hiatus in the diaphragm

      L1 – Left renal artery

      L2 – Testicular or ovarian arteries

      L3 – Inferior mesenteric artery

      L4 – Bifurcation of the abdominal aorta

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
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  • Question 43 - A trail has analysed that a new screening test may increase the survival...

    Incorrect

    • A trail has analysed that a new screening test may increase the survival time of ovarian cancer patients. But analyst say that the apparent increase in the patients survival time is just because of earlier detection instead of actual improvement.

      What kind of bias is in this experiment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lead time bias

      Explanation:

      Observation bias occurs when the behaviour of an individual changes that results from their awareness of being observed.

      Recall bias introduced when participants in a study are systematically more or less likely to recall and relate information on exposure depending on their outcome status.

      Attrition bias is a systematic error caused by unequal loss of participants from a randomized controlled trial (RCT). In clinical trials, participants might dropout due to unsatisfactory treatment or efficacy, intolerable adverse events, or even death.

      Selection bias introduced when the individuals are not chosen randomly to take a part in the study. It usually occurs when the research decides who is going to be studied, they are not the representative of the population.

      Lead-time bias occurs when a disease is detected by a screening test at an earlier time point rather than it would have been diagnosed by its clinical appearance. In this bias, earlier detection improves the survival time in the intervention group.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
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  • Question 44 - During the design phase of a study, which among the given is aimed...

    Incorrect

    • During the design phase of a study, which among the given is aimed at addressing confounding factors?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Randomisation

      Explanation:

      Randomisation allows for performance of experimental trials in a random order. Using this method gives us control over the confounding variables that are not supposed to be held constant.

      For an instance, by employing randomisation we get to control biological differences among individual human beings during experimental trials.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
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  • Question 45 - The following statements concern the sensory innervation of the nasal passage: ...

    Incorrect

    • The following statements concern the sensory innervation of the nasal passage:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      The walls of the anterior nasal passage are supplied by the anterior ethmoidal branch of the nasociliary nerve, and the floor is innervated by the superior dental nerve (not the sphenopalatine nerves).

      The walls and floor of the posterior nasal passage are innervated by the long and short sphenopalatine nerves and the great palatine nerve (not the superior dental nerves and the nasociliary nerve).

      The vestibule is innervated by small branches of the infraorbital branch of the maxillary nerve.

      The nasopharynx is innervated by the sensory branches of the trigeminal nerve (not the great palatine nerve).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
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  • Question 46 - Out of the following, which is NOT true regarding the external carotid? ...

    Incorrect

    • Out of the following, which is NOT true regarding the external carotid?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It ends by bifurcating into the superficial temporal and ascending pharyngeal artery

      Explanation:

      The external carotid artery has eight important branches:
      Anterior surface:
      1. Superior thyroid artery (first branch)
      2. Lingual artery
      3. Facial artery
      Medial branch
      4. Ascending pharyngeal artery
      Posterior branches
      5. Occipital artery
      6. Posterior auricular artery
      Terminal branches
      7. Maxillary artery
      8. Superficial temporal artery

      The external carotid has eight branches, 3 from its anterior surface ; thyroid, lingual and facial. The pharyngeal artery is a medial branch. The posterior auricular and occipital are posterior branches.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
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  • Question 47 - What can you see within the tunica media of a blood vessel on...

    Incorrect

    • What can you see within the tunica media of a blood vessel on examination?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Smooth muscle

      Explanation:

      The blood vessel well is divided into 3 parts, namely:

      The tunica intima, which is the deepest layer. It contains endothelial cells separated by gap junctions

      The tunica media, primarily consisting of the involuntary smooth muscle fibres, laid out in spiral layers with elastic fibres and connective tissue.

      The tunica adventitia, which is the most superficial layer. It consists of the vasa vasorum, fibroblast and collagen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
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  • Question 48 - A 33-year-old woman known to be hypothyroid and taking 150 mcg l-thyroxine daily...

    Incorrect

    • A 33-year-old woman known to be hypothyroid and taking 150 mcg l-thyroxine daily is reviewed in the preoperative assessment clinic prior to a laparoscopic cholecystectomy.

      She has required three increases in her thyroid replacement therapy in the last six months.

      Her thyroid function tests are as follows:

      TSH 11 (normal range 0.4-4mU/L)
      T3 20 (normal range 9-25mU/L)
      T4 6.2 (normal range 3.5-7.8mU/L)

      What will explain this biochemical picture?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Poor compliance with medication

      Explanation:

      In patients with an intact hypothalamic-pituitary axis, serial TSH measurements are used to determine the adequacy of treatment with thyroid hormones . changes in TSH levels becoming apparent after approximately eight weeks of therapy with thyroid hormone replacement. Change in T3/T4 levels are seen before changes in TSH .

      In patients taking thyroid replacement therapy, the most frequent reason for persistent elevation of serum TSH is poor compliance. Patients who do not regularly take their L-thyroxine try and catch up just before a visit to a clinician for blood test.

      Tissue-level unresponsiveness to thyroid hormone is caused by mutation in the gene controlling a receptor for T3 and is rare.

      Reduced responsiveness of target tissues to thyroid hormone aka resistance to thyroid hormones (rTH) occurs when there is a mutation in the thyroid hormone receptor ? gene. It is a rare autosomal dominant inherited syndrome of reduced end-organ responsiveness to thyroid hormone and has two types:

      Generalised resistance (GrTH)
      Pituitary resistance (PrTH)

      Patients with rTH have normal or slightly elevated serum thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) level, elevated serum free thyroxine (FT4) and free triiodothyronine (FT3) concentrations.

      Drugs that increase metabolism of thyroxine include:

      Warfarin
      Rifampin
      Phenytoin
      Phenobarbital
      St John’s Wort
      Carbamazepine

      These drugs lower circulating thyroid hormones and would be associated with a raised TSH but low T3/T4.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
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  • Question 49 - A 70-year-old man presents with bilateral buttock claudication that spreads down the thigh...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man presents with bilateral buttock claudication that spreads down the thigh and erectile dysfunction in a vascular clinic.

      The left femoral pulse is not palpable on examination, and the right is weakly palpable. Leriche syndrome is diagnosed as the blood flow at the abdominal aortic bifurcation is blocked due to atherosclerosis. He is prepared for aortoiliac bypass surgery.

      Which vertebral level will you find the affected artery that requires bypassing?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: L4

      Explanation:

      The bifurcation of the abdominal aorta into common iliac arteries occurs at the level of L4. The bifurcation is a common site for atherosclerotic plaques as it is an area of high turbulence.

      Leriche Syndrome is an aortoiliac occlusive disease and affects the distal abdominal aorta, iliac arteries, and femoropopliteal vessels. It has a triad of symptoms:
      1. Claudication (cramping lower extremities pain that is reproducible by exercise)
      2. Impotence (reduced penile arterial flow)
      3. Absent/weak femoral pulses (hallmark)

      T12 – aorta enters the diaphragm with the thoracic duct and azygous veins

      L2 – testicular or ovarian arteries branch off the aorta

      L3 – inferior mesenteric artery

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
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  • Question 50 - The following results were obtained In a new drug trial:

    Improved Not improved
    Placebo...

    Incorrect

    • The following results were obtained In a new drug trial:

      Improved Not improved
      Placebo group 36 26
      Treatment group 44 16

      Regarding the statistical analysis or interpretation of the trial, One of these is true

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The data could be evaluated using the chi square test

      Explanation:

      This data is in a 2 × 2 contingency table so a chi square test can be used. There is a special chi squared formula that gives a value that can be looked up in a table giving the p value.

      Since we are comparing proportions not means, the Student’s t test CANNOT be used.

      There is no linear regression to plot so Pearson’s co-efficient cannot be calculated.

      Nothing is so obvious that no statistical analysis is needed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
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  • Question 51 - A 26-year-old doctor has recently been diagnosed with lung cancer. He would like...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old doctor has recently been diagnosed with lung cancer. He would like to find out his survival time for the condition.

      Which statistical method is used to predict survival rate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Kaplan-Meier estimator

      Explanation:

      The Weibull distribution are used to describe various types of observed failures of the components. it is used in reliability and survival analysis.

      Regression Analysis is used to measure the relationship between among two or more variable. It determines the effect of independent variables on the dependent variables.

      Student t-test is one of the most commonly used method to test the hypothesis. It determines the significant difference between the means of two different groups.

      A time series is a collection of observations of well-defined data obtained at regular interval of time.

      Kaplan-Meier estimator is used to estimate the survival function from lifetime data. It can be derived from maximum likelihood estimation of hazard function. It is most likely used to measure the fraction of patient’s life for a certain amount of time after treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
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  • Question 52 - From the following electromagnetic waves, which one has the shortest wavelength? ...

    Incorrect

    • From the following electromagnetic waves, which one has the shortest wavelength?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: X rays

      Explanation:

      Electromagnetic waves are categorized according to their frequency or equivalently according to their wavelength. Visible light makes up a small part of the full electromagnetic spectrum.

      Electromagnetic waves with shorter wavelengths and higher frequencies include ultraviolet light, X-rays, and gamma rays. Electromagnetic waves with longer wavelengths and lower frequencies include infrared light, microwaves, and radio and televisions waves.

      Different electromagnetic waves according to their wavelength from shorter to longer are X-rays, ultraviolet radiations, visible light, infrared radiation, radio waves. X-ray among electromagnetic waves has the shortest wavelength and higher frequency with wavelengths ranging from 10*-8 to 10* -12 and corresponding frequencies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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  • Question 53 - It is safe to perform a central neuraxial block without an increased risk...

    Incorrect

    • It is safe to perform a central neuraxial block without an increased risk of developing a vertebral canal haematoma in?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A patient on clopidogrel 7 days after last dose

      Explanation:

      The incidence of vertebral canal haematoma following neuraxial blockade was reported (third National Audit Project (NAP3)) as 0.85 per 100 000 (95% CI 0-1.8 per 100 000). The incidence following neuraxial blockade in coagulopathic patients is likely to be higher hence coagulopathy remains a relative contraindication for conducting a spinal or epidural. When indicate, risk and benefits are weighed, and it is only performed by experienced personnel in this case.

      Acceptable time to perform a block after the last dose of rivaroxaban in a patient with a creatinine clearance of greater than 30mL/minute is 18 hours.

      Acceptable time to perform a block after the last dose of subcutaneous LMWH as prophylaxis is 12 hours.

      Acceptable time to perform a block after the last dose of subcutaneous UFH as prophylaxis is 4 hours.

      Acceptable time to perform a block after the last dose of thrombolytic therapy (streptokinase or alteplase) is 10 days.

      Clopidogrel should be stopped 7 days prior to surgery, particularly if a central neuraxial procedure is considered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
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  • Question 54 - The physiological properties of a fast glycolytic (fast twitch) muscle fibre are characterised...

    Incorrect

    • The physiological properties of a fast glycolytic (fast twitch) muscle fibre are characterised by which of the following?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Synthesis of ATP is brought about by anaerobic respiration

      Explanation:

      Muscle fibre myosin ATPase histochemistry is used to divide the biochemical classification into two groups: type 1 and type II.

      Type I (slow twitch) muscle fibres rely on aerobic glycolytic and aerobic oxidative metabolism to function. They have a lot of mitochondria, a good blood supply, a lot of myoglobin, and they don’t get tired easily.

      Because they contain more motor units, Type II (fast twitch) muscle fibres are thicker. They are more easily fatigued, but produce powerful bursts. The capillary networks and mitochondria are less dense in these white muscle fibres than in type I fibres. They have a low myoglobin content as well.

      Muscle fibres of type II (fast twitch) are divided into three types:

      Type IIa – aerobic/oxidative metabolism is used.
      Type IIb – anaerobic/glycolytic metabolism is used by these fibres.

      When compared to skeletal muscle, cardiac and smooth muscle twitch at a slower rate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 55 - A 23-year-old man, has just undergone surgery under general anaesthesia. He has experienced...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old man, has just undergone surgery under general anaesthesia. He has experienced a severe reaction to the anaesthetic agent resulting in malignant hyperthermia (MH) for which he has been referred for treatment.

      What investigation can be conducted to determine a patient's susceptibility to malignant hyperthermia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: In vitro muscle contraction test using caffeine

      Explanation:

      Malignant hyperthermia (MH) is a autosomal dominant inherited medical condition which predisposes affected individuals to a clinical syndrome of hypermetabolism which involves abnormal ryanodine receptors in skeletal muscle causing a deregulation of calcium in muscle.

      It is a life threatening condition requiring immediate medical intervention. It often lies dormant until triggered in susceptible individuals mostly by volatile inhaled anaesthetic agents and succinylcholine which is a muscle relaxant.

      The signs and symptoms of MH are related to this hypermetabolism, which includes an increase in carbon dioxide production, metabolic and respiratory acidosis, accelerated oxygen consumption, heat production, activation of the sympathetic nervous system, hyperkalaemia, disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), and multiple organ dysfunction and failure.

      Early signs of MH to look out for in patients includes an uptick in end-tidal carbon dioxide (even with increasing minute ventilation), tachycardia, muscle rigidity, tachypnoea, and hyperkalaemia. Later signs include fever, myoglobinuria, and multiple organ failure.

      In vitro muscle contracture test (IVCT) is the standard for determining individual susceptibility to MH. It is conducted by measuring the force of muscle contraction after exposing the patient’s muscle sample to halothane and caffeine., the sample is normally taken from the vastus medialis or lateralis under regional anaesthesia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
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  • Question 56 - A 66-year-old man with a haemorrhagic stroke is admitted to the medical admissions...

    Incorrect

    • A 66-year-old man with a haemorrhagic stroke is admitted to the medical admissions unit.

      He has been taking warfarin for a long time because of atrial fibrillation. His INR at the time of admission was 9.1.

      Which of the following treatment options is the most effective in managing his condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prothrombin complex concentrate

      Explanation:

      Haemorrhage, including intracranial bleeding, is a common and potentially fatal side effect of warfarin therapy, and reversing anticoagulation quickly and completely can save lives. When complete and immediate correction of the coagulation defect is required in orally anticoagulated patients with life-threatening haemorrhage, clotting factor concentrates are the only viable option.

      For rapid reversal of vitamin K anticoagulants, prothrombin complex concentrates (PCC) are recommended. They contain the vitamin K-dependent clotting factors II, VII, IX, and X and are derived from human plasma. They can be used as an adjunctive therapy in patients with major bleeding because they normalise vitamin K dependent clotting factors and restore haemostasis.

      The most common treatments are fresh frozen plasma (FFP) and vitamin K. The efficacy of this approach is questioned due to the variable content of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors in FFP and the effects of dilution. Significant intravascular volume challenge, as well as the possibility of rare complications like transfusion-associated lung injury or blood-borne infection, are all potential issues.

      To avoid anaphylactic reactions, vitamin K should be given as a slow intravenous infusion over 30 minutes. Regardless of the route of administration, the reversal of INRs with vitamin K can take up to 24 hours to reach its maximum effect.

      Reversal of anticoagulation in patients with warfarin-associated intracranial haemorrhage may be considered with factor VIIa (recombinant), but its use is controversial. There are concerns about thromboembolic events following treatment, as well as questions about assessing efficacy in changes in the INR. If the drug is to be administered, patients should be screened for an increased risk of thrombosis before the drug is given.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
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  • Question 57 - Following a near drowning accident, a 5-year-old child is admitted to the emergency...

    Incorrect

    • Following a near drowning accident, a 5-year-old child is admitted to the emergency department and advanced paediatric life support is started.

      What is the child's approximate weight, according to the preferred formulae of the Resuscitation Council (UK), the European Resuscitation Council, and the Royal College of Anaesthetists?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 20-25kg

      Explanation:

      For estimating a child’s weight, the Resuscitation Council (UK) and European Resuscitation Council teach the following formula:

      Weight = (age + 4) × 2

      The weight of the child will be around 20 kg.

      This formula is used in the Primary FRCA exam by the Royal College of Anaesthetists.

      In ‘developed’ countries, the traditional ‘APLS formula’ for estimating weight in children based on age (wt in kg = [age+4] x 2) is acknowledged as underestimating weight by 33.4 percent on average, with the degree of underestimation increasing with increasing age.

      However, more recently, the APLS formula ‘Weight=3(age)+7’ has been found to provide a mean underestimate of only 6.9%. This formula is applicable to children aged 1 to 13 years.

      The estimated weight based on age using this formula is 25 kg.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
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  • Question 58 - A study of blood pressure measurements is being performed in patients with chronic...

    Incorrect

    • A study of blood pressure measurements is being performed in patients with chronic kidney disease.

      Considering that the results are normally distributed, what percentage of values lie within two standard deviations of the mean blood pressure reading?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 95.40%

      Explanation:

      Normal distribution, also called Gaussian distribution, the most common distribution function for independent, randomly generated variables, and describes the spread for many biological and clinical measurements.

      Properties of the Normal distribution

      symmetrical i.e. Mean = mode = median

      68.3% of values lie within 1 SD of the mean

      95.4% of values lie within 2 SD of the mean

      99.7% of values lie within 3 SD of the mean

      The empirical rule, or the 68-95-99.7 rule, tells you where most of the values lie in a normal distribution: Around 68% of values are within 1 standard deviation of the mean.

      Around 95% of values are within 2 standard deviations of the mean. Around 99.7% of values are within 3 standard deviations of the mean.
      the standard deviation (SD) is a measure of how much dispersion exists from the mean.

      SD = square root (variance)

      The empirical rule, or the 68-95-99.7 rule states where most of the values lie in a normal distribution. Around 68% of values fall within 1 S.D of the mean, about 95% within 2 S.D of the mean, and about 99.7% of values within 3 S.D of the mean. Therefore, 95.4% is the most reasonable answer if results are normally distributed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
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  • Question 59 - Which structure does NOT lie in the posterior triangle of the neck? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which structure does NOT lie in the posterior triangle of the neck?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Internal jugular vein

      Explanation:

      The sternocleidomastoid muscle divides the neck into anterior and posterior triangles on both sides of the neck.

      The posterior triangle has the following boundaries:
      anteriorly – sternocleidomastoid muscle
      posteriorly – trapezius
      roof – investing layer of deep cervical fascia
      floor – prevertebral fascia overlying splenius capitis, levator scapulae, and the scalene muscles

      The contents of the posterior triangle are:
      1. fat
      2. lymph nodes (level V)
      3. accessory nerve
      4. cutaneous branches of the cervical plexus (A major branch of this plexus is the phrenic nerve, which arises from the anterior divisions of spinal nerves C3-C5)
      5. inferior belly of omohyoid
      6. branches of the thyrocervical trunk (transverse cervical and suprascapular arteries)
      7. third part of the subclavian artery
      8. external jugular vein

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
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  • Question 60 - A 5-year-old child is scheduled for squint surgery requiring general anaesthesia.

    To begin, she...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old child is scheduled for squint surgery requiring general anaesthesia.

      To begin, she is given sevoflurane for the inhalation induction, then intravenous access is established along with the insertion of a supraglottic airway. Anaesthesia is maintained with fentanyl 1 mcg/kg, with an air/oxygen/sevoflurane mix with spontaneous respirations.

      Once the surgery begins, her pulse rate drastically reduces from 120 beats/min to 8 beats/min.

      What is the most appropriate next step for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tell surgeon to stop surgical retraction

      Explanation:

      This sudden change in pulse rate is due to the oculocardiac reflex. It is a >20% reduction in pulse rate as a result of placing pressure directly on the eyeball. The reflex arc has an afferent and efferent arm:

      The afferent (sensory) arm: The trigeminal nerve (CN V)

      The efferent arm: The vagus nerve (CN X)

      The most appropriate action is to ask the surgeon to stop retraction of the extraocular muscles, Assess for hypoxia, and give 100% oxygen if indicated.

      Atropine of glycopyrrolate can be administered to counteract the reflex, and also prevent any further vagal reflexes.

      Administration of fentanyl may increase patient’s risk of bradycardia and sinus arrest in this case.

      Adrenaline is not indicated here as other treatment options will provide sufficient relief from arrhythmia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
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  • Question 61 - Which of the statements below best describe the total cerebral flow (CBF) in...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the statements below best describe the total cerebral flow (CBF) in an adult?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Accounts for 15% of the cardiac output

      Explanation:

      While the brain only weighs 3% of the body weight, 15% of the cardiac output goes towards the brain.

      Between mean arterial pressures (MAP) of 60-130 mmHg, autoregulation of cerebral blood flow (CBF) occurs. Exceeding this, the CBF is maintained at a constant level. This is controlled mainly by the PaCO2 level, and the autonomic nervous system has minimal role.

      Beyond these limits, the CBF is directly proportional to the MAP, not the systolic blood pressure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
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  • Question 62 - The Medical Admissions unit receives a 71-year-old woman. She has type 2 diabetes,...

    Incorrect

    • The Medical Admissions unit receives a 71-year-old woman. She has type 2 diabetes, which she manages with diet, but she has been feeling ill for the past 48 hours.

      Her pulse rate is 110 beats per minute, her blood pressure is 90/50 mmHg, and she is clinically dehydrated. Her respiratory rate is 20 breaths per minute, and chest auscultation reveals no focal signs.

      The following are the lab results:

      Glucose 27.4 mmol/L (3.5-5.5)
      Ketones 2.5 mmol/L (<0.1)
      Urinary glucose is zero (dipstick) with ketones

      A random blood glucose of 15.3 mmol/L was measured during a visit to the diabetic clinic one month prior to admission, according to her notes, and a urinary dipstick registered a high glucose and ketones++.

      The discrepancy between plasma and urinary glucose measurements is best explained by which of the following physiological mechanisms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The glomerular filtration rate is abnormally low

      Explanation:

      The glucose molecule enters the Bowman’s capsule freely and becomes part of the filtrate.

      All glucose is reabsorbed in the proximal convoluted tubule when blood glucose concentrations are below a certain threshold (approximately 11 mmol/L) (PCT). Active transportation makes this possible. In the proximal tubular cells, sodium/glucose cotransporters (SGLT1 and SGLT2) are the proteins responsible.

      Glucose does not normally appear in the urine below the renal threshold.

      The renal glucose threshold is not set in stone and is affected by a variety of factors, including GFR, TmG, and the quantity of splay.

      The different absorptive and filtering capacities of individual nephrons cause splay, which is the rounding of a glucose reabsorption curve.

      The SGLT proteins have a high affinity for glucose, but not an infinite affinity. As a result, some glucose may escape reabsorption before the TmG. A decrease in renal threshold may be caused by an increase in splay.

      Because the filtered glucose load is reduced and the PCT can reabsorb all of the filtered glucose despite hyperglycaemia, a low GFR causes an increase in TmG. In contrast, lowering the TmG lowers the threshold because the tubules’ ability to reabsorb glucose is reduced.

      A reduction in GFR caused by severe dehydration and reduced perfusion pressure is the most obvious cause of the discrepancy between plasma and urinary glucose in this scenario.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
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  • Question 63 - A 62-year-old woman, presents to emergency department with an ischaemic left colon.

    Multiple...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old woman, presents to emergency department with an ischaemic left colon.

      Multiple arteries arise from the aorta at the level of the L3 vertebrae, which is most likely to be involved in this pathology?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inferior mesenteric artery

      Explanation:

      The inferior mesenteric artery arises from the abdominal aorta at the level of the L3 vertebrae and supplies blood to the final third of the transverse colon, the descending colon, the sigmoid colon and the uppermost part of the rectum.

      It is the artery most likely to affect the left colon.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
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  • Question 64 - The main action of atrial natriuretic peptide is: ...

    Incorrect

    • The main action of atrial natriuretic peptide is:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Vasodilation

      Explanation:

      Atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) is secreted mainly from myocytes of right atrium and ventricle in response to increased blood volume.
      It is secreted by both the right and left atria (right >> left).

      It is a 28 amino acid peptide hormone, which acts via cGMP
      degraded by endopeptidases.

      It serves to promote the excretion of sodium, lowers blood pressure, and antagonise the actions of angiotensin II and aldosterone.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
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  • Question 65 - What is the name of the space between the vocal cords? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the name of the space between the vocal cords?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Rima glottidis

      Explanation:

      The rima glottidis is a narrow, triangle-shaped opening between the true vocal cords.

      The vocal folds (true vocal cords) control sound production. The apex of each fold projects medially into the laryngeal cavity.

      Each vocal fold includes these vocal ligaments:

      Vocalis muscle (most medial part of thyroarytenoid muscle)

      The glottis is composed of the vocal folds, processes and rima glottidis.

      The rima glottidis is the narrowest potential site within the larynx, as the vocal cords may be completely opposed, forming a complete barrier.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
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  • Question 66 - Regarding chest tube insertion, which of the following measurements is utilized when selecting...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding chest tube insertion, which of the following measurements is utilized when selecting a chest tube drain?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: External circumference (mm)

      Explanation:

      Selection of a chest drain will depend on the external circumference.

      A cannula, whether intravenous or intra-arterial, are classified according to standard wire gauge, which refers to the number of wires that can fit into the same hole. If a cannula is labelled 22G, then 22 wires will fit into the standard size hole.

      A more popular measurement than SWG nowadays is cross sectional area.

      When the concern for selecting equipment is the rate of flow, then it is important to consider the diameter and the radius of a parallel sided tube. These, however, are not routinely considered when comparing sizes of a cannula.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
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  • Question 67 - Patient’s having disease (Test Positive: 60, Test Negative:40)


    Patient’s not having...

    Incorrect

    • Patient’s having disease (Test Positive: 60, Test Negative:40)


      Patient’s not having the disease (Test Positive:20, Test Negative: 80)

      This is a result of a new tumour marker blood test, that was performed on 200 women for breast cancer screening. The director of the screening programme ask you to evaluate the observations and inform them the specificity of this new test.

      Which one of the following figure you will relay to the programme director?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 80%

      Explanation:

      The positive predictive value is the ratio of patients truly diagnosed as positive to all those who had positive test results. In this case, this is 60/(60+20)=75%.

      The negative predictive value is the ratio of patients truly diagnosed as negative to all those who had negative test results. In this case, this is 80/(80+40)=67%.

      The sensitivity is the ratio of patients with the disease who test positive i.e. true positive patients to the total number of people with the disease. In this case, this is 60/(60+40)=60%.

      The specificity is the ratio of people who don’t have the disease who test negative i.e. true negatives to the total number of people without the disease. In this case, this is 80/(20+80)=80%.

      70% is not the result of any screening measurements

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
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  • Question 68 - The plateau phase of the myocardial action potential is as a result of:...

    Incorrect

    • The plateau phase of the myocardial action potential is as a result of:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Slow influx of calcium

      Explanation:

      Cardiac conduction

      Phase 0 – Rapid depolarization. Opening of fast sodium channels with large influx of sodium

      Phase 1 – Rapid partial depolarization. Opening of potassium channels and efflux of potassium ions. Sodium channels close and influx of sodium ions stop

      Phase 2 – Plateau phase with large influx of calcium ions. Offsets action of potassium channels. The absolute refractory period

      Phase 3 – Repolarization due to potassium efflux after calcium channels close. Relative refractory period

      Phase 4 – Repolarization continues as sodium/potassium pump restores the ionic gradient by pumping out 3 sodium ions in exchange for 2 potassium ions coming into the cell. Relative refractory period

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
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  • Question 69 - Which structure has the greatest amount of musculi pectinati? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which structure has the greatest amount of musculi pectinati?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Right atrium

      Explanation:

      The pectinate muscles (musculi pectinati) are parallel muscular ridges that extend anterolaterally on the right atrial walls. The most prominent pectinate muscle, which forms the bridge of the sulcus terminalis internally, is the taenia sagittalis (second crest or septum spurium).

      In the left atrium, the pectinate muscles are confined to the inner surface of its atrial appendage. They tend to be fewer and smaller than in the right atrium. This is due to the embryological origin of the auricles, which are the true atria.

      Pectinate muscles of the atria are different from the trabeculae carneae, which are found on the inner walls of both ventricles.

      The interior of the right atrium has five distinct features:
      1. Sinus venarum – smooth, thin-walled posterior part of the right atrium where the SVC, IVC, and coronary sinus open
      2. Musculi pectinati – a rough anterior wall of pectinate muscles
      3. Tricuspid valve orifice – the opening through which the right atrium empties blood into the right ventricle
      4. Crista terminalis – separates the rough (musculi pectinati) from the smooth (sinus venarum) internally
      5. Fossa ovalis – a thumbprint size depression in the interatrial septum, which is a remnant of the oval foramen and its valve in the foetus

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
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  • Question 70 - Which of the following causes the right-sided shift of the oxygen haemoglobin dissociation...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following causes the right-sided shift of the oxygen haemoglobin dissociation curve?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chronic iron deficiency anaemia

      Explanation:

      With respect to oxygen transport in cells, almost all oxygen is transported within erythrocytes. There is limited solubility and only 1% is carried as solution. Thus, the amount of oxygen transported depends upon haemoglobin concentration and its degree of saturation.

      Haemoglobin is a globular protein composed of 4 subunits. Haem is made up of a protoporphyrin ring surrounding an iron atom in its ferrous state. The iron can form two additional bonds – one is with oxygen and the other with a polypeptide chain.
      There are two alpha and two beta subunits to this polypeptide chain in an adult and together these form globin. Globin cannot bind oxygen but can bind to CO2 and hydrogen ions.
      The beta chains are able to bind to 2,3 diphosphoglycerate. The oxygenation of haemoglobin is a reversible reaction. The molecular shape of haemoglobin is such that binding of one oxygen molecule facilitates the binding of subsequent molecules.

      The oxygen dissociation curve (ODC) describes the relationship between the percentage of saturated haemoglobin and partial pressure of oxygen in the blood.
      Of note, it is not affected by haemoglobin concentration.

      Chronic anaemia causes 2, 3 DPG levels to increase, hence shifting the curve to the right

      Haldane effect – Causes the ODC to shift to the left. For a given oxygen tension there is increased saturation of Hb with oxygen i.e. Decreased oxygen delivery to tissues.
      This can be caused by:
      -HbF, methaemoglobin, carboxyhaemoglobin
      -low [H+] (alkali)
      -low pCO2
      -ow 2,3-DPG
      -ow temperature

      Bohr effect – causes the ODC to shifts to the right = for given oxygen tension there is reduced saturation of Hb with oxygen i.e. Enhanced oxygen delivery to tissues. This can be caused by:
      – raised [H+] (acidic)
      – raised pCO2
      -raised 2,3-DPG
      -raised temperature

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
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  • Question 71 - Using a negative feedback loop, Haem production is controlled by which of these...

    Incorrect

    • Using a negative feedback loop, Haem production is controlled by which of these enzymes?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: ALA synthetase

      Explanation:

      Heme a exists in cytochrome a and heme c in cytochrome c; they are both involved in the process of oxidative phosphorylation. 5′-Aminolevulinic acid synthase (ALA-S) is the regulated enzyme for heme synthesis in the liver and erythroid cells.

      There are two forms of ALA Synthase, ALAS1, and ALAS2.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
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  • Question 72 - A 39-year old man came to the Out-Patient department for symptoms of gastroesophageal...

    Incorrect

    • A 39-year old man came to the Out-Patient department for symptoms of gastroesophageal reflux disease. Medical history revealed he is on anti-epileptic medication Phenytoin. His plasma phenytoin levels are maintained between 10-12 mcg/mL (Therapeutic range: 10-20 mcg/mL). He is given a H2 antagonist receptor agent (Cimetidine) for his GERD symptoms.

      Upon follow-up, his plasma phenytoin levels increased to 38 mcg/mL.

      Regarding metabolism and elimination, which of the following best explains the pharmacokinetics of phenytoin at higher plasma levels?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Plasma concentration plotted against time is linear

      Explanation:

      Drug elimination is the termination of drug action, and may involve metabolism into inactive state and excretion out of the body. Duration of drug action is determined by the dose administered and the rate of elimination following the last dose.

      There are two types of elimination: first-order and zero-order elimination.

      In first-order elimination, the rate of elimination is proportionate to the concentration; the concentration decreases exponentially over time. It observes the characteristic half-life elimination, where the concentration decreases by 50% for every half-life.

      In zero-order elimination, the rate of elimination is constant regardless of concentration; the concentration decreases linearly over time. A constant amount of the drug being excreted over time, and it occurs when drugs have saturated their elimination mechanisms.

      Since phenytoin is observed in elevated levels, the elimination mechanisms for it has been saturated and, thus, will have to undergo zero-order elimination.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 73 - Which structure passes through the foramen magnum? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which structure passes through the foramen magnum?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Spinal roots of the accessory nerve

      Explanation:

      The structures that pass through the foramen magnum are:

      Meningeal lymphatics
      Spinal cord
      Spinal meninges
      Sympathetic plexus of vertebral arteries
      Vertebral arteries
      Vertebral artery spinal branches
      The spinal roots of the accessory nerve.

      The jugular foramen contains the vagus nerve, the accessory nerve and glossopharyngeal nerve.

      The vertebral veins does not pass into the skull.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
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  • Question 74 - What is the most sensitive method of detecting an intra-operative air embolism? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most sensitive method of detecting an intra-operative air embolism?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Transoesophageal echocardiogram

      Explanation:

      An intra-operative air embolism occurs when air becomes trapped in the blood vessels during surgery.

      A transoesophageal echocardiography (OE) uses invasive echocardiography to monitor the integrity and performance of the heart. It is the gold standard as it provides real-time imaging of the heart to enable early diagnosis and treatment.

      Precordial doppler ultrasonography can also be used to detect into-operative air emboli. It is non-invasive and more practical, but is less sensitive.

      A change in end-tidal CO2 could be indicative of and increase in physiological dead-space, but could also be indicative of any processes that reduces the excretion or increases the production of CO2, making it non-specific.

      A transoesophageal stethoscope can be used to listen for the classic mill-wheel murmur produced by a large air embolus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
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  • Question 75 - A 27-year-old woman arrives at the emergency room after intentionally ingesting 2 g...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old woman arrives at the emergency room after intentionally ingesting 2 g of amitriptyline.

      A Glasgow coma score of 6 was discovered, as well as a pulse rate of 140 beats per minute and a blood pressure of 80/50 mmHg.

      Which of the following ECG changes is most likely to indicate the onset of life-threatening arrhythmias?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prolongation of the QRS complex

      Explanation:

      Arrhythmias and/or hypotension are the most common causes of death from tricyclic antidepressant (TCA) overdose.

      The quinidine-like actions of tricyclic antidepressants on cardiac tissues are primarily responsible for their toxicity. Conduction through the His-Purkinje system and the myocardium slows as phase 0 depolarisation of the action potential slows. QRS prolongation and atrioventricular block are caused by slowed impulse conduction, which also contributes to ventricular arrhythmias and hypotension.

      Arrhythmias can also be caused by abnormal repolarization, impaired automaticity, cholinergic blockade, and inhibition of neuronal catecholamine uptake, among other things.

      Acidaemia, hypotension, and hyperthermia can all exacerbate toxicity.

      The anticholinergic effects of tricyclic antidepressants, as well as the blockade of neuronal catecholamine reuptake, cause sinus tachycardia. Sinus tachycardia is usually well tolerated and does not require treatment. It can be difficult to tell the difference between sinus tachycardia and ventricular tachycardia with QRS prolongation.

      A QRS duration of more than 100 milliseconds indicates a higher risk of arrhythmia and should be treated with systemic sodium bicarbonate.

      The tricyclic is dissociated from myocardial sodium channels by serum alkalinization, and the extracellular sodium load improves sodium channel function.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
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  • Question 76 - A 50-year-old male is planned for elective parotidectomy for pleomorphic adenoma. The surgeon...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old male is planned for elective parotidectomy for pleomorphic adenoma. The surgeon intends to use a nerve integrity monitor thus avoiding neuromuscular blockade. Which of the following nerves is liable to injury in parotidectomy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Facial nerve

      Explanation:

      Parotidectomy is basically an anatomical dissection. Identification of the facial nerve trunk is essential during parotid gland surgery because facial nerve injury is the most daunting potential complication of parotid gland surgery owing to the close relation between the gland and the extratemporal course of the facial nerve. After exiting the stylomastoid foramen, the facial nerve enters the substance of the parotid gland and then gives off five terminal branches:
      From superior to inferior, these are the:
      – Temporal branch supplying the extrinsic ear muscles, occipitofrontalis and orbicularis oculi
      – Zygomatic branch supplying orbicularis oculi
      – Buccal branch supplying buccinator and the lip muscles
      – Mandibular branch supplying the muscles of the lower lip and chin
      – Cervical branch supplying platysma.

      There are two approaches to identify the facial nerve trunk during parotidectomy—conventional antegrade dissection of the facial nerve, and retrograde dissection. Numerous soft tissue and bony landmarks have been proposed to assist the surgeon in the early identification of this nerve. Most commonly used anatomical landmarks to identify facial nerve trunk are stylomastoid foramen, tympanomastoid suture (TMS), posterior belly of digastric (PBD), tragal pointer (TP), mastoid process and peripheral branches of the facial nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
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  • Question 77 - A balanced general anaesthetic including a muscle relaxant is administered at induction. It...

    Incorrect

    • A balanced general anaesthetic including a muscle relaxant is administered at induction. It is observed that the train-of-four count is two after two hours, with no further doses of the muscle relaxant.

      What is most likely reason for this?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mivacurium with plasma cholinesterase deficiency

      Explanation:

      Mivacurium is metabolised primarily by plasma cholinesterase at an In vitro rate of about 70% that of succinylcholine. Mivacurium is contraindicated in patients with genetic and acquired plasma cholinesterase deficiencies.

      The clearance of atracurium is by Hoffman degradation and ester hydrolysis in the plasma and is independent of both hepatic and renal function.

      Rocuronium is eliminated primarily by the liver after metabolises to a less active metabolite, 17-desacetyl-rocuronium. Its duration of action is not affected much by renal impairment.

      Vecuronium undergoes hepatic metabolism into 3-desacetyl-vecuronium which has 50-80% the activity of the parent drug. It undergoes biliary (40%) and renal excretion (30%). The aminoglycoside antibiotics possess additional neuromuscular blocking activity. The potency of gentamicin > streptomycin > amikacin. Calcium can be used to reverse the muscle weakness produced by gentamicin but not neostigmine. When vecuronium and gentamycin are given together the effect on neuromuscular blockade is synergistic.

      Significant residual neuromuscular block 2 hours after the administration of these drugs is unlikely In this scenario.

      Any recovery from neuromuscular blockade with suxamethonium in a patient with deficiency of plasma cholinesterase demonstrate four twitches on a train of four count.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 78 - Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding the internal jugular vein?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding the internal jugular vein?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The terminal part of the thoracic duct crosses anterior to it to insert into the right subclavian vein

      Explanation:

      The internal jugular vein is found on both sides of the neck and collects blood from the brain, superficial regions of the face, and neck. It drains into the right atrium.

      It is a continuation of the sigmoid sinus and begins in the posterior cranial fossa and exits the skull via the jugular foramen.
      It runs within the carotid sheath as it descends in the neck and is accompanied by the vagus nerve posteriorly and the common carotid anteromedially.

      The hypoglossal nerve emerges from the hypoglossal canal medial to the internal carotid artery and the internal jugular vein and ninth, tenth, and eleventh cranial nerves.

      The internal jugular vein crosses anterior to the thoracic duct on the left side.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
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  • Question 79 - Which of the following facts about IgE is true? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following facts about IgE is true?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Is increased in the serum of atopic individuals

      Explanation:

      Immunoglobulin E (IgE) are an antibody subtype produced by the immune system. They are the least abundant type and function in parasitic infections and allergy responses.

      The most predominant type of immunoglobulin is IgG. It is able to be transmitted across the placenta to provide immunity to the foetus.

      IgE is involved in the type I hypersensitivity reaction as it stimulates mast cells to release histamine. It has no role in type 2 hypersensitivity.

      Its concentration in the serum is normally the least abundant, however certain reactions cause a rise in its concentration, such as atopy, but not in acute asthma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
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  • Question 80 - An 18-year old female was brought into the emergency room because of active...

    Incorrect

    • An 18-year old female was brought into the emergency room because of active seizures. The informant reported that it has been more than 5 minutes since the patient started seizing. The attending physician gave an initial diagnosis of status epilepticus.

      According to the paramedics who brought in the patient, 10 mg of diazepam was given rectally. Upon physical examination, she was normotensive at 120/80 mmHg; tachycardic at 138 beats per minute; tachypnoeic at 24 breaths per minute; and well-saturated at 99% on high flow oxygen. Her random blood glucose level was normal at 7.0 mmol/L.

      Given this situation and an initial diagnosis of status epilepticus, what would be the best initial anti-epileptic drug to administer to the patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lorazepam

      Explanation:

      Lorazepam is an intermediate-acting benzodiazepine that binds to the GABA-A receptor subunit to increase the frequency of chloride channel opening and facilitate membrane hyperpolarization. It is the preferred treatment for status epilepticus, although Diazepam can also be used as an alternative.

      Lorazepam has a longer duration of action than Diazepam, and binds with greater affinity to the GABA-A receptor subunit.

      Phenobarbital is a barbiturate that acts on the GABA-A receptor site to increase the duration of chloride channel opening. Barbiturates, particularly phenobarbital, is considered the drug of choice for seizures in infants.

      Phenytoin is a sodium-channel blocker that is given for generalized tonic-clonic seizures, partial seizures, and status epilepticus. Phenytoin is preferred in prolonged therapy for status epilepticus because it is less sedating.

      Propofol or thiopentone is preferred when airway protection is required.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 81 - Which of the following statements is true regarding prazosin? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is true regarding prazosin?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Is a selective alpha 1 adrenergic receptor antagonist.

      Explanation:

      Selective ?1 -Blockers like prazosin, terazosin, doxazosin, and alfuzosin cause a decrease in blood pressure with lesser tachycardia than nonselective blockers (due to lack of ?2 blocking action.

      The major adverse effect of these drugs is postural hypotension. It is seen with the first few doses or on-dose escalation (First dose effect).

      Its half-life is approximately three hours.

      It is excreted primarily through bile and faeces (not through kidneys)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 82 - Which of the following is true regarding Noradrenaline (Norepinephrine)? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is true regarding Noradrenaline (Norepinephrine)?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sympathomimetic effects work mainly through ?1 but also ? receptors

      Explanation:

      Noradrenaline acts as a sympathomimetic effect via alpha as well as a beta receptor. However, they have weak ?2 action.

      Natural catecholamines are Adrenaline, Noradrenaline, and Dopamine

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 83 - After consuming 12 g of paracetamol, a 37-year-old man is admitted to the...

    Incorrect

    • After consuming 12 g of paracetamol, a 37-year-old man is admitted to the medical admissions unit. He has hepatocellular necrosis in both clinical and biochemical aspects.

      The most significant reason for paracetamol causing toxicity is?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Glutathione is rapidly exhausted

      Explanation:

      Phase I and phase II metabolism are used by the liver to break down paracetamol.

      1st Phase:

      Prostaglandin synthetase and cytochrome P450 (CYP1A2, CYP2E2, CYP3A4 and CYP2D6) to N-acetyl-p-benzoquinoneimine (NAPQI) and N-acetylbenzo-semiquinoneimine. NAPQI is a toxic metabolite that binds to the sulfhydryl groups of cellular proteins in hepatocytes, making it toxic. This can result in centrilobular necrosis.

      Glutathione and glutathione transferases prevent NAPQI from binding to hepatocytes at low paracetamol doses by preferentially binding to these toxic metabolites. The cysteine and mercapturic acid conjugates are then excreted in the urine. Depletion of glutathione occurs at higher doses of paracetamol, resulting in high levels of NAPQI and the risk of hepatocellular damage. Hepatotoxicity would not be an issue if the body’s glutathione stores were sufficient.

      N-acetylcysteine is a precursor for glutathione synthesis and is the drug of choice for the treatment of paracetamol overdose.

      Phase II:

      Conjugation with glucuronic acid to paracetamol glucuronide is the most common method of metabolism and excretion, accounting for 60% of renally excreted metabolites. Paracetamol sulphate (35%), unchanged paracetamol (5%), and mercapturic acid are among the other renally excreted metabolites (3 percent ). The capacity of conjugation pathways is limited. The capacity of the sulphate conjugation pathway is lower than that of the glucuronidation pathway.

      Because of the low pH in the stomach, paracetamol absorption is minimal (pKa value is 9.5). Paracetamol is absorbed quickly and completely in the alkaline environment of the small intestine. Oral bioavailability is extremely high, approaching 100%.

      As a result, measuring paracetamol levels in plasma after an injury is important. Peak plasma concentrations are reached after 30-60 minutes, with a volume of distribution of 0.95 L/kg. It binds to plasma proteins at a rate of 10% to 25%.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 84 - A pharmaceutical company has developed a new drug considered a breakthrough in treating...

    Incorrect

    • A pharmaceutical company has developed a new drug considered a breakthrough in treating ovarian cancer.

      The efficacy of this drug can be assessed by which phase of a clinical trial?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Phase IIa

      Explanation:

      Phase IIa studies are usually pilot studies designed to demonstrate clinical efficacy or biological activity (‘proof of concept’ studies) whereas phase IIb studies determine the optimal dose at which the drug shows biological activity with minimal side-effects (definite dose-finding studies).

      Phase III and Phase IV studies are performed on larger set of participants (usually hundreds to thousands) when safety and efficacy have been established.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
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  • Question 85 - An 85-year old female is being investigated and treated for pancytopenia of unknown...

    Incorrect

    • An 85-year old female is being investigated and treated for pancytopenia of unknown origin. Her most recent blood test is shown below which shows that he has a low platelet count.

      Hb-102 g/l
      WBC - 2.9* 109/l
      Platelets - 7 * 109/l

      Which of the following normally stimulates platelet production?


      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Thrombopoietin

      Explanation:

      Interleukin-4 is a cytokine which acts to regulate the responses of B and T cells.

      Erythropoietin is responsible for the signal that initiated red blood cell production.

      Granulocyte-colony stimulating factor stimulates the bone marrow to produce granulocytes.

      Interleukin-5 is a cytokine that stimulates the proliferation and activation of eosinophils.

      Thrombopoietin is the primary signal responsible for megakaryocyte and thus platelet production.
      Platelets are also called thrombocytes. They, like red blood cells, are also derived from myeloid stem cells. The process involves a megakaryocyte developing from a common myeloid progenitor cell. A megakaryocyte is a large cell with a multilobulated nucleus, this grows to become massive where it will then break up to form platelets.

      Immune cells are generated from haematopoietic stem cells in bone marrow. They generate two main types of progenitors, myeloid and lymphoid progenitor cells, from which all immune cells are derived.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
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  • Question 86 - The Control of Substances Hazardous to Health (COSHH) regulations recommend air supply rates...

    Incorrect

    • The Control of Substances Hazardous to Health (COSHH) regulations recommend air supply rates to specific environments. Which of the following statements is true?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Preparation rooms receive a volume of 0.1 m3 of air per second

      Explanation:

      Control of Substances Hazardous to Health (COSHH) was established by government under the Health and Safety at Work act in 1989. Their employers work on identification and management of those substances that are dangerous to health. The implications for anaesthetists include gas scavenging, equipment contamination and environmental safety. Adequate ventilation is required in areas where anaesthetic gases are present. The minimum air supply that is legally required in each specific area is: Operating theatres: 0.65 m3/second. Anaesthetic rooms: 0.15 m3/s. Preparation rooms: 0.1 m3/s. Recovery rooms need 15 air changes per hour

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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  • Question 87 - A 52-year-old man was referred for investigation of malignant hyperthermia following general anaesthesia...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year-old man was referred for investigation of malignant hyperthermia following general anaesthesia for a micro laryngoscopy and biopsy for a suspected laryngeal tumour. The patient was found to be a heavy smoker and the only presenting symptom is a hoarse voice.

      A sample of muscle (vastus lateralis) needs to be taken to establish a diagnosis of malignant hyperthermia in this patient.

      Which one of the following is the best anaesthetic technique for muscle biopsy in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Spinal anaesthesia

      Explanation:

      According to European Group protocol for the investigation of MH susceptibility, muscle biopsy should be performed on quadriceps muscle (either vastus medialis or vastus lateralis), using regional anaesthesia (avoiding local anaesthetic infiltration) or general anaesthetic techniques. Local anaesthetic solution within muscle fibres may affect in vitro contraction testing.

      Desflurane is a weak triggering anaesthetic of malignant hyperthermia so is avoided in MH susceptible patients. This includes all volatile inhalational agents and suxamethonium.

      General anaesthetic with the volatile free anaesthetic machine may be considered but spinal anaesthesia is a better choice due to the possibility of airway problems.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
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  • Question 88 - The prospects of setting up a health facility to help patients with ischaemic...

    Incorrect

    • The prospects of setting up a health facility to help patients with ischaemic heart disease in a remote area are under consideration and you have been asked to look into it.

      What's the crucial factor in finding out the amount of resources needed to go ahead with the idea?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prevalence

      Explanation:

      Both incidence and prevalence are indicators of the disease frequency. While incidence tells us about the number of cases reported per population in a provided time period, prevalence is the factor you should be vigilant about as it tells us about the total number of cases that have been reported in a population at a particular point of time.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
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  • Question 89 - A 55-year-old businesswoman presents to the emergency department complaining of shortness of breath...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old businesswoman presents to the emergency department complaining of shortness of breath and pleuritic chest pain. Her work requires her to travel internationally frequently. The consultant makes a diagnosis and treats her.

      Now, the consultant recommends placing a filter that will prevent future incidents. A needle is placed into the femoral vein and passed up into the abdomen to insert the filter.

      What is true regarding the organ where the filter is placed for this patient's condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It is located posteriorly to the peritoneum

      Explanation:

      The patient likely suffers from pulmonary embolism due to her history of frequent international travels. A filter is placed in the inferior vena cava to decrease the risk of future episodes of pulmonary embolism. The IVC filter is a small, wiry device that can catch blood clots and stop them from going into the heart and lungs. Your IVC is a major vessel that brings deoxygenated blood from the lower body to the heart, from where it is pumped into the lungs.

      The filter is placed via a thin catheter inserted into the femoral vein in the groin. The catheter is gently moved up into your IVC, and a filter is introduced.

      The IVC is a retroperitoneal organ.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
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  • Question 90 - Buffers are solutions that resist a change in pH when protons are produced...

    Incorrect

    • Buffers are solutions that resist a change in pH when protons are produced or consumed. They consist of weak acids and their conjugate bases. Buffers are also present in our bodies, and they are known as physiologic buffers.

      Which of these is the most effective buffer in the blood?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bicarbonate

      Explanation:

      The first line of defence against acid-base disorder is buffering. The blood mainly utilizes bicarbonate ion (HCO3-) for its buffering capacity (total of 53%, plasma and red blood cells combined).

      Strong acids, when acted upon by a buffer, release H+, which then combines to HCO3- and forms carbonic acid (H2CO3). When acted upon by the enzyme carbonic anhydrase, H2CO3 dissociates into H2O and CO.

      The rest are the percentage of utilization for the following buffers:
      Haemoglobin (by RBCs) – 35%
      Plasma proteins (by plasma) – 7%
      Organic phosphates (by RBCs) – 3%
      Inorganic phosphates (by plasma) – 2%

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 91 - Dinamap is an automated blood pressure monitoring device. Which of these statements best...

    Incorrect

    • Dinamap is an automated blood pressure monitoring device. Which of these statements best fit its properties?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The cuff should be positioned at the same level as the heart

      Explanation:

      Dinamap continuously measures the systolic, diastolic and mean arterial pressure along with pulse rate, thereby providing a continuous monitoring of the blood pressure using the osscillitonometric principle of measurement.

      The device loses accuracy towards the extremes of BP and is more accurate with systolic compared with diastolic pressure. In arrhythmias such as AF, the devices are also inaccurate due to the major fluctuations associated with the individual pulse pressure variations.

      The manual BP device is still the gold standard for BP measurement and monitoring.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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  • Question 92 - Which among the following is summed up by F statistic? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which among the following is summed up by F statistic?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: ANOVA

      Explanation:

      ANOVA is based upon within group variance (i.e. the variance of the mean of a sample) and between group variance (i.e. the variance between means of different samples). The test works by finding out the ratio of the two variances mentioned above. (Commonly known as F statistic).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
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  • Question 93 - Which is the most appropriate statement describing the function of flowmeters? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which is the most appropriate statement describing the function of flowmeters?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Constant pressure, variable orifice - Heidbrink flowmeters

      Explanation:

      There are different models of flowmeters determined by the applied pressure and its orifice. For instance, the watersight flowmeter functions through applying variable pressure, and it has a variable orifice. In contrast, the bubble flowmeter is operated using a constant pressure and orifice. Flowmeters such as rotameters, Heidbrink and Peak have a constant pressure but variable orifice. On the other hand, flowmeters including a simple pressure gauge, water depression, and pneumotachograph have a constant orifice but variable pressure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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  • Question 94 - A 40-year-old woman was diagnosed with hyperparathyroidism. She is undergoing a parathyroidectomy, and...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old woman was diagnosed with hyperparathyroidism. She is undergoing a parathyroidectomy, and during the surgery, the inferior parathyroid gland is found to be enlarged. There is a vessel adjacent to this gland on its lateral side.

      What is this vessel most likely to be?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Common carotid artery

      Explanation:

      There are four parathyroid glands that lie on the medial half of the posterior surface of each lobe of the thyroid gland, inside its sheath. There are two superior and two inferior parathyroid glands.

      The common carotid artery is a lateral relation of the inferior parathyroid.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
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  • Question 95 - In the Advanced Life Support algorithm, intravenous epinephrine 1mg every three to five...

    Incorrect

    • In the Advanced Life Support algorithm, intravenous epinephrine 1mg every three to five minutes is indicated during in-hospital cardiac arrest due to ventricular fibrillation (VF) following three DC shocks.

      Which of the following indicates the most important reason for using epinephrine?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Preferential distribution of blood to the coronary and cerebral circulation

      Explanation:

      Epinephrine is used for the treatment of cardiac arrest because it causes vasoconstriction via the alpha-adrenergic (?1) receptor. This vasoconstriction increases cerebral and coronary blood flow by increasing mean arterial, aortic diastolic, and cerebral pressures. Furthermore, epinephrine is also a?1 and ?2 adrenoreceptor agonist which shows inotrope, chronotrope, and bronchodilator effects.
      – Adrenaline is also used to prolong the duration of action and decrease the systemic toxicity of local anaesthetics.
      – Preferred route of adrenaline in patients with cardiac arrest is i.v. followed by intra-osseous and endotracheal

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
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  • Question 96 - Concerning the pathway of endothelial nitric oxide (eNO), one of the following best...

    Incorrect

    • Concerning the pathway of endothelial nitric oxide (eNO), one of the following best describes it.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Stimulation of guanylyl cyclase, increases cGMP concentration leading to vasodilation

      Explanation:

      Nitric oxide (NO), an endothelial-derived relaxant factor (EDRF), is a powerful vasodilator. Its cell-signalling molecule is calcium-dependant and generated endogenous by nitric oxide synthetases from the precursor L-arginine, oxygen and NADPH. Three main isoforms have been isolated and they are inducible (iNO), neuronal (nNO) and endothelial (eNO).

      Endothelial NO stimulates intracellular guanylyl cyclase which generates cyclic GMP (cGMP) from its action on guanylyl tri-phosphate (GTP). The cGMP goes on to activate protein kinase G (PKG). PKG phosphorylates cell membrane proteins that regulate intracellular calcium concentrations and level of calcium sensitisation.

      Smooth muscle vasodilatation results from:

      1. Light chain phosphatase activation.
      2. Inhibition of calcium entry into the cell (reducing Ca2+ concentrations) and
      3. Hyperpolarisation of cells by activation of H+ channels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
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  • Question 97 - The leading cause of perioperative anaphylaxis per hundred thousand administrations is? ...

    Incorrect

    • The leading cause of perioperative anaphylaxis per hundred thousand administrations is?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Teicoplanin

      Explanation:

      The leading cause of perioperative anaphylaxis in the UK currently are antibiotics. They account for 46% of cases with identified causative agents. Co-amoxiclav and teicoplanin between them account for 89% of antibiotic-induced perioperative anaphylaxis

      Neuromuscular blocking agents (NMBAs) are the second leading cause and account for 33% of case.

      Chlorhexidine (0.78/100,000 administrations)
      Co-amoxiclav (8.7/100,000 administrations)Suxamethonium (11.1/100,000 administrations)
      Patent blue dye (14.6/100,000 administrations)
      Teicoplanin (16.4/100,000 administrations)

      Anaphylaxis to chlorhexidine periop poses a significant risk in the healthcare setting because of its widespread use with some being fatal.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 98 - A 30 year old male was the victim of an electrocution injury and...

    Incorrect

    • A 30 year old male was the victim of an electrocution injury and has been treated. The option that best describes the current levels for this injury is:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tonic muscle contraction - 15 mA

      Explanation:

      There are different effects of electrocution and these can be shown in the table below.

      Current Effect
      1 mA Tingling
      5 mA Pain
      15 mA Tonic muscle contraction
      50 mA Respiratory arrest
      100 mA Ventricular fibrillation and cardiac arrest

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
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  • Question 99 - Which of the following nerves is responsible for carrying taste sensation from the...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following nerves is responsible for carrying taste sensation from the given part of the tongue?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anterior two thirds of tongue - facial nerve

      Explanation:

      Taste sensation from the anterior two-thirds of the tongue is carried by chorda tympani, a branch of the facial nerve.

      The general somatic sensation of the anterior two-third of the tongue is supplied by the lingual nerve, a branch of the mandibular nerve.

      Both general somatic sensation and taste from the posterior third of the tongue are carried by the glossopharyngeal nerve.

      All the muscles of the tongue except palatoglossus are supplied by the hypoglossal nerve whereas palatoglossus is supplied by the vagus nerve. (This is because palatoglossus is the only tongue muscle derived from the fourth branchial arch)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
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  • Question 100 - The liver plays a major role in drug metabolism.

    Which of the following...

    Incorrect

    • The liver plays a major role in drug metabolism.

      Which of the following liver cells is most important in phase I of drug metabolism?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Centrilobular cells

      Explanation:

      The metabolism of drugs in the liver occurs in 3 phases

      Phase I: This involves functionalization reactions, which are of 3 types, namely hydrolysis, oxidation and reduction reactions catalysed by the cytochrome P450 (CYP) enzymes.

      Phase II: This involves conjugation or acetylation reactions. The goal is to create water soluble metabolites that can be excreted from the body.

      The liver is the second largest organ. It’s smallest functional unit is the acinus which is divided into 3 zones:

      Zone I (periportal): This zone receives the largest amount of oxygen supply as it is the closest to the blood vessels. It is the site of plasma protein synthesis.

      Zone II (mediolobular): This is located between the portal triad and central vein.

      Zone III (centrilobular): This is closest to the central vein and receives the least amount of oxygen supply.

      Kupffer cells are specialized macrophages found in the periportal zone of the liver, and function to remove foreign particles and breakdown red blood cells via phagocytosis.

      Ito cells are fat-storing liver cells found in the space of Disse. Their function is to take-uo, store and secrete retinoids, as well as manufacture and release proteins that make up the extracellular matrix.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
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  • Question 101 - A patient was brought to the emergency room after passing black tarry stools....

    Incorrect

    • A patient was brought to the emergency room after passing black tarry stools. The initial diagnosis was upper gastrointestinal bleeding. The patient was placed on temporary nil per os (NPO) for the next 24 hours, his weight was 110 kg, and the required volume of intravenous fluid for the him was 3 litres. His electrolytes and other biochemistry studies were normal.

      If you were to choose the intravenous fluid regimen that would closely mimic his basic electrolyte and caloric requirements, which one would be the best answer?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 3000 mL 0.45% N. saline with 5% dextrose, each bag with 40 mmol of potassium

      Explanation:

      The patient in the case has a fluid volume requirement of 30 mL/kg/day. His basic electrolyte requirement per day is:

      Sodium at 2 mmol/kg/day x 110 = 220 mmol/day
      Potassium at 1 mmol/kg/day x 110 = 110 mmol/day

      His energy requirement per day is:

      35 kcal/kg/day x 110 kg = 3850 kcal/day

      One gram of glucose in fluid can provide approximately 4 kilocalories.

      The following are the electrolyte components of the different intravenous fluids:

      Fluid Na (mmol/L) K (mmol/L)
      0.9% Normal saline (NSS) 154 0
      0.45% NSS + 5% dextrose 77 0
      0.18% NSS + 4% dextrose 30 0
      Hartmann’s 131 5
      5% dextrose 0 0

      1000 mL of 5% dextrose has 50 g of glucose

      Option B is inadequate for his sodium and caloric requirements (30 mmol of Na+ and 560 kcal). It is adequate for his K+ requirement (120 mmol of K+).

      Option C is in excess of his Na+ requirement (462 mmol of Na+). Moreover, it does not provide any K+ replacement.

      Option D is inadequate for his caloric requirement (600 kcal) and K+ requirement (60 mmol of K+). Moreover it does not provide any Na+ replacement.

      Option E is in excess of his Na+ requirement (393 mmol of Na+), and is inadequate for his potassium requirement (15 mmol of K+)

      Option A has adequate amounts for his Na+ (231 mmol of Na+) and K+ (120 mmol of K+) requirements. It is inadequate for his caloric requirement (600 kcal).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
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  • Question 102 - Very large SI units are easily expressed using mathematical prefixes.

    One terabyte is equal...

    Incorrect

    • Very large SI units are easily expressed using mathematical prefixes.

      One terabyte is equal to which of the following numbers?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 1,000,000,000,000 bytes

      Explanation:

      To denote large measured units, the following SI mathematical prefixes are used:

      1 deca = 10 bytes (101)
      1 hecto (h) = 100 bytes
      1 kilo (k)= 1,000 bytes
      1 mega (M) = 1,000,000 bytes
      1 giga (G) = 1,000,000,000 bytes
      1 Tera (T) = 1,000,000,000,000 bytes
      1 Peta (P) = 1,000,000,000,000,000 bytes

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Physics
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  • Question 103 - A 43-year old woman, presented to the emergency department. She has suffered trauma...

    Incorrect

    • A 43-year old woman, presented to the emergency department. She has suffered trauma to her right orbital floor.

      On examination, it is noted that her right eye is deviated upwards when compared to her left. She also has a deliberate tilt in her head to the left in an attempt to compensate for loss of intorsion.

      This clinical sign is caused by damage to which of the following cranial nerves?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Trochlear nerve

      Explanation:

      The trochlear nerve (CN IV) is the fourth and smallest cranial nerve. It’s role is to provide somatic motor innervation of the superior oblique muscle which is responsible for oculomotion.

      Injury to the trochlear nerve will result in vertical diplopia, which worsens when looking downwards or inwards. This diplopia presents as an upward deviation of the eye with a head tilt away from the site of the lesion.

      The abducens nerve (CN VI) provides somatic motor innervation for the lateral rectus muscle which functions to abduct the eye. Injury to this nerve will cause diplopia and an inability to abduct the eye, causing the patient to have to rotate their head to look sideways.

      The facial nerve (CN VII) provides sensory, motor and parasympathetic innervations. It’s motor aspect controls the muscles of facial expression. Damage will cause paralysis of facial expression.

      The oculomotor nerve (CN III) provides motor and parasympathetic innervations. Its motor component controls most of the other extraocular muscles. Damage to it will result in ptosis, dilatation of the pupil and a down and out eye position.

      The ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve (CN VI) is responsible for sensory innervation of skin, mucous membranes and sinuses of the upper face and scalp.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
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  • Question 104 - A 55-year-old man has complaints of severe tearing chest pain. A preliminary diagnosis...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man has complaints of severe tearing chest pain. A preliminary diagnosis of aortic dissection is made in the emergency department. In aortic dissection, which layers have blood flowing in between them?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tunica intima and tunica media

      Explanation:

      The wall of an artery has three layers: (innermost to outermost)
      1. Tunica intima – in direct contact with the blood inside the vessel and contains endothelial cells separated by gap junctions.
      2. Tunica media – contains smooth muscle cells and is separated from the intima by the internal elastic lamina and the adventitia by the external elastic lamina.
      3. Tunica adventitia – contains the vasa vasorum, fibroblast, and collagen.

      Aortic dissection is when a tear arises in the innermost layer of the aorta and penetrates through the tear, entering the media layer. The inner and middle layers of the aorta split (dissect).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
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  • Question 105 - A 70-year-old man presents with central crushing chest pain that radiates to the...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man presents with central crushing chest pain that radiates to the jaw in the emergency department. He has associated symptoms of nausea and diaphoresis.

      A 12 lead ECG is performed. ST-elevation is observed in leads V2-V4. The diagnosis of anteroseptal ST-elevation myocardial infarction is made.

      Which coronary vessel is responsible for this condition and runs in the interventricular septum on the anterior surface of the heart to reach the apex?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Left anterior descending artery

      Explanation:

      The heart receives blood supply from coronary arteries. The right and left coronary arteries branch off the aorta and supply oxygenated blood to all heart muscle parts.

      The left main coronary artery branches into:
      1. Circumflex artery – supplies the left atrium, side, and back of the left ventricle. The left marginal artery arises from the left circumflex artery. It travels along the obtuse margin of the heart.
      2. Left Anterior Descending (LAD) artery – supplies the front and bottom of the left ventricle and front of the interventricular septum

      The left anterior descending coronary artery is the largest coronary artery. It courses anterior to the interventricular septum in the anterior interventricular groove, extending from the base of the heart to its apex. Around the apex, the LAD anastomosis with the terminal branches of the posterior descending artery (branch of the right coronary artery).
      Atherosclerosis or thrombotic occlusion of LAD causes myocardial infarction in large areas of the anterior, septal, and apical portions of the heart muscle. It can lead to a serious deterioration in heart performance.

      Occlusion of the LAD causes anteroseptal myocardial infarction, which is evident on the ECG with changes in leads V1-V4. Occlusion of the left circumflex artery causes lateral, posterior, or anterolateral MI. However, as it does not run towards the apex in the interventricular septum of the heart, it is not the correct answer for this question.

      The right coronary artery branches into:
      1. Right marginal artery
      2. Posterior descending artery

      The right coronary artery supplies the right atrium, right ventricle, interatrial septum, and the inferior posterior third of the interventricular septum. Occlusion of the right coronary artery causes inferior MI, which is indicated on ECG with changes in leads II, III, and aVF.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
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  • Question 106 - An individual who recently moved his residence from the plains to the mountains...

    Incorrect

    • An individual who recently moved his residence from the plains to the mountains will experience immediately which physiologic response to high altitude and hypoxia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Increased cardiac output

      Explanation:

      A person remaining at high altitudes for days, weeks, or years becomes more and more acclimatized to the low PO2, so it causes fewer deleterious effects on the body.

      After acclimatization, it becomes possible for the person to work harder without hypoxic effects or to ascend to still higher altitudes. The principal means by which acclimatization comes about are (1) a great increase in pulmonary ventilation, (2) increased numbers of red blood cells, (3) diffusing capacity of the lungs, (4) increased vascularity of the peripheral tissues, and (5) increased ability of the tissue cells to use oxygen despite low PO2.

      The cardiac output often increases as much as 30% immediately after a person ascends to high altitude but then decreases back toward normal over a period of weeks as the blood haematocrit increases, so the amount of oxygen transported to the peripheral body tissues remains about normal.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
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  • Question 107 - A measuring system's response to change is complex, yet it can be mathematically modelled.

    Which of the following terms best characterises a pressure transducer's responsiveness to blood pressure changes?

    ...

    Incorrect

    • A measuring system's response to change is complex, yet it can be mathematically modelled.

      Which of the following terms best characterises a pressure transducer's responsiveness to blood pressure changes?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dynamic second-order response

      Explanation:

      The static-response defines how a measuring system behaves while it is in equilibrium (i.e. when the measured values are not changing). If the value being measured changes over time, the reaction of a measuring system will change as well which would be a dynamic response.
      The dynamic response of a measuring system can be subdivided into zero-order, first-order and second-order responses:

      Zero-order:
      Consider a thermometer that has been left in a room for a week. The thermometer will display the current ambient temperature when you enter the room.

      First-order:
      Consider the use of a mercury thermometer to check a patient’s temperature. It is comprised of a mercury column that expands as it warms up. The scale’s initial temperature is room temperature, but when it’s placed under the patient’s tongue, the temperature readings rise until they reach body temperature.

      Second-order
      Consider putting weights on a mechanical weighing scale. The weight as reported on the measuring dial, will wobble around the correct value at first until reaching equilibrium. An example of this is in clinical practice is the direct measurement of arterial pressure with a transducer. The value of the input fluctuates around a central point.

      Drift is the progressive deterioration of a measurement system’s precision. With time, the measurement deviates from the genuine, calibrated value. The graph between this measurement and the real value should, ideally, be linear (e.g. on the y-axis the measured end-tidal CO2 against true value of the end-tidal CO2). Drift is split into three types: zero-offset, gradient, and zonal drift.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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  • Question 108 - A 73-year-old man, presents with abdominal pain, constipation and blood on defecation. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 73-year-old man, presents with abdominal pain, constipation and blood on defecation. He is diagnosed with a distal sigmoid colon carcinoma.

      Which artery is most likely to provide its blood supply?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inferior mesenteric artery

      Explanation:

      The inferior mesenteric artery supplies blood to the hindgut, which includes the sigmoid colon.

      Note that during high anterior resection of distal sigmoid colon tumours, the inferior mesenteric artery is ligated, interrupting blood supply.

      The branches of the internal iliac artery, particularly the middle rectal branch, are essential in retaining vascularity of the rectal stump.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
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  • Question 109 - The statement that best describes the classification of theatre equipment in terms of...

    Incorrect

    • The statement that best describes the classification of theatre equipment in terms of electrical safety is:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A floating circuit is equipment applied to patient that is isolated from all its other parts

      Explanation:

      There are different classes of electrical equipment that can be classified in the table below:

      Class 1 – provides basic protection only. It must be connected to earth and insulated from the mains supply

      Class II – provides double insulation for all equipment. It does not require an earth.

      Class III – uses safety extra low voltage (SELV) which does not exceed 24 V AC. There is no risk of gross electrocution but risk of microshock exists.

      Type B – All of above with low leakage currents (0.5mA for Class IB, 0.1 mA for Class IIB)

      Type BF – Same as with other equipment but has ‘floating circuit’ which means that the equipment applied to patient is isolated from all its other parts.

      Type CF – Class I or II equipment with ‘floating circuits’ that is considered to be safe for direct connection with the heart. There are extremely low leakage currents (0.05mA for Class I CF and 0.01mA for Class II CF)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
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  • Question 110 - A medical student performed a case control study for her final dissertation. It...

    Incorrect

    • A medical student performed a case control study for her final dissertation. It involved examining marijuana exposure in a group of patients with and without COPD.

      What form of bias is the study most susceptible to?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Recall bias

      Explanation:

      Case control studies in particular are prone to recall bias, people who are suffering from COPD might sometimes relate the ailment to marijuana usage in past and hence contrary to the control group, they are more able to describe to what extent they have been using the drug in the past.

      As recommended, all the doctors should make sure that there practice is based on evidence and thus it is paramount that the doctors learn to appraise the paper in a critical manner i.e. ability to detect any potential source of bias.

      Detection Bias: Outcomes are more looked for in one group than the other.

      Observer Bias: Subjectivity of observers regarding the outcome.

      Publication bias: Not publishing the results of a valid study just because they are negative or uninteresting can be termed as publication bias.

      Recall bias: Recall bias is specifically appropriate to the case control studies that is when ever the memories retrieved by the participants differ in accuracy.

      Response Bias: The participants that filled out the response forms containing information that was going to be used for a trial, don’t represent the target population.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
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  • Question 111 - Concerning platelets one of the following is true ...

    Incorrect

    • Concerning platelets one of the following is true

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Are formed in the bone marrow from megakaryocytes

      Explanation:

      Platelets are fragments of megakaryocytes and they are encapsulated by membrane.

      They have no nucleus but are metabolically active and are able to express membrane receptors and release stored substances when triggered. adenosine diphosphate and serotonin are 2 of its content.

      Because they have no nucleus, they are not able to produce new proteins. This is why aspirin and other drugs affect function for their entire lifespan after exposure. Its lifespan is approximately 9-10 days in normal individuals.

      Platelets does NOT PRODUCE prostacyclin but are able to produce nitric oxide, prostaglandins and thromboxane.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
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  • Question 112 - Noradrenaline is used as an infusion to increase blood pressure in a 43-year-old...

    Incorrect

    • Noradrenaline is used as an infusion to increase blood pressure in a 43-year-old woman with pneumonia admitted to ICU.
      Which of the following statements is true regarding Noradrenaline?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Has a short half life about 2 minutes

      Explanation:

      Noradrenaline has a short half-life of about 2 minutes. It is rapidly cleared from plasma by a combination of cellular reuptake and metabolism.

      It acts as sympathomimetics by acting on ?1 receptors and also on ? receptors.

      It decreases renal and hepatic blood flow.

      Norepinephrine is metabolized by the enzymes monoamine oxidase and catechol-O-methyltransferase to 3-methoxy-4-hydroxymandelic acid and 3-methoxy-4-hydroxyphenylglycol (MHPG).

      Natural catecholamines are Adrenaline, Noradrenaline, and Dopamine

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 113 - During a squint surgery, a 5-year-old child developed severe bradycardia as a result...

    Incorrect

    • During a squint surgery, a 5-year-old child developed severe bradycardia as a result of the oculocardiac reflex.

      The afferent limb of this reflex is formed by which nerve?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Trigeminal nerve

      Explanation:

      When the eye is compressed or the extra-ocular muscles are tractioned, the oculocardiac reflex causes a decrease in heart rate.

      The ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve provides the afferent limb. This synapses with the vagus nerve’s visceral motor nucleus in the brainstem. The efferent signal is carried by the vagus nerve to the heart, where increased parasympathetic tone reduces sinoatrial node output and slows heart rate.

      The most common symptom is sinus bradycardia, but junctional rhythm and asystole can also occur.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
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  • Question 114 - With a 10-day history of severe vomiting, a 71-year-old man with a gastric...

    Incorrect

    • With a 10-day history of severe vomiting, a 71-year-old man with a gastric outlet obstruction is admitted to the surgical ward.

      The serum biochemical results listed below are available:

      Sodium 128 mmol/L (137-144)
      Potassium 2.6 mmol/L (3.5-4.9)
      Chloride 50 mmol/L (95-107)
      Urea 12 mmol/L (2.5-7.5)
      Creatinine 180 µmol/L (60-110)

      Which of the following do you think you are most likely to encounter?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The standard base excess will be higher than actual base excess

      Explanation:

      Hydrochloric acid is lost when you vomit for a long time (HCl). As a result, the following can be expected, in varying degrees of severity:

      Hypokalaemia
      Hypochloraemia
      Increased bicarbonate to compensate for chloride loss and metabolic alkalosis

      The alkalosis causes potassium to move from the intracellular to the extracellular compartment at first. Long-term vomiting and dehydration cause potassium to be excreted by the kidneys in order to conserve sodium. Dehydration can cause urea and creatinine levels to rise.

      The actual base excess is always greater than the standard base excess.

      The actual base excess (BE) is a measurement of a base’s contribution to a blood gas picture’s metabolic component. It’s the amount of base that needs to be added to a blood sample to bring the pH back to 7.4 after the respiratory component of a blood gas picture has been corrected (PaCO2 of 40 mmHg or 5.3 kPa). The BE has a normal range of +2 to 2. A large positive BE indicates a severe metabolic alkalosis, while a large negative BE indicates a severe metabolic acidosis. As a result, the actual BE in vitro is unaffected by CO2.

      In vivo, however, standard BE is not independent of pCO2 because blood with haemoglobin acts as a better buffer than total ECF.

      As a result, it is impossible to tell the difference between compensating for a respiratory disorder and compensating for the presence of a primary metabolic disorder.

      The differences between in vitro and in vivo behaviour can be mostly eliminated if the BE is calculated for a haemoglobin concentration of 50 g/L (the ‘effective’ or virtual value of Hb if it was distributed throughout the extracellular space) rather than the actual haemoglobin. Because haemoglobin has a lower buffering capacity, the standard BE is higher than the actual BE. It reflects the BE better in the extracellular space rather than just the intravascular compartment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
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  • Question 115 - Of the following, which option best describes the muscle type that has the...

    Incorrect

    • Of the following, which option best describes the muscle type that has the fastest twitch response to stimulation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Type IIb skeletal muscle

      Explanation:

      Human skeletal muscle is composed of a heterogeneous collection of muscle fibre types which differ histologically, biochemically and physiologically.

      It can be biochemically classified into 2 groups. This is based on muscle fibre myosin ATPase histochemistry. These are:

      Type 1 (slow twitch): Muscle fibres depend upon aerobic glycolytic metabolism and aerobic oxidative metabolism. They are rich in mitochondria, have a good blood supply, rich in myoglobin and are resistant to fatigue.

      Type II (fast twitch): Muscle fibres are sub-divided into:
      Type IIa – relies on aerobic/oxidative metabolism
      Type IIb – relies on anaerobic/glycolytic metabolism.

      Fast twitch muscle fibres produce short bursts of power but are more easily fatigued.

      Cardiac and smooth muscle twitches are relatively slow compared with skeletal muscle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
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  • Question 116 - A 40-year-old obese woman has complaints of heartburn and regurgitation that is worse...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old obese woman has complaints of heartburn and regurgitation that is worse on lying flat. The doctor suspects gastroesophageal reflux due to a hiatus hernia. Lifestyle modifications to lose weight and antacids are prescribed to her.

      At which level of the diaphragm will you find an opening for this problem?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: T10

      Explanation:

      Hiatus is an opening in the diaphragm. A hiatal hernia is a protrusion of the upper part of the stomach through an opening in the diaphragm, the oesophageal hiatus, into the thorax. The oesophageal hiatus occurs at the level of T10 in the right crus of the diaphragm.

      Other important openings in the diaphragm:
      T8: vena cava, terminal branches of the right phrenic nerve
      T10: oesophagus, vagal trunks, left anterior phrenic vessels, oesophageal branches of the left gastric vessels
      T12: descending aorta, thoracic duct, azygous and hemi-azygous vein

      An opening in the diaphragm is called a hiatus. The oesophageal hiatus is at vertebral level T10. A hiatus hernia is where the stomach bulges through the oesophageal hiatus hence the name – hiatus hernia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
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  • Question 117 - Which of the following antihypertensive drugs is an alpha-blocker? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following antihypertensive drugs is an alpha-blocker?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Doxazosin

      Explanation:

      Doxazosin is selective alpha 1 blocker (it causes less tachycardia than a non-selective alpha-blocker) and is the drug of choice for a patient with hypertension and benign hyperplasia of the prostate (BHP).

      The major adverse effect of an alpha-blocker is first-dose hypotension.

      Atenolol and Labetalol are beta blockers. It works by relaxing blood vessels and slowing heart rate to improve blood flow and decrease blood pressure.

      Clonidine is an α2A-adrenergic agonist used to treat high blood pressure, ADHD, drug withdrawal (alcohol, opioids, or nicotine), menopausal flushing, diarrhea, spasticity, and certain pain conditions.

      Methyldopa is a centrally-acting alpha-2 adrenergic agonist used to manage hypertension alone or in combination with hydrochlorothiazide, and to treat hypertensive crises.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 118 - The lung volume that is commonly measured indirectly is? ...

    Incorrect

    • The lung volume that is commonly measured indirectly is?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Functional residual capacity

      Explanation:

      The functional residual capacity (FRC) is the volume in the lungs at the end of passive expiration. It is determined by opposing forces of the expanding chest wall and the elastic recoil of the lung. A normal FRC = 1.7 to 3.5 L. It a marker for lung function, and, during this time, the alveolar pressure is equal to the atmospheric pressure.

      FRC cannot be measured by spirometry because it contains the residual volume.

      Tidal volume, inspiratory reserve volume, forced expiratory volume in 1 second, and vital capacity can be measured directly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
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  • Question 119 - You performed pelvic ultrasound of Mrs Aciman as she had pelvic bloating and...

    Incorrect

    • You performed pelvic ultrasound of Mrs Aciman as she had pelvic bloating and intermittent pain. The ultrasound shows a complex ovarian cyst and the radiologist who reported the results has advised urgent consultation with a gynaecologist. Upon breaking the news to Mrs Aciman you learn that she recently had a blood test done that was normal. You explain it to her that the test performed (Ca-125) is not always perfect and is only able to detect 80% of the cancer cases while the remaining 20% go undetected.

      Which statistical term appropriately explains the 80% in this example.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sensitivity

      Explanation:

      Tests are used to confirm the presence of a particular disease. However the results can be misleading at times since most of the tests have some limitations associated with them.
      Sensitivity is the correct term that refers to the probability of a positive test. The others are explained below:

      False Positive rates refer to the proportion of the patients who don’t have the condition being detected as positive.

      False Negative rates refer to the proportion of the patients who have the condition being detected as negative (like the 20% of the patients that went undetected by the Ca-125 test).

      Specificity describes the ability of a test to detect and pick up people without the disease. Absolute risk ratio compares the rate of two separate outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
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  • Question 120 - Over the course of 10 minutes, one litre of 0.9% normal saline is...

    Incorrect

    • Over the course of 10 minutes, one litre of 0.9% normal saline is intravenously infused into a normally fit and well 58-year-old male. A catheter is used to measure urine output before and after the infusion. The patient is 70 kg in weight.

      The following data on urine output is obtained:

      50ml/hour Before the infusion
      200 ml/hour 1 hour following infusion
      90 ml/hour 2 hours after the infusion
      60 ml/hr 3 hours after the infusion

      Which of the following physiological responses is most likely to account for the sudden increase in urine output after a fluid bolus?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Increased glomerular filtration rate

      Explanation:

      The following are some basic assumptions:

      Extracellular fluid (ECF) makes up one-third of total body water (TBW), while intracellular fluid makes up the other two-thirds (ICF).
      One-quarter of ECF is plasma, and three-quarters is interstitial fluid (ISF).
      The volume receptors have a 7-10% blood volume change threshold. The osmoreceptors are sensitive to changes in osmolality of 1-2 percent.
      Prior to the transfusion, the plasma osmolality is normal (between 287 and 290 mOsm/kg).
      [Na+] in 0.9 percent N. saline is 154 mmol/L, which is similar to that of extracellular fluid. When given intravenously, this limits its distribution within the extracellular space, resulting in a plasma compartment:ISF volume ratio of 1:3.
      In this time frame, one litre of 0.9 percent N. saline will increase plasma volume by about 250 mL, which could be the threshold for activation of the volume receptors in the atria, resulting in the release of atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP).

      Because 0.9 percent N. saline is isosmotic, after a 1 L infusion, plasma osmolality will not change. No changes in antidiuretic hormone secretion will be detected by the hypothalamic osmoreceptors.

      Because normal saline is protein-free, the oncotic pressure in the blood is slightly reduced after the saline infusion. As a result, fluid movement into the ISF is favoured (Starling’s hypothesis), and the lower oncotic pressure causes an immediate increase in the glomerular filtration rate (GFR) and a reduction in water reabsorption in the proximal tubule.

      The flow of urine increases. There is no hormonal intermediary in this effect, so it is strictly local. Urine flow immediately increases. The fluid returns to the intravascular compartment, and urine flow continues until all of the transfused fluid has been excreted.

      Blood pressure changes associated with a 1 L fluid infusion are unlikely to affect high-pressure baroreceptors in the carotid sinus.

      The juxta-glomerular cells of the afferent arteriole are adjacent to the specialised cells (macula densa) of distal tubules. The sodium and chloride ions in the tubular fluid are detected by the macula densa. Renin release is inhibited when the tubular fluid contains too much sodium chloride. Hormonal changes take longer to manifest than physical changes that control glomerulotubular balance.
      Hypertonic saline, not 0.9 percent N saline, is an osmotic diuretic.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
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  • Question 121 - A current flows through a simple electric circuit.

    Which of the following electrical component...

    Incorrect

    • A current flows through a simple electric circuit.

      Which of the following electrical component configurations has the greatest potential difference?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Two 5 ohm resistors in series with a passing current of 10 ampere

      Explanation:

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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  • Question 122 - A 65-year-old man, presents to the emergency department. He explains that an hour...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man, presents to the emergency department. He explains that an hour ago, he experienced central chest pain, which moved down his left arm.
      On ECG, elevation in the ST-segment was noted in the anterior leads. He undergoes emergency percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) which requires the cardiologist to access the heart via the femoral artery.

      Where is the surface marking for identifying the femoral artery?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Midway between the ASIS and the pubic symphysis

      Explanation:

      The surface marking for locating the femoral artery is the mid-inguinal point, which is the halfway point between the anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS) and the pubic symphysis.

      The other mentioned options are not specific for any landmark.

      However, it is important to note the difference between the mid inguinal point and the midpoint of the inguinal ligament, which is travels from the ASIS to the pubic tubercle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
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  • Question 123 - A 71-year-old woman will undergo surgery for a fractured femur neck.

    1 mg midazolam...

    Incorrect

    • A 71-year-old woman will undergo surgery for a fractured femur neck.

      1 mg midazolam is used to induce anaesthesia, followed by 75 mg propofol.

      Which of the following options best describes how these two drugs interact pharmacologically?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Synergism

      Explanation:

      Drug interactions can be seen in the following examples:

      Additive interaction (summation).

      Additive effects are described for intravenous drug combinations such as ketamine and thiopentone or ketamine and midazolam. Different mechanisms of action are used by them. Thiopentone and midazolam are GABAA receptor agonists, whereas ketamine is an NMDA receptor antagonist. Nitrous oxide and halothane are two other examples.

      Synergism is a supra-additive interaction.

      Refers to the administration of two drugs with similar pharmacological properties and closely related sites of action, resulting in a combined effect that is greater than the sum of the contributions of each component. The construction of an isobologram can be used to interpret and understand these. The best example is the hypnotic effect of benzodiazepines and intravenous induction agents like propofol. As part of a co-induction technique, midazolam is frequently given before propofol.

      Potentiation

      In a dose-dependent manner, volatile agents enhance the effects of neuromuscular blocking agents. Electrolyte disturbance (hypomagnesaemia), Penicillin, and probenecid can all increase the effects of neuromuscular blocking agents (the latter has no similar pharmacological activity).

      Infra-additive interaction (antagonism).

      This can be subdivided into the following categories:

      -Pharmacokinetic interference occurs when one drug affects the absorption of another through the gastrointestinal tract or when hepatic microsomal enzyme induction influences metabolism.
      -Heparin and protamine, for example, or heavy metals and chelating agents, are examples of chemical antagonists.
      -Competitive reversible antagonistic antagonism of receptors, such as opioids and naloxone, and irreversible antagonistic antagonism of receptors

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 124 - From the following statements, which is true of humidification? ...

    Incorrect

    • From the following statements, which is true of humidification?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ultrasonic humidifier can achieve greater than 100% relative humidity

      Explanation:

      Increasing temperature increases the amount of water vapour contained in air; for example, at 20°C, air contains about 17 g/m3, and at 37°C, air contains about 44 g/m3. The wet and dry bulb hygrometer, like the hair hygrometer, measures relative humidity.

      Under normal operating conditions, Heat and moisture exchangers (HMEs) allows relative humidity of up to 70% to be achieved. Mucus can impair their performance, and they should not be used for longer than 24 hours.

      Hot water bath humidifiers might cause scalding, condensed water in the tubing can interfere with gas flow, and there is a danger of infection.

      The ultrasonic humidifier operates at roughly 2 MHz and may attain relative humidity levels much above 100%.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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  • Question 125 - Which of the following is true regarding correlation coefficient? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is true regarding correlation coefficient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It can assume any value between -1 and 1

      Explanation:

      The degree of correlation is summarised by the correlation coefficient (r). This indicates how closely the points lie to a line drawn through the plotted data. In parametric data this is called Pearson’s correlation coefficient and can take any value between -1 to +1. A correlation of -1.0 indicates a perfect negative correlation, and a correlation of 1.0 indicates a perfect positive correlation.

      For example

      r = 1 – strong positive correlation (e.g. systolic blood pressure always increases with age)

      r = 0 – no correlation (e.g. there is no correlation between systolic blood pressure and age)

      r = – 1 – strong negative correlation (e.g. systolic blood pressure always decreases with age)

      Whilst correlation coefficients give information about how one variable may increase or decrease as another variable increases they do not give information about how much the variable will change. They also do not provide information on cause and effect.

      In contrast to the correlation coefficient, linear regression may be used to predict how much one variable changes when a second variable is changed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
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  • Question 126 - All of the following statements about that parasympathetic nervous system (PNS) are true...

    Incorrect

    • All of the following statements about that parasympathetic nervous system (PNS) are true except:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The PNS has nicotinic receptors throughout the system

      Explanation:

      With regards to the autonomic nervous system (ANS)

      1. It is not under voluntary control
      2. It uses reflex pathways and different to the somatic nervous system.
      3. The hypothalamus is the central point of integration of the ANS. However, the gut can coordinate some secretions and information from the baroreceptors which are processed in the medulla.

      With regards to the central nervous system (CNS)
      1. There are myelinated preganglionic fibres which lead to the
      ganglion where the nerve cell bodies of the non-myelinated post ganglionic nerves are organised.
      2. From the ganglion, the post ganglionic nerves then lead on to the innervated organ.

      Most organs are under control of both systems although one system normally predominates.

      The nerves of the sympathetic nervous system (SNS) originate from the lateral horns of the spinal cord, pass into the anterior primary rami and then pass via the white rami communicates into the ganglia from T1-L2.

      There are short pre-ganglionic and long post ganglionic fibres.
      Pre-ganglionic synapses use acetylcholine (ACh) as a neurotransmitter on nicotinic receptors.
      Post ganglionic synapses uses adrenoceptors with norepinephrine / epinephrine as the neurotransmitter.
      However, in sweat glands, piloerector muscles and few blood vessels, ACh is still used as a neurotransmitter with nicotinic receptors.

      The ganglia form the sympathetic trunk – this is a collection of nerves that begin at the base of the skull and travel 2-3 cm lateral to the vertebrae, extending to the coccyx.

      There are cervical, thoracic, lumbar and sacral ganglia and visceral sympathetic innervation is by cardiac, coeliac and hypogastric plexi.

      Juxta glomerular apparatus, piloerector muscles and adipose tissue are all organs under sole sympathetic control.

      The PNS has a craniosacral outflow. It causes reduced arousal and cardiovascular stimulation and increases visceral activity.

      The cranial outflow consists of
      1. The oculomotor nerve (CN III) to the eye via the ciliary ganglion,
      2. Facial nerve (CN VII) to the submandibular, sublingual and lacrimal glands via the pterygopalatine and submandibular ganglions
      3. Glossopharyngeal (CN IX) to lungs, larynx and tracheobronchial tree via otic ganglion
      4. The vagus nerve (CN X), the largest contributor and carries ¾ of fibres covering innervation of the heart, lungs, larynx, tracheobronchial tree parotid gland and proximal gut to the splenic flexure, liver and pancreas

      The sacral outflow (S2 to S4) innervates the bladder, distal gut and genitalia.

      The PNS has long preganglionic and short post ganglionic fibres.
      Preganglionic synapses, like in the SNS, use ACh as the neuro transmitter with nicotinic receptors.
      Post ganglionic synapses also use ACh as the neurotransmitter but have muscarinic receptors.

      Different types of these muscarinic receptors are present in different organs:
      There are:
      M1 = pupillary constriction, gastric acid secretion stimulation
      M2 = inhibition of cardiac stimulation
      M3 = visceral vasodilation, coronary artery constriction, increased secretions in salivary, lacrimal glands and pancreas
      M4 = brain and adrenal medulla
      M5 = brain

      The lacrimal glands are solely under parasympathetic control.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
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  • Question 127 - A 32-year-old man has multiple stab wounds to his abdomen and is rushed...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man has multiple stab wounds to his abdomen and is rushed into the emergency. Resuscitative measures are performed, but the patient remains hypotensive.

      Emergency laparotomy is performed, and it reveals a vessel is bleeding profusely at a certain level of lumbar vertebrae. The vessel is the testicular artery and is ligated.

      At which lumbar vertebrae is the testicular artery identified?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: L2

      Explanation:

      The important landmarks of vessels arising from the abdominal aorta at different levels of vertebrae are:

      T12 – Coeliac trunk

      L1 – Left renal artery

      L2 – Testicular or ovarian arteries

      L3 – Inferior mesenteric artery

      L4 – Bifurcation of the abdominal aorta

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
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  • Question 128 - A 46-year old man was taken to the emergency room due to slow,...

    Incorrect

    • A 46-year old man was taken to the emergency room due to slow, laboured breathing. A relative reported that he's maintained on codeine 60 mg, taken orally every 6 hours for severe pain from oesophageal cancer. His creatinine was elevated, and glomerular filtration rate was severely decreased at 27 ml/minute.

      Given the scenario above, which of the metabolites of codeine is the culprit for his clinical findings?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Morphine-6-glucuronide

      Explanation:

      Accumulation of morphine-6-glucuronide is a risk factor for opioid toxicity during morphine treatment. Morphine is metabolized in the liver to morphine-6-glucuronide and morphine-3-glucuronide, both of which are excreted by the kidneys. In the setting of renal failure, these metabolites can accumulate, resulting in a lowering of the seizure threshold. However, it does not occur in all patients with renal insufficiency, which is the most common reason for accumulation of morphine-6-glucuronide; this suggests that other risk factors can contribute to morphine-6-glucuronide toxicity.

      The active metabolites of codeine are morphine and the morphine metabolite morphine-6-glucuronide. The enzyme systems responsible for this metabolism are: CYP2D for codeine and UGT2B7 for morphine, codeine-6-gluronide, and morphine-6-glucuronide. Both of these systems are subject to genetic variation. Some patients are ultrarapid metabolizers of codeine and produce higher levels of morphine and active metabolites in a very short period of time after administration. These increased levels will produce increased side effects, especially drowsiness and central nervous system depression.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 129 - Which of the following options is correct regarding the coagulation pathway? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following options is correct regarding the coagulation pathway?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tissue factor released by damaged tissue initiates the extrinsic pathway

      Explanation:

      The extrinsic pathway is considered as the main pathway of coagulation cascade.

      Heparin is known to inhibit the activation of coagulation factors 2,9,10, and 11.

      The extrinsic and intrinsic pathways meet at the activation of coagulation factor 10.

      Fibrinogen is converted into Fibrin in the presence of Thrombin. Plasminogen is converted into plasmin during fibrinolysis to breakdown fibrin clot.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
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  • Question 130 - Which of the following statements is true regarding drug dose and response? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is true regarding drug dose and response?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Intrinsic activity determines maximal response

      Explanation:

      There are two types of drug dose-response relationships, namely, the graded dose-response and the quantal dose-response relationships.

      Drug response curves are plotted as percentage response again LOG drug concentration. This graph is sigmoid in shape.

      Agonists are drugs with high affinity and high intrinsic activity. Meanwhile, the antagonist is a drug with high affinity but no intrinsic activity. Intrinsic activity determines the maximal response. The maximal response can be achieved even by activation of a small proportion of receptor sites.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 131 - Which of the following descriptions best describes enflurane and isoflurane? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following descriptions best describes enflurane and isoflurane?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Have the same molecular formula but different structural formulae

      Explanation:

      Structural isomers have a similar molecular formula, but they have a different structural formula as their atoms are arranged in a different manner. Such small changes lead to the differential pharmacological activity. Enflurane and isoflurane are two prime examples of structural isomers.

      Stereoisomers are those substances that have a similar molecular and structural formula, but the arrangement spatially of atoms are different and have optical activity.

      Enantiomers are a pair of stereoisomers, which are non-superimposable mirror images of each other. They also have chiral centres of molecular symmetry. Ketamine is considered as an example of racemic mixture (contain 50% R and 50% S enantiomers)

      Geometric isomers contain a carbon-carbon double bond (i.e. C=C) or a rigid carbon-carbon single bond in a heterocyclic ring. Cis-atracurium is one example.

      Dynamic isomers or Tautomers are a pait of unstable structural isomers, which are present in equilibrium. One isomer can easily change after the change in pH. Midazolam and thiopentone are their examples.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 132 - Which of the following, at a given PaO2, increases the oxygen content of...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following, at a given PaO2, increases the oxygen content of arterial blood?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A reduced erythrocyte 2,3-diphosphoglycerate level

      Explanation:

      The oxygen content of arterial blood can be calculated by the following equation:
      (10 x haemoglobin x SaO2 x 1.34) + (PaO2 x 0.0225).
      This is the sum of the oxygen bound to haemoglobin and the oxygen dissolved in the plasma.

      Oxygen content x cardiac output = The amount of oxygen delivered to the tissues in unit time which is known as the oxygen flux.

      Any factor that increases the metabolic demand will encourage oxygen offloading from the haemoglobin in the tissues and this causes the oxygen dissociation curve (ODC) to shift to the right. This subsequently reduced the oxygen content of arterial blood.

      Conditions like fever, metabolic or respiratory acidosis lowers the oxygen content and shifts the ODC to the right.
      A low level of 2,3 diphosphoglycerate (2,3-DPG) is usually related to an increased oxygen content as there is less offloading, and so the ODC is shifted to the left.

      So for a given PaO2, a high blood oxygen content is related to any factors that can shift the ODC to the left and not to the right.

      A low haematocrit usually means that there is a decreased haemoglobin concentration, and therefore is associated with decreased oxygen binding to haemoglobin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
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  • Question 133 - Regarding the anatomical relations of the scalenus muscles, which of these is true?...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding the anatomical relations of the scalenus muscles, which of these is true?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The trunks of the brachial plexus emerge from the lateral border of scalenus anterior

      Explanation:

      The ascending cervical artery lies media the phrenic nerve on scalenus anterior and can easily be mistaken for the phrenic nerve at operation.

      The phrenic nerve passes across scalenus anterior and medius inferiorly.

      The subclavian artery is separated from the vein by the scalenus anterior.

      The brachiocephalic vein is formed at the medial border of scalenus anterior by the subclavian vein and the internal jugular vein.

      Emerging from the lateral border of scalenus anterior are the trunks of the brachial plexus .

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
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  • Question 134 - Which of these structures will cause the biggest reduction in hepatic blood flow...

    Incorrect

    • Which of these structures will cause the biggest reduction in hepatic blood flow when occluded surgically?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Portal vein

      Explanation:

      The portal vein arises from the splenic and mesenteric veins, and is the biggest vessel in the portal venous system, accounting for about 75% of the hepatic blood flow.

      It is responsible for draining blood from parts of the gastrointestinal system, the spleen, the pancreas and the gallbladder into the liver.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
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  • Question 135 - These proprietary preparations of local anaesthetic are available in your hospital:

    Solution A contains...

    Incorrect

    • These proprietary preparations of local anaesthetic are available in your hospital:

      Solution A contains 10 mL 0.5% bupivacaine (plain), and
      Solution B contains 10 mL 0.5% bupivacaine with adrenaline 1 in 200,000.

      What is the pharmacokinetic difference between the two solutions?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The onset of action of solution A is quicker than solution B

      Explanation:

      The reasons for adding adrenaline to a local anaesthetic solution are:

      1. To Increase the duration of block
      2. To reduce absorption of the local anaesthetic into the circulation
      3. To Increase the upper safe limit of local anaesthetic (2.5 mg/kg instead of 2 mg/kg, in this case).

      The addition of adrenaline to bupivacaine does not affect its potency, lipid solubility, protein binding, or pKa(8.1 with or without adrenaline).

      The pH of bupivacaine is between 5-7. Premixed with adrenaline, it is 3.3-5.5.
      The onset of a local anaesthetic and its ability to penetrate membranes depends upon degree of ionisation. Compared with the ionised fraction, unionised local anaesthetic readily penetrates tissue membranes to site of action. The onset of action of solution B is slower. this is because the relationship between pKa(8.1) and pH(3.3-5.5) of the solution results in a greater proportion of ionised local anaesthetic molecules compared with solution A.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 136 - Which of the following options will best reflect the adequacy of preoxygenation prior...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following options will best reflect the adequacy of preoxygenation prior to rapid sequence induction of a patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Expired fraction of oxygen (FEO2)

      Explanation:

      The most important determinant of preoxygenation adequacy is expired fraction of oxygen. Denitrogenating of the functional residual capacity is the purpose of preoxygenation. This is dependent on three vital factors: (1) respiratory rate; (2) inspired volume, and; (3) inspired oxygen concentration (FiO2).

      Arterial oxygen saturation does not efficiently determine adequacy of preoxygenation because of its inability to measure tissue reserves. Arterial partial pressure of oxygen is also unsuitable for determining preoxygenation adequacy. Moreover, the absence of central cyanosis is a very crude sign of low tissue oxygenation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
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  • Question 137 - Of the following statements, which is true about the measurements of cardiac output...

    Incorrect

    • Of the following statements, which is true about the measurements of cardiac output using thermodilution?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cardiac output should be measured during the end-expiratory pause

      Explanation:

      Thermodilution is the most common dilution method used to measure cardiac output (CO) in a hospital setting.

      During the procedure, a Swan-Ganz catheter, which is a specialized catheter with a thermistor-tip, is inserted into the pulmonary artery via the peripheral vein. 5-10mL of a cold saline solution with a known temperature and volume is injected into the right atrium via a proximal catheter port. The solution is cooled as it mixes with the blood during its travel to the pulmonary artery. The temperature of the blood is the measured by the catheter and is profiled using a computer.

      The computer also uses the profile to measure cardiac output from the right ventricle, over several measurements until an average is selected.

      Cardiac output changes at each point of respiration, therefore to get an accurate measurement, the same point during respiration must be used at each procedure, this is usually the end of expiration, that is the end-expiratory pause.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
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  • Question 138 - A 4-year-old boy with status epilepticus was brought to ER and has already...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year-old boy with status epilepticus was brought to ER and has already received two doses of intravenous lorazepam but is still continuing to have seizures.

      Which of the following drug would be best for his treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Phenytoin 20 mg/kg IV

      Explanation:

      When the convulsion lasts for five or more than five minutes, or if there are recurrent episodes of convulsions in a 5 minute period without returning to the baseline, it is termed as Status Epilepticus.
      The first priority in the patient with seizures is maintaining the airway, breathing, and circulation.

      Guideline for the management of Status Epilepticus in children by Advanced Life Support Group is as follow:

      Step 1 (Five minutes after the start of seizures):

      If intravascular access is available start treatment with lorazepam 0.1 mg/kg IV
      If no intravascular access then give buccal midazolam 0.5 mg/kg or rectal diazepam 0.5 mg/kg.

      Step 2 (Ten minutes after the start of seizure):

      If the convulsions continue then a second dose of benzodiazepine should be given. Senior should be called on-site and phenytoin should be prepared.
      No more than two doses or benzodiazepines should be given (including any doses given before arrival at the hospital)
      If still no IV access then obtain intraosseous access (IO).

      Step 3 (Ten minutes after step 2)

      Senior help along with anaesthetic/ICU help should be sought
      Phenytoin 20 mg/kg IV over 20 minutes
      If the seizure stops before the full dose of phenytoin is given then the infusion should be completed as this provides up to 24 hours of anticonvulsant effect
      In children already receiving phenytoin as treatment for epilepsy then an alternative is phenobarbitone 20 mg/kg IV over five minutes
      Once the phenytoin is started, senior staff may wish to give rectal paraldehyde 0.4 mg/kg although this is no longer included in the routine algorithm recommended by APLS.

      Step 4 (20 minutes after step 3)

      If 20 minutes after starting phenytoin the child remains in status epilepticus then rapid sequence induction of anaesthesia with thiopentone and a short acting paralysing agent is needed and the child transferred to paediatric intensive care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
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  • Question 139 - A randomized controlled trail has been conducted to compare two drugs used for...

    Incorrect

    • A randomized controlled trail has been conducted to compare two drugs used for the early management of acute severe asthma in the emergency department. After being allocated to the randomized groups, many patients have been excluded due to deleterious effect to the drugs.

      How the data would be analysed?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Include the patients who drop out in the final data set

      Explanation:

      Randomized controlled trails will be analysed by the intention-to-treat (ITT) approach. It provides unbiased comparisons among the treatment groups. ITT analyses are done to avoid the effects of dropout, which may break the random assignment to the treatment groups in a study.

      ITT analysis is a comparison of the treatment groups that includes all patients as originally allocated after randomization.

      In order to include such participants in an analysis, outcome data could be imputed which involves making assumptions about the outcomes in the lost participants.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
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  • Question 140 - A 61-year-old woman, present to her general practitioner. She complains of a severe...

    Incorrect

    • A 61-year-old woman, present to her general practitioner. She complains of a severe lancinating pain in her forehead that only last a few seconds, possibly triggered by washing her face, occurring over the previous six weeks.

      On examination, she is normal with no other signs or symptoms.

      Which nerve is the most likely cause of her pain?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sensory branches of the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve

      Explanation:

      Her symptoms are suggestive of trigeminal neuralgia which is a short, sudden, severe sharp unilateral pain in the facial region. The pain often follows the sensory distribution of the trigeminal nerve (CN V).

      The trigeminal nerve gives rise to 3 sensory and 1 motor nuclei. Neuralgia can arise from any of the 3 sensory divisions.

      The ophthalmic division gives rise to 3 further sensory branches, which are the frontal, lacrimal and nasociliary.

      The frontal branch of the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve is responsible for the innervation of the area in question.

      The superior alveolar dental, zygomatic and sphenopalatine nerves are all branches arising from the maxillary division of the trigeminal nerve.

      The mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve provides sensory and motor innervation. The sensory innervation is carried out by the auriculotemporal nerve which supplies the lower third of the face, while the motor fibres are responsible for controlling the muscles of mastication.

      The somatic sensory branches of the vagus nerve are responsible for sensory innervation of the external acoustic meatus and tympanic membrane.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
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  • Question 141 - Which of the following statement is true regarding the mechanism of action of...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statement is true regarding the mechanism of action of doxycycline?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inhibit 30S subunit of ribosomes

      Explanation:

      Doxycycline belongs to the family of tetracyclines and inhibits protein synthesis through reversible binding to bacterial 30s ribosomal subunits, which prevent binding of new incoming amino acids (aminoacyl-tRNA) and thus interfere with peptide growth.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 142 - Which of the following statements is true with regards to 2,3-diphosphoglycerate (2,3-DPG)? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is true with regards to 2,3-diphosphoglycerate (2,3-DPG)?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Production is increased in heart failure

      Explanation:

      During glycolysis, 2,3-diphosphoglycerate (2,3-DPG) is
      created in erythrocytes by the Rapoport-Luebering shunt.

      The production of 2,3-DPG increases for several conditions
      in the presence of decreased peripheral tissue O2 availability.
      Some of these conditions include hypoxaemia, chronic lung
      disease anaemia, and congestive heart failure. Thus,
      2,3-DPG production is likely an important adaptive mechanism.

      High levels of 2,3-DPG cause a shift of the curve to the right.
      Low levels of 2,3-DPG cause a shift of the curve to the left,
      as seen in states such as septic shock and hypophosphatemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
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  • Question 143 - Which one of the following causes vasoconstriction? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following causes vasoconstriction?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Angiotensin II

      Explanation:

      Prostacyclin is a strong vasodilator. It is administered as an intravenous infusion for critical ischemia. Commercially, it is available as sodium epoprodtenol.

      Atrial Natriuretic peptide (ANP) hormone secreted from the atria, kidney, and neural tissues. It primarily acts on renal vessel to maintain normal blood pressure and reduce plasma volume by: increasing the renal excretion of salt and water, glomerular filtration rate, vasodilation, and by increasing the vascular permeability. It also inhibits the release of renin and aldosterone.

      Indoramin is an alpha-adrenoceptor blocking agent. which act selectively on post-synaptic-alpha adrenoreceptor, leading to decease in peripheral resistance.

      Angiotensin II is a vasoconstrictor, causing high sodium retention. It also increases the secretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) and aldosterone level.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 144 - What is the number of valves between the superior vena cava and the...

    Incorrect

    • What is the number of valves between the superior vena cava and the right atrium?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: None

      Explanation:

      The inflow of blood from the superior vena cava is directed towards the right atrioventricular orifice. It returns deoxygenated blood from all structures superior to the diaphragm, except the lungs and heart.

      There are no valves in the superior vena cava which is why it is relatively easy to insert a CVP line from the internal jugular vein into the right atrium. The brachiocephalic vein is similar as it also has no valves.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
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  • Question 145 - Following a physical assault, a 28-year-old man is admitted to the emergency room....

    Incorrect

    • Following a physical assault, a 28-year-old man is admitted to the emergency room. A golf club has struck him in the head.

      There is a large haematoma on the scalp, as well as a bleeding wound. In response to painful stimuli, he opens his eyes and makes deliberate movements. Because of inappropriate responses, a history is impossible to construct, but words can be discerned.

      Which of the options below best describes his current Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS)?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: E2V3M5=10

      Explanation:

      The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) has been used in outcome models as a measure of physiological derangement and as a tool for assessing head trauma.

      Eye opening (E):

      4 Spontaneously
      3 Responds to voice
      2 Responds to painful stimulus
      1 No response.

      Best verbal response (V):

      5 Orientated, converses normally
      4 Confused, disoriented conversation, but able to answer basic questions
      3 Inappropriate responses, words discernible
      2 Incomprehensible speech
      1 Makes no sounds.

      Best motor response (M):

      6 Obeys commands for movement
      5 Purposeful movement to painful stimulus
      4 Withdraws from pain
      3 Abnormal (spastic) flexor response to painful stimuli, decorticate posture
      2 Extensor response to painful stimuli, decerebrate posture
      1 No response.

      In this case, GCS = 2+3+5 = 10.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
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  • Question 146 - The spinal cord in a neonate terminates at the lower border of: ...

    Incorrect

    • The spinal cord in a neonate terminates at the lower border of:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: L3

      Explanation:

      The spinal cord and the vertebral canal are as long as each other in early fetal life. The length of the cord increases faster than the growth of the vertebrae during development. By the time of birth, the spinal cord is at the level of the lower border of the 3rd lumbar vertebra, compared to its original position at the level of the 2nd coccygeal vertebra.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
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  • Question 147 - An older woman has been brought into the emergency department with symptoms of...

    Incorrect

    • An older woman has been brought into the emergency department with symptoms of a stroke. A CT angiogram is performed for diagnosis, which displays narrowing in the artery that supplies the right common carotid. Which of the following artery is the cause of stroke in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Brachiocephalic artery

      Explanation:

      The arch of aorta gives rise to three main branches:
      1. Brachiocephalic artery
      2. Left common carotid artery
      3. Left subclavian artery

      The brachiocephalic artery then gives rise to the right subclavian artery and the right common carotid artery.

      The right common carotid artery arises from the brachiocephalic trunk posterior to the sternoclavicular joint.

      The coeliac trunk is a branch of the abdominal aorta.
      The ascending aorta supplies the coronary arteries.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
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  • Question 148 - A global cerebral blood flow (CBF) of 35 ml/100 g/min (Normal CBF =...

    Incorrect

    • A global cerebral blood flow (CBF) of 35 ml/100 g/min (Normal CBF = 54 ml/100 g/min) can lead to which of the following?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Poor prognostic EEG

      Explanation:

      CBF is defined as the blood volume that flows per unit mass per unit time in brain tissue and is typically expressed in units of ml blood/100 g tissue/minute. The normal average CBF in adults human is about 50 ml/100 g/min, with lower values in the white matter (,20 ml/100 g/min) and greater values in the gray matter (,80 ml/100 g/min).

      Low CBF levels between 30-40 ml/100 g/min may begin to show poor prognostic EEG. EEG findings consistently associated with a poor outcome are isoelectric EEG, low voltage EEG, and burst suppression (specifically burst suppression with identical bursts), as well as the absence of EEG reactivity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
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  • Question 149 - During 2015 it was reported in the New England Journal of Medicine that...

    Incorrect

    • During 2015 it was reported in the New England Journal of Medicine that the usage of empagliflozin(a sodium-glucose-co-transporter 2 inhibitor) caused a decrease in the cardiovascular deaths, non fatal heart attacks and strokes in patients suffering from type 2 diabetes. The results were published per 1000 patient years. With the above mentioned drug, the event rate turned out to be 37.3/1000 patient years whereas the placebo had an event rate of 43.9/1000 patient years.

      How many further patients need to be treated with empagliflozin to avoid any further incidence of cardiovascular death or non fatal myocardial infraction and non fatal stroke?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 150

      Explanation:

      Number needed to treat can be defined as the number of patients who need to be treated to prevent one additional bad outcome.

      It can be found as:

      NNT=1/Absolute Risk Reduction (rounded to the next integer since number of patients can be integer only).

      where ARR= (Risk factor associated with the new drug group) — (Risk factor associated with the currently available drug)

      So,

      ARR= (43.9-37.3)

      ARR= 6.6

      NNT= 1000/6.6

      NNT=151.5

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
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  • Question 150 - Which of the given statements is true about standard error of the mean?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the given statements is true about standard error of the mean?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gets smaller as the sample size increases

      Explanation:

      The standard error of the mean (SEM) is a measure of the spread expected for the mean of the observations – i.e. how ‘accurate’ the calculated sample mean is from the true population mean. The relationship between the standard error of the mean and the standard deviation is such that, for a given sample size, the standard error of the mean equals the standard deviation divided by the square root of the sample size.

      SEM = SD / square root (n)

      where SD = standard deviation and n = sample size

      Therefore, the SEM gets smaller as the sample size (n) increases.

      If we want to depict how widely scattered some measurements are, we use the standard deviation. For indicating the uncertainty around the estimate of the mean, we use the standard error of the mean. The standard error is most useful as a means of calculating a confidence interval. For a large sample, a 95% confidence interval is obtained as the values 1.96×SE either side of the mean.

      A 95% confidence interval:

      lower limit = mean – (1.96 * SEM)

      upper limit = mean + (1.96 * SEM)

      Results such as mean value are often presented along with a confidence interval. For example, in a study the mean height in a sample taken from a population is 183cm. You know that the standard error (SE) (the standard deviation of the mean) is 2cm. This gives a 95% confidence interval of 179-187cm (+/- 2 SE).

      Hence, it would be wrong to say that confidence levels do not apply to standard error of the mean.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
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  • Question 151 - The half-empty cylinder weighs 4.44 kg.
    The tare weight of a nitrous...

    Incorrect

    • The half-empty cylinder weighs 4.44 kg.
      The tare weight of a nitrous oxide cylinder is 4 kg.
      The molecular weight of nitrous oxide is 44gm.

      Based on the data, how many litres of nitrous oxide remains in the cylinder for use?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 224 litres

      Explanation:

      The Tare weight of a cylinder is the weight when it is empty. So,

      Weight of cylinder – tare weight = weight of remaining N2O (g).
      4.44 kg – 4 kg = 0.44 kg
      Here,
      0.44 kg of nitrous oxide remains in the cylinder

      Since the molecular weight of nitrous oxide is 44 g and one mole of an ideal gas will occupy a volume of 22.4 litres at STP
      Therefore amount left in the cylinder is several (gN2O/44) x 22.4 litres of N2O.

      (440/44) x 22.4 = 224 litres.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Physics
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  • Question 152 - A 55-year-old male is diagnosed with superior vena cava obstruction. What is the...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old male is diagnosed with superior vena cava obstruction. What is the number of collateral circulations that exist for alternate pathways for venous return?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Four

      Explanation:

      Superior vena cava is the main vein bringing blood back to the heart. It can get partially or completely blocked by various causes, the most common being due to malignant tumours of the mediastinum.

      There are collateral pathways that form in long-standing cases with 60% or more stenosis and continue venous drainage in cases of superior vena obstruction. The collaterals are classified into four as follows:

      1. The azygos-hemiazygos pathway
      Azygos, hemiazygos, intercostal, and lumbar veins.

      2. The internal and external mammary pathway
      internal mammary, superior epigastric, and inferior epigastric veins and superficial veins of the thorax.

      3. The lateral thoracic pathway
      Lateral thoracic, thoracoepigastric, superficial circumflex, long saphenous, and femoral veins to collateralize to the IVC.

      4. The vertebral pathway
      Innominate, vertebral, intercostal, lumbar, and sacral veins to collateralize to the azygos and internal mammary pathways.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
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  • Question 153 - A strain gauge operates on which of the following principles? ...

    Incorrect

    • A strain gauge operates on which of the following principles?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Varying resistance of a wire when stretched

      Explanation:

      The principle by which a strain gauge works is that when a wire is stretched, it becomes longer and thinner, and as a result, its resistance increases.

      A strain gauge, which is used in pressure transducers, acts as a resistor. When the pressure in a pressure transducer changes, the diaphragm moves, changing the tension in the resistance wire and thus changing the resistance.

      Changes in current flow through the resistor are amplified and displayed as a pressure change measure.

      A Wheatstone bridge, on the other hand, is frequently used to measure or monitor these changes in resistance.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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  • Question 154 - A 40-year old farmer came into the emergency room with a chief complaint...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year old farmer came into the emergency room with a chief complaint of 4 episodes of non-bloody diarrhoea. This was associated with frequent urination, vomiting and salivation. History also revealed frequent use of insecticides. Upon physical examination, there was miosis and bradycardia.

      Given the different types of bonds, which is the most likely bond formed between insecticide poisoning and receptors?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Covalent

      Explanation:

      Organophosphate poisoning occurs most often due to accidental exposure to toxic amounts of pesticides. Signs and symptoms include diarrhoea, urination, miosis, bradycardia, emesis, lacrimation, lethargy and salivation.

      Organophosphates are classified as indirect acting cholinomimetics, and their mode of action involves: (1) the inhibition of acetylcholinesterase (AChE) by forming a stable covalent bond on the active site serine; and, (2) amplification of endogenously release acetylcholine (ACh), hence the clinical manifestation.

      There are 4 types of bonds or interactions: ionic, covalent, hydrogen bonds, and van der Waals interactions. Ionic and covalent bonds are strong interactions that require a larger energy input to break apart. When an element donates an electron from its outer shell, a positive ion is formed. The element accepting the electron is now negatively charged. Because positive and negative charges attract, these ions stay together and form an ionic bond. Covalent bonds form when an electron is shared between two elements and are the strongest and most common form of chemical bond in living organisms. Covalent bonds form between the elements that make up the biological molecules in our cells. Unlike ionic bonds, covalent bonds do not dissociate in water.

      When polar covalent bonds containing a hydrogen atom form, the hydrogen atom in that bond has a slightly positive charge. This is because the shared electron is pulled more strongly toward the other element and away from the hydrogen nucleus. Because the hydrogen atom is slightly positive, it will be attracted to neighbouring negative partial charges. When this happens, a weak interaction occurs between the slightly positive charge of the hydrogen atom of one molecule and the slightly negative charge of the other molecule. This interaction is called a hydrogen bond.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
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  • Question 155 - All of the following are causes of hypalbuminaemia except: ...

    Incorrect

    • All of the following are causes of hypalbuminaemia except:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Starvation

      Explanation:

      Major surgery induces the systemic inflammatory response and this causes endothelial leakage and a low albumin level.

      Albumin is a single polypeptide which is made but not stored in the liver. Therefore, levels are a reflection of synthetic activity. It is negatively charged and very soluble.

      Only 40% of albumin is intravascular, and the rest in the in interstitial compartment.

      If there was normal liver function during starvation, albumin will be maintained and proteolysis will occur elsewhere.
      It is not catabolised during starvation.
      Starvation and malnutrition may, however, present as part of other disease processes that are associated with hypalbuminaemia.

      Causes of low albumin are

      1. Decreased production (hepatic dysfunction)
      2. Increased loss (renal dysfunction)
      3. Redistribution (endothelial leak/damage)
      4. Increased catabolism (very rare)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
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  • Question 156 - A 16-year-old female presented to the hospital with a chief complaint of headache,...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old female presented to the hospital with a chief complaint of headache, photophobia, fever, and confusion. She is treated empirically with antibiotics. Which of the following represents the correct mechanism of action of the most commonly used first-line antibiotic class?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inhibition of cell wall synthesis

      Explanation:

      Based on the presenting symptoms, this is the case of bacterial meningitis. The treatment of choice for bacterial meningitis is a cephalosporin. Cephalosporin acts by inhibiting bacterial cell wall synthesis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 157 - Activation of which of the following GABA A receptor subunit leads to anxiolytic...

    Incorrect

    • Activation of which of the following GABA A receptor subunit leads to anxiolytic effects of Benzodiazepines?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Alpha

      Explanation:

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 158 - A 42 year old man came to the out-patient department with attacks of...

    Incorrect

    • A 42 year old man came to the out-patient department with attacks of facial pain. Upon further questioning, he reported that the pain was intermittent, often occurring spontaneously. The quality of the pain was sharp, and severity was moderate to moderately severe. The pain was non-radiating, and often involved the left maxillary and mandibular areas.

      Other medical information of the patient, such as allergies and co-morbidities, were unremarkable.

      Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis of the patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Trigeminal neuralgia

      Explanation:

      Trigeminal neuralgia is characterized by excruciating paroxysms of pain in the lips, gums, cheek, or chin and, very rarely, in the distribution of the fifth nerve. The pain seldom lasts more than a few seconds or a minute or two but may be so intense that the patient winces, hence the term tic. The paroxysms, experienced as single jabs or clusters, tend to recur frequently, both day and night, for several weeks at a time. They may occur spontaneously or with movements of affected areas evoked by speaking, chewing, or smiling. Another characteristic feature is the presence of trigger zones, typically on the face, lips, or tongue, that provoke attacks; patients may report that tactile stimuli – e.g., washing the face, brushing the teeth, or exposure to a draft of air – generate excruciating pain. An essential feature of trigeminal neuralgia is that objective signs of sensory loss cannot be demonstrated on examination.

      Trigeminal neuralgia is relatively common, with an estimated annual incidence of 4–8 per 100,000 individuals. Middle-aged and elderly persons are affected primarily, and ,60% of cases occur in women. Onset is typically sudden, and bouts tend to persist for weeks or months before remitting spontaneously. Remissions may be long-lasting, but in most patients, the disorder ultimately recurs.

      An ESR or CRP is indicated if temporal arteritis is suspected. In typical cases of trigeminal neuralgia, neuroimaging studies are usually unnecessary but may be valuable if MS is a consideration or in assessing overlying vascular lesions in order to plan for decompression surgery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
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  • Question 159 - Sugammadex binds to certain drugs that affect neuromuscular function during anaesthesia in a...

    Incorrect

    • Sugammadex binds to certain drugs that affect neuromuscular function during anaesthesia in a stereospecific, non-covalent, and irreversible manner.

      It has the greatest impact on the activity of which of the following drugs?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Vecuronium

      Explanation:

      Sugammadex is a modified cyclodextrin that works as an aminosteroid neuromuscular blocking (nmb) reversal agent. By encapsulating each molecule in the plasma, it rapidly reverses rocuronium and, to a lesser extent, vecuronium-induced neuromuscular blockade. Consequently, a  concentration gradient favours the movement of these nmb agents away from the neuromuscular junction.  Pancuronium-induced neuromuscular blockade at low levels has also been reversed.

      By inhibiting voltage-dependent calcium channels at the neuromuscular junction, antibiotics in the aminoglycoside group potentiate neuromuscular blocking agents. This can be reversed by giving calcium but not neostigmine or sugammadex.

      Sugammadex will not reverse the effects of mivacurium, which belongs to the benzylisoquinolinium class of drugs.

      A phase II or desensitisation block occurs when the motor end-plate becomes less sensitive to acetylcholine as a result of an overdose or repeated administration of suxamethonium. The use of neostigmine has been shown to be effective in reversing this weakness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 160 - Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding soda lime? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding soda lime?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It mostly contains sodium hydroxide

      Explanation:

      Soda-lime contains mostly calcium hydroxide (about 94%) and remaining sodium hydroxide.

      CO2 + Ca(OH)2 → CaCO3 + H2O + heat
      Here in this exothermic reaction, we can see that the production of calcium carbonate does not require heat.

      When soda lime is allowed to dry with subsequent use of desflurane, isoflurane, and enflurane, it can lead to the generation of carbon monoxide.

      Silica hardens the granules and can thus prevent disintegration.

      The size of soda-lime granules is 4-8 mesh because it allows sufficient surface area for chemical reaction to occur without critically increasing the resistance to airflow.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 161 - Which measure of central tendency is most useful for a continuous, non-skewed data?...

    Incorrect

    • Which measure of central tendency is most useful for a continuous, non-skewed data?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mean

      Explanation:

      Mean, also known as the average, is the most common measure of central tendency. It is the sum of all observed values divided by the number of observation. It is not useful for skewed data, which has an abnormal distribution. It is useful, instead, for numerical data that have symmetric distribution. It reflects the contributions of each data in the group, and are sensitive to outliers.

      The median is the value that falls in the middle position when the observations are ranked in order from the smallest to the largest. If the number of observations is odd, the median is the middle number. If it is even, the median is the average of the two middle numbers. Unlike the mean, the median is useful on skewed data, and can be used for ordinal or numerical data if skewed.

      The mode is the value that occurs with the greatest frequency in a set of observations, and is utilized for bimodal distribution.

      The variance and the standard deviation are not measures of central tendency, but of dispersion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
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  • Question 162 - Following an uneventful laparoscopic right hemicolectomy, a previously fit and well 75-year-old male...

    Incorrect

    • Following an uneventful laparoscopic right hemicolectomy, a previously fit and well 75-year-old male is admitted to the critical care unit.

      You've been summoned to examine the patient because he's become oliguric.

      Which of the following is most likely to indicate that acute kidney injury is caused by a prerenal cause?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Serum urea: creatinine ratio 200

      Explanation:

      Prerenal failure has a serum urea: creatinine ratio of >100, while acute kidney injury has a ratio of 40.
      In prerenal failure, ADH levels are typically high, resulting in water, urea, and sodium resorption. The fractional sodium excretion is less than 1%, but it is greater than 2% in acute tubular necrosis.
      Prerenal azotaemia has higher serum urea nitrogen/serum creatinine ratios (>20), whereas acute tubular necrosis has lower ratios (10-15). The normal range is between 12 and 20.
      Urinary sodium is less than 20 in prerenal failure and greater than 40 in acute tubular necrosis.
      Prerenal failure has a urine osmolality of >500, while acute tubular necrosis has an osmolality of 350.
      Prerenal failure has a urine/serum creatinine ratio of >40, while acute tubular necrosis has a urine/serum creatinine ratio of 20.

      The concentrations of serum urea or creatinine change in inverse proportion to glomerular filtration. Changes in serum creatinine concentrations are more reliable than changes in serum urea concentrations in predicting GFR. Creatinine is produced at a constant rate from creatine, and blood concentrations are almost entirely determined by GFR.

      A number of factors influence urea formation, including liver function, protein intake, and protein catabolism rate. Urea excretion is also influenced by hydration status, the amount of water reabsorption, and GFR.

      A high serum creatinine level, as well as a urine output of less than 10 mL/hour and the production of concentrated looking urine, do not necessarily indicate a specific cause of oliguria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
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  • Question 163 - A 78-year-old man with a previous history of ischaemic heart disease is admitted...

    Incorrect

    • A 78-year-old man with a previous history of ischaemic heart disease is admitted to hospital. He is scheduled for a cardiopulmonary exercise test (CPX) before he undergoes an elective abdominal aneurysm repair.

      What measurement obtained during a CPX test alone provides the best indication for postoperative mortality?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anaerobic threshold

      Explanation:

      Cardiopulmonary exercise testing (CPX, CPEX, CPET) is a non-invasive testing method used to determine the performance of the heart, lungs and skeletal muscle. It measures the exercise tolerance of the patient.

      The parameters measured include:

      ECG and ST-segment analysis and blood pressure
      Oxygen consumption (VO2)
      Carbon dioxide production (VCO2)
      Gas flows and volumes
      Respiratory exchange ratio (RER)
      Respiratory rate
      Anaerobic threshold (AT)

      The anaerobic threshold (AT) is an estimate of exercise ability. Any measurement below 11 ml/kg/min is usually related with an increase in mortality, especially when there is a background of myocardial ischaemia occurring during the test.

      Peak VO2 <20 mL/kg with a low AT have a correlation with postoperative complications and a 30 day mortality. The CPX test is used for risk-testing patients prior to surgery to determine the appropriate postoperative care facilities. The V slope measured in CPX testing represents VO2 versus VCO2 relationship. During AT, the ramp of V slope increases, but does not provide a picture of postoperative mortality.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
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  • Question 164 - A study aimed at assessing the validity of a novel diagnostic test for...

    Incorrect

    • A study aimed at assessing the validity of a novel diagnostic test for heart failure is being performed. The curators are worried that not all the patients will get the prevalent gold standard test.

      Which type of bias is that?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Work-up bias

      Explanation:

      Work up bias involves comparing the novel diagnostic test with the current standard test. A portion of the patients undergo the standard test while others undergo the new test as the standard test is costly. The result can be alteration in specify and sensitivity.

      Selection bias is when randomisation is not achieved.

      Attention bias refers to the person’s failure to consider various alternatives when he pre occupied by some other thoughts.

      Instrument bias is related to the experience and extent of familiarization of the participating individuals with the test.

      Co intervention bias is characterized by the groups receiving different co interventions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
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  • Question 165 - What separates the tunica media from the tunica adventitia in a blood vessel?...

    Incorrect

    • What separates the tunica media from the tunica adventitia in a blood vessel?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: External elastic lamina

      Explanation:

      Blood vessels (except capillaries and venules) have three distinctive layers (innermost to outermost):
      1. Tunica intima
      2. Tunica media
      3. Tunica adventitia

      The tunica media contains smooth muscle cells and is separated from the intima layer by the internal elastic lamina and the adventitia by the external elastic lamina.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
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  • Question 166 - Which muscle separates the subclavian artery and the subclavian vein? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which muscle separates the subclavian artery and the subclavian vein?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Scalenus anterior

      Explanation:

      The subclavian artery and vein have a similar path throughout their course, with the subclavian vein running anterior to the subclavian artery. The artery and vein are separated by the insertion of the scalenus anterior muscle.

      There are three scalene muscles, found on each side of the neck:
      1. Anterior scalene
      2. Middle scalene
      3. Posterior scalene

      The scalenus anterior muscle is the anterior most of the three scalene muscles. It originates from the transverse processes of vertebrae C3-C6 and is inserted in the first rib.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
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  • Question 167 - With a cervical dilation of 7 cm, a 33-year-old term primigravida is in...

    Incorrect

    • With a cervical dilation of 7 cm, a 33-year-old term primigravida is in labour. She is otherwise in good health. She's been in labour for 14 hours and counting.

      The cardiotocograph shows late foetal pulse decelerations, and a pH of 7.24 was found in the recent foetal scalp blood sample.

      Which of the following is true about this patient's care and management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Monitor for downward trend in fetal scalp blood pH as caesarean section is not indicated at the present time

      Explanation:

      Once the decision to deliver a baby by caesarean section has been made, it should be carried out with a level of urgency commensurate with the baby’s risk and the mother’s safety.

      There are four types of caesarean section urgency:

      Category 1: A threat to the life of the mother or the foetus. 30 minutes to make a delivery decision
      Category 2 : Maternal or foetal compromise that is not immediately life threatening. In most cases, the decision to deliver is made within 75 minutes.
      Category 3 – Early delivery is required, but there is no risk to the mother or the foetus.
      Category 4: Elective delivery at a time that is convenient for both the mother and the maternity staff.

      There may be evidence of foetal compromise in the example above (late foetal pulse decelerations and a borderline pH).

      Blood samples from the foetus:
      normal: 7.25 or above
      borderline: 7.21 to 7.24
      abnormal: 7.20 or below

      When a foetal deceleration occurs, the mother should be given oxygen, kept in a left lateral position, and given a tocolytic if the foetal deceleration is hyper stimulating. Maintaining adequate hydration will reduce the likelihood of a caesarean section.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
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  • Question 168 - A patient's ECG is abnormal, with an abnormal broad complex QRS complexes. This...

    Incorrect

    • A patient's ECG is abnormal, with an abnormal broad complex QRS complexes. This means either a ventricular origin problem or aberrant conduction. The normal resting membrane potential of the heart's ventricular contractile fibres is which of the following?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: -90mV

      Explanation:

      The cardiac muscle’s contractile fibres have a much more stable resting potential than its conductive fibres. In the ventricular fibres it is -90mV and in the atrial fibres it is -80mV.

      The cardiac action potential has several phases which have different mechanisms of action as seen below:

      Phase 0: Rapid depolarisation – caused by a rapid sodium influx.
      These channels automatically deactivate after a few ms. (QRS complex)

      Phase 1: caused by early repolarisation and an efflux of potassium.

      Phase 2: Plateau – caused by a slow influx of calcium.

      Phase 3 – Final repolarisation – caused by an efflux of potassium.

      Phase 4 – Restoration of ionic concentrations – The resting potential is restored by Na+/K+ATPase.
      There is slow entry of Na+into the cell which decreases the potential difference until the threshold potential is reached. This then triggers a new action potential

      Of note, cardiac muscle remains contracted 10-15 times longer than skeletal muscle.

      Different sites have different conduction velocities:
      1. Atrial conduction – Spreads along ordinary atrial myocardial fibres at 1 m/sec

      2. AV node conduction – 0.05 m/sec

      3. Ventricular conduction – Purkinje fibres are of large diameter and achieve velocities of 2-4 m/sec, the fastest conduction in the heart. This allows a rapid and coordinated contraction of the ventricles

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
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  • Question 169 - All of the following statements about cerebrospinal fluid are incorrect except: ...

    Incorrect

    • All of the following statements about cerebrospinal fluid are incorrect except:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Has a glucose concentration 2/3 that of the plasma glucose

      Explanation:

      The pH of CSF is 7.31 which is lower than plasma.

      Compared to plasma, it has a lower concentration of potassium, calcium, and protein and a higher concentration of sodium, chloride, bicarbonate and magnesium.

      CSF usually has no cells present but if white cells are present, there should be no more than 4/ml.

      The pressure of CSF should be less than 20 cm of water.

      The concentration of glucose is approximately two-thirds of that of plasma, and it has a concentration of approximately 3.3-4 mmol/L.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
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  • Question 170 - The following haemodynamic data is available from a patient with pulmonary artery catheter...

    Incorrect

    • The following haemodynamic data is available from a patient with pulmonary artery catheter inserted:

      Pulse rate - 100 beats per minute
      Blood pressure - 120/70mmHg
      Mean central venous pressure (MCVP) - 10mmHg
      Right ventricular pressure (RVP) - 30/4 mmHg
      Mean pulmonary artery wedge pressure (MPAWP) - 12mmHg

      Which value best approximates the patient's coronary perfusion pressure?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 58mmHg

      Explanation:

      Coronary perfusion pressure(CPP), the difference between aortic diastolic pressure (Pdiastolic) and the left ventricular end-diastolic pressure (LVEDP), is mainly determined by the formula:

      CPP = Pdiastolic -LVEDP
      where
      Pdiastolic is the lowest pressure in the aorta before left ventricular ejection and
      LVEDP is measured directly during a cardiac catheterisation or indirectly using a pulmonary artery catheter. The pulmonary artery occlusion or wedge pressure approximates best with LVEDP.

      Using this patient’s haemodynamic data:

      CPP = Pdiastolic – MPAWP
      COO = 70 – 12 = 58mmHg

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
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  • Question 171 - An 81-year old man was admitted to the Pulmonology Ward due to chronic...

    Incorrect

    • An 81-year old man was admitted to the Pulmonology Ward due to chronic obstructive airway disease (COPD) exacerbation. Upon physical examination, he was hypertensive at 140/90 mmHg, tachycardic at 114 beats per minute, and tachypnoeic at 33 breaths per minute.

      Arterial blood gas analysis was obtained and showed the following results:

      pH: 7.25 (Reference range: 7.35-7.45)
      PaO2: 73 mmHg (9.7 kPa) (Reference range: 11.3-12.6 kPa)
      PaCO2: 56 mmHg (7.5 kPa) (Reference range: 4.7-6.0 kPa)
      SaO2: 90%
      Standard bicarbonate: 29 mmol/L (Reference range: 20-28)
      BE: +4 mmol/L (± 2)

      Which of the following options has the most significant impact on his respiratory rate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: CSF pH

      Explanation:

      The arterial blood gas analysis indicates presence of acute respiratory acidosis.

      Central chemoreceptors are located in the ventral medulla and respond directly to presence of hydrogen ions in the CSF. When stimulated, it causes an increase in respiratory rate.

      It is believed that hydrogen ions may be the only important direct stimulus for these neurons, however, CO2 is believed to stimulate these neurons secondarily by changing the hydrogen ion concentration.

      Changes in O2 concentration have virtually no direct effect on the respiratory centre itself to alter respiratory drive. Although, O2 changes do have an indirect effect by acting through the peripheral chemoreceptors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
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  • Question 172 - Which of the following statements is not correct regarding Noradrenaline? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is not correct regarding Noradrenaline?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Predominantly work through effects on ?-adrenergic receptors

      Explanation:

      Noradrenaline also called norepinephrine belongs to the catecholamine family that functions in the brain and body as both a hormone and neurotransmitter.

      They have sympathomimetic effects acting via adrenoceptors (?1, ?2,?1, ?2, ?3) or dopamine receptors (D1, D2).

      May cause reflex bradycardia, reduce cardiac output and increase myocardial oxygen consumption

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 173 - The external laryngeal nerve is responsible for the innervation of which of the...

    Incorrect

    • The external laryngeal nerve is responsible for the innervation of which of the following muscles?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cricothyroid

      Explanation:

      The external laryngeal nerve arises from the superior laryngeal nerve and provides innervation to the cricothyroid muscle.

      The other muscles mentioned receive their innervations from the recurrent laryngeal nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
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  • Question 174 - With regards to arterial oxygen content, which of the following contributes most from...

    Incorrect

    • With regards to arterial oxygen content, which of the following contributes most from a quantitative perspective?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Haemoglobin concentration

      Explanation:

      The amount of oxygen carried by 100 ml of blood is called the arterial oxygen content (CaO2)and is normally 17-24 ml/dL and can be determined by this equation:

      CaO2 = oxygen bound to haemoglobin + oxygen dissolved in plasma

      CaO2 = (1.34 × Hgb × SaO2 × 0.01) + (0.003 × PaO2)

      where:

      1.34 = Huffner’s constant (D) – Huffner’s constant does not change and its magnitude relatively small.
      Hgb is the haemoglobin level in g/dL and SaO2 is the percent oxyhaemoglobin saturation of arterial blood
      PaO2 is (0.0225 = ml of O2 dissolved per 100 ml plasma per kPa, or 0.003 ml per mmHg).

      Quantitatively, the amount of oxygen dissolved in plasma is 0.3 mL/dL.

      Henry’s law states that at constant temperature, the amount of gas dissolved at equilibrium in a given quantity of a liquid is proportional to the pressure of the gas in contact with the liquid.

      Given a haemoglobin concentration of 15 g/dL and a SaO2 of 100% and a PaO2 of 13.3 kPa, the amount of oxygen bound to haemoglobin is 20.4 mL/100mL.

      Cardiac output is an important determinant of oxygen delivery but does not influence the oxygen content of blood.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Physics
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  • Question 175 - You have always been curious about the effects of statins. While going through...

    Incorrect

    • You have always been curious about the effects of statins. While going through a study, something ticks you off and makes you think that they are way more common then the data suggests and are mostly under reported. In search of some concrete evidence, you decide to conduct a study of your own. While doing research, you come across a recent study that highlights the long term effects of statins.

      Which of the following types of study could that have been?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Clinical trial, Phase 4

      Explanation:

      In general practice, majority of phase 3 trials and some of the trials conducted in phase 2 are randomized. Because phase 4 trials require a huge sample size, they are not randomized as much. The primal reason behind conducting phase 3 trials is to test the efficiency and safety in a significant sample population. At this point it is assumed that the drug is effective up to a certain extent.

      During a case-control study, subjects that exhibit outcomes of interest are compared with those who don’t show the expected outcome. The extent of exposure to a particular risk factor is then matched between cases and controls. If the exposure among cases surpasses controls, it becomes a risk factor for the outcome that is being studied.

      Pilot studies are conducted on a lower and much smaller level, to assess if a randomized controlled trial of the crucial components of a study will be plausible.

      Phase 4 trials are the ones that are conducted after its established that the drug is effective and is approved by the regulating authority for use. These trials are concerned with the side effects and potential risks associated with the long term usage of the drug.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
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  • Question 176 - Desflurane has which of the following characteristics when compared with halothane? ...

    Incorrect

    • Desflurane has which of the following characteristics when compared with halothane?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Less biodegradation

      Explanation:

      Approximately 20% of halothane and 0.02% desflurane undergo hepatic biotransformation. Desflurane, halothane, and isoflurane are metabolised in the liver by cytochrome p450 to trifluoroacetate. Through an immunological mechanism involving trifluoroacetyl hapten formation, trifluoroacetate is thought to be responsible for hepatotoxicity.

      Potency of inhaled anaesthetic agents is measured using the minimal alveolar concentration (MAC). The MAC of halothane is 0.74% while that of desflurane is 6.3%. The potency can also be compared using the oil: gas partition coefficient (224 and 18.7 for halothane and desflurane respectively).

      Onset of action of volatile agents depends on the blood:gas partition coefficient. A lower blood:gas partition coefficient and insolubility in blood means faster onset and offset of action. The blood gas coefficient for halothane is 2.4 while that of desflurane is 0.42. Desflurane is less soluble than halothane in blood. Halothane has a pungent smell that can irritate the airway which limits its use for a gaseous induction especially in paediatric anaesthesia. desflurane is not pungent.

      Desfluranes boiling point is only slightly above normal room temperature (22.8°C) making it extremely volatile while the boiling point of halothane is approximately 50.2°C.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 177 - Which of the following statements is true about monoamine oxidase (MOA) enzymes? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is true about monoamine oxidase (MOA) enzymes?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Type A and type B are found in the liver and brain

      Explanation:

      Monoamine oxidase (MOA) enzymes are responsible for the catalyses of monoamine oxidative deamination. It assists the degradation of serotonin, norepinephrine (NE) and dopamine.

      They are found in the mitochondria of most central and peripheral nerve tissues.

      There are 2 different types:

      Type A: Whose main function it to inactivate dopamine, tyramine, norepinephrine and 5-hydroxytryptamine. In addition to the nervous system, it is also found in the liver, brain gastrointestinal tract, pulmonary endothelium and placenta
      Type B: Whose main function is to inactivate dopamine, tyramine, tryptamine and phenylethylamine. In addition to the nervous system, it is also found in the liver, brain (especially in the basal ganglia) and blood platelets.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
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  • Question 178 - A 27-year-old woman presents to emergency department. She is experiencing generalised seizures.

    She is...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old woman presents to emergency department. She is experiencing generalised seizures.

      She is given emergency management of her symptoms before being referred to the neurologist who diagnoses her with new onset of tonic-clonic epilepsy.

      What is the most appropriate first line of treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lamotrigine should be offered as first line of treatment

      Explanation:

      Tonic-clonic (Grand mal) epilepsy is characterised by a general loss of consciousness with violent involuntary muscle contractions.

      The NICE guidelines for treatment indicates the use of sodium valproate and lamotrigine, but sodium valproate unsuitable in this case and she is a woman of reproductive age and it is known to have teratogenic effects. Lamotrigine is a more suitable choice, prescribed as 800mg daily.

      NICE guidelines also advice an additional prescription of 5mg of folic acid daily for women on anticonvulsant therapy looking to get pregnant. It also warns of the need for extra contraceptive precaution as there is a possibly that the anticonvulsant agent can reduce levels of contraceptive agents.

      Stimulation of the vagal nerve stimulation is only necessary in patients who are refractory to medical treatment and not candidates for surgical resection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
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  • Question 179 - A 25-year-old man, has been scheduled for a splenectomy. For this procedure, he...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man, has been scheduled for a splenectomy. For this procedure, he requires a urethral catheter.

      Where does resistance first occur during the insertion of a catheter?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Membranous urethra

      Explanation:

      The membranous urethra is the shortest part of the urethra and the least dilatable part of it.

      This is as a result of it being surrounded by the external urethral sphincter which is made up of striated muscle and controls voluntary urine flow from the bladder to the urethra.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
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  • Question 180 - An inguinal hernia repair under general anaesthesia is scheduled for a fit 36-year-old...

    Incorrect

    • An inguinal hernia repair under general anaesthesia is scheduled for a fit 36-year-old man (75 kg). For perioperative and postoperative analgesia, you decide to perform an inguinal field block.

      Which of the following local anaesthetic solutions is the most appropriate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 30 mL bupivacaine 0.5%

      Explanation:

      Perioperative and postoperative analgesia can both be provided by an inguinal hernia field block. The Iliohypogastric and ilioinguinal nerves, as well as the skin, superficial fascia, and deeper structures, must be blocked for maximum effectiveness. The local anaesthetic should ideally have a long duration of action, be highly concentrated, and have a volume of at least 30 mL.

      Plain bupivacaine has a maximum safe dose of 2 mg/kg body weight.

      Because the patient weighs 75 kg, 150 mg bupivacaine can be safely administered. Both 30 mL 0.5 percent bupivacaine (150 mg) and 60 mL 0.25 percent bupivacaine (150 mg) are acceptable doses, but 30 mL 0.5 percent bupivacaine represents the optimal volume and strength, potentially providing a denser and longer block.

      The maximum safe dose of plain lidocaine has been estimated to be between 3.5 and 5 mg/kg. The patient weighs 75 kg and can receive a maximum of 375 mg using the higher dosage regimen:

      There are 200 mg of lidocaine in 10 mL of 2% lidocaine (and therefore 11 mL contains 220 mg)
      200 mg of lidocaine is contained in 20 mL of 1% lidocaine.

      While alternatives are available, Although the doses of 11 mL lidocaine 2% and 20 mL lidocaine 1% are well within the dose limit, the volumes used are insufficient for effective field block for this surgery.

      With 1 in 200,000 epinephrine, the maximum safe dose of lidocaine is 7 mg/kg. The patient can be given 525 mg in this case. Even with epinephrine, 60 mL of 1% lidocaine is 600 mg, which could be considered an overdose.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 181 - Which of the following is a characteristic of a type 1B antiarrhythmic agent...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is a characteristic of a type 1B antiarrhythmic agent such as Lidocaine?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Shortens refractory period

      Explanation:

      The action of class 1 anti-arrhythmic is sodium channel blockade. Subclasses of this action reflect effects on the action potential duration (APD) and the kinetics of sodium channel blockade.

      Drugs with class 1A prolong the APD and refractory period, and dissociate from the channel with intermediate kinetics.

      Drugs with class 1B action shorten the APD in some tissues of the heart, shorten the refractory period, and dissociate from the channel with rapid kinetics.

      Drugs with class 1C action have minimal effects on the APD and the refractory period, and dissociate from the channel with slow kinetics.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 182 - Arterial pressure waveforms give an indication of the operation of the heart and...

    Incorrect

    • Arterial pressure waveforms give an indication of the operation of the heart and the patient's clinical state.

      Which of the following listed characteristics of arterial waveforms is most indicative of myocardial contractility?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Slope of the upstroke of the curve.

      Explanation:

      Arterial pressure waveforms is an invasive form of monitoring cardiac parameters. It provides a lot of information on the performance of the heart from different sections, including:

      Cardiac measurements:

      Heart rate
      Systolic pressure
      Diastolic pressure
      Mean arterial pressure
      Pulse pressure
      Change in pulse amplitude corresponding to respiratory changes
      Slope of anacrotic limb associated with aortic stenosis

      From the shape of the arterial waveform displayed:

      Slope of anacrotic limb represents aortic valve and LVOT flow
      Indications of aortic stenosis (AS): Slurred wave, collapsing wave
      Rapid systolic decline in LVOTO
      Bisferiens wave in HOCM
      Low dicrotic notch in states with poor peripheral resistance
      Position and quality of dicrotic notch as a reflection of the damping coefficient

      For this question, the upstroke slope of the pressure wave is indicative of myocardial contractility and is mathematically represented as:

      dP/dt, which represents a change of pressure with regards to time.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
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  • Question 183 - A cannula is inserted into the cephalic vein of a 30-year-old man. Which...

    Incorrect

    • A cannula is inserted into the cephalic vein of a 30-year-old man. Which of the following structures does the cephalic vein pass through?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Clavipectoral fascia

      Explanation:

      The cephalic vein is one of the primary superficial veins of the upper limb. The superficial group of upper limb veins begin as an irregular dorsal arch on the back of the hand.

      The cephalic vein originates in the anatomical snuffbox from the radial side of the arch and travels laterally up, within the superficial fascia to join the basilic vein via the median cubital vein at the elbow.

      Near the shoulder, it passes between the deltoid and pectoralis major muscles. It pierces the coracoid membrane (continuation of the clavipectoral fascia) to terminate in the axillary vein’s first part.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
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  • Question 184 - Which of the following anaesthetic agents is most suitable for inhalational induction in...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following anaesthetic agents is most suitable for inhalational induction in an 8-year-old child for inhalational induction of anaesthesia before routine surgery?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sevoflurane at 4%

      Explanation:

      The ideal agent for this case should have low blood: gas coefficient, pleasant smell, and high oil: gas coefficient (potent with a low Minimum alveolar coefficient (MAC)). Among the given options, Sevoflurane is perfect with 0.692 blood: gas partition coefficient and is low pungency, and is sweet.

      Other drugs with their blood: gas partition coefficient and their smell are given as:
      Blood/gas partition coefficient MAC Smell
      Enflurane 1.8 1.68 Pungent, ethereal
      Desflurane 0.42 7 Pungent, ethereal
      Halothane 2.54 0.71 Sweet
      Isoflurane 1.4 1.15 Pungent, ethereal

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 185 - Which of the following is the most appropriate first-line pharmacologic treatment for status...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is the most appropriate first-line pharmacologic treatment for status epilepticus?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lorazepam

      Explanation:

      Lorazepam is an intermediate-acting benzodiazepine that binds to the GABA-A receptor subunit to increase the frequency of chloride channel opening and cause membrane hyperpolarization.

      Lorazepam has emerged as the preferred benzodiazepine for acute management of status epilepticus. Lorazepam differs from diazepam in two important respects. It is less lipid-soluble than diazepam, with a distribution half-life of two to three hours versus 15 minutes for diazepam. Therefore, it should have a longer duration of clinical effect. Lorazepam also binds the GABAergic receptor more tightly than diazepam, resulting in a longer duration of action. The anticonvulsant effects of lorazepam last six to 12 hours, and the typical dose ranges from 4 to 8 mg. This agent also has a broad spectrum of efficacy, terminating seizures in 75-80% of cases. Its adverse effects are identical to those of diazepam. Thus, lorazepam also is an effective choice for acute seizure management, with the added possibility of a longer duration of action than diazepam.

      Phenobarbitone is a long-acting barbiturate that binds to GABA-A receptor site and increase the duration of chloride channel opening. It also blocks glutamic acid neurotransmission, and, at high doses, can block sodium channels. It is considered as the drug of choice for seizures in infants.

      Phenytoin is an anti-seizure drug that blocks voltage-gated sodium channels. It is preferred in prolonged therapy of status epilepticus because it is less sedating.

      In cases wherein airway protection is required, thiopentone and propofol are the preferred drugs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 186 - Which of the following is true about the patellar reflex? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is true about the patellar reflex?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Is abolished immediately after transection of the spinal cord at T6

      Explanation:

      The patellar (knee jerk) reflex is a monosynaptic stretch reflex arising from L2-L4 nerve roots. It occurs after a tap on the patellar tendon which causes the spindles of the quadriceps muscles to stretch.

      The afferent nerve pathway occurred through A gamma fibres.

      Wesphal’s sign refers to a reduction, or absence of the patellar reflex. It is often indicated of a neurological disease affecting the PNS.

      A transection of the spinal cord results in a degree of shock which causes all reflexes to be reduced or completely absent, and required a period of approximately 6 weeks to recover.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
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  • Question 187 - The following statements are about chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which is true?...

    Incorrect

    • The following statements are about chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which is true?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inhaled corticosteroid usage slows the decline in health status

      Explanation:

      Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is an obstructive, inflammatory lung condition. It encompasses symptoms of emphysema, chronic bronchitis and asthma.

      Inhaling high dose steroids are prescribed to treat COPD. They are effective at reducing symptoms and improving lung function. They also work to reduce the number of hospitalisations by decreasing the number of acute exacerbation events. Despite providing effective symptom relief, it cannot slow down the decline of FEV1 as COPD is an irreversible condition.

      COPD reduces the FEV1 measurements, as well as the FEV1/FVC ratio.

      Breathlessness is a major COPD symptom and can occur at any point in the disease progression, including at an FEV1 >50%.

      FEV1 is used in COPD staging, and it is classed as follows:
      >80%: Mild or stage I
      50 – 79%: Moderate or stage II
      30 – 49%: Severe or stage III
      <30%: Very severe or stage IV
      Patients with mild COPD are usually able to manage their condition on their own, however once the disease progresses to moderate, more GP visits are required, with those in the severe category requiring frequent hospitalisation.

      Asthma is correlated to an increase in transfer factor. COPD (emphysema) is correlated to a decreased transfer factor.

      COPD predisposes to eventual pulmonary hypertension as a result of an increase in pulmonary vascular resistance.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
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  • Question 188 - Arrythmias can develop from abnormal conduction, which may be as a result of...

    Incorrect

    • Arrythmias can develop from abnormal conduction, which may be as a result of impaired blood flow in the coronary arteries which causes hypoxia. Phase 0 depolarisation can be slowed, and this leads to slower conduction speeds.
      Rapid depolarisation in the cardiac action potential is caused by which movement of ions?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sodium influx

      Explanation:

      Cardiac conduction

      Phase 0 – Rapid depolarization. Opening of fast sodium channels with large influx of sodium

      Phase 1 – Rapid partial depolarization. Opening of potassium channels and efflux of potassium ions. Sodium channels close and influx of sodium ions stop

      Phase 2 – Plateau phase with large influx of calcium ions. Offsets action of potassium channels. The absolute refractory period

      Phase 3 – Repolarization due to potassium efflux after calcium channels close. Relative refractory period

      Phase 4 – Repolarization continues as sodium/potassium pump restores the ionic gradient by pumping out 3 sodium ions in exchange for 2 potassium ions coming into the cell. Relative refractory period

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
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  • Question 189 - The right coronary artery supplies blood to all the following, except which? ...

    Incorrect

    • The right coronary artery supplies blood to all the following, except which?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The circumflex artery

      Explanation:

      The right coronary artery supplies the right ventricle, the right atrium, the sinoatrial (SA) node and the atrioventricular (AV) node.

      The circumflex artery originates from the left coronary artery and is supplied by it.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
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  • Question 190 - All of the statements describing the blood brain barrier are false EXCEPT:...

    Incorrect

    • All of the statements describing the blood brain barrier are false EXCEPT:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inflammation alters its permeability

      Explanation:

      The blood brain barrier (BBB) consists of the ultrafiltration barrier in the choroid plexus and the barrier around cerebral capillaries. The barrier is made by endothelial cells which line the interior of all blood vessels. In the capillaries that form the blood–brain barrier, endothelial cells are wedged extremely close to each other, forming so-called tight junctions.

      Outside of the BBB lies the hypothalamus, third and fourth ventricles and the chemoreceptor trigger zone (CTZ).

      Water, oxygen and carbon dioxide cross the BBB freely but glucose is controlled. The ability of chemicals to cross the barrier is proportional to their lipid solubility, not their water solubility. It’s ability to cross is inversely proportional to their molecular size and charge.

      In neonates, the BBB is less effective than in adults. This is why there is increased passage of opioids and bile salts (kernicterus) into the neonatal brain.

      In meningitis, the effectiveness and permeability of the BBB is affected, and as a result, this effect helps the passage of antibiotics which would otherwise not normally be able to cross.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
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  • Question 191 - A paediatric patient was referred to the surgery department after an initial assessment...

    Incorrect

    • A paediatric patient was referred to the surgery department after an initial assessment of acute gastroenteritis was proven otherwise to be a case acute appendicitis. History revealed multiple episodes of non-bloody emesis. In the paediatric ward, the patient had already undergone fluid resuscitation and replacement, and electrolytes were already corrected. Other pertinent laboratory studies were the following:

      Serum Na: 138 mmol/l
      Blood glucose: 6.4 mmol/l

      If the patient weighed 25 kg, which intravenous fluid maintenance regimen would be best for the child?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 65 ml/hr Hartmann's solution with 0% glucose

      Explanation:

      Maintenance therapy aims to replace water and electrolytes lost under ordinary conditions. In the perioperative period, maintenance fluid administration may not sufficiently account for the increased fluid requirements caused by third-space losses into the interstitium and gut. Specific recommendations vary with the patient, the procedure, and the type and amount of fluid administered during the operation. The fluid for maintenance therapy replaces deficits arising primarily from insensible losses and urinary or gastrointestinal (GI) losses.

      The maintenance fluid volume can be computed using the Holliday-Segar method.

      Body weight Fluid volume
      first 10 kg 4 ml/kg/hr
      next 10-20 kg 2 ml/kg/hr
      >20 kg 1 ml/kg/hr

      In the past few years, there has been growing recognition of the increased risk of hyponatremia in hospitalized children in intensive care and postoperative settings who receive hypotonic maintenance fluids. Several studies, including a randomized controlled trial and a Cochrane analysis, found that the use of isotonic fluids is associated with fewer electrolyte derangements and concluded that isotonic maintenance fluids are preferable to hypotonic solutions in hospitalized children.

      A European consensus statement suggests that an intraoperative fluid should have an osmolarity close to the physiologic range in children in order to avoid hyponatremia, an addition of 1-2.5% in order to avoid hypoglycaemia, lipolysis or hyperglycaemia and should also include metabolic anions as bicarbonate precursors to prevent hyperchloremic acidosis.

      A rate of 40 ml/hr is suboptimal.

      If 0.9% NaCl with 0% glucose is given at a rate of 65 ml/hr, despite of the correct infusion rate, large volumes can lead to hyperchloremic acidosis.

      If 0.18% NaCl with 4% glucose is given at a rate of 65 ml/hr, infusion of this fluid regimen can lead to hyponatremia because of its hypotonicity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
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  • Question 192 - A 20-year-old male student is admitted to ER after sustaining a crush injury...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old male student is admitted to ER after sustaining a crush injury of the pelvis.

      Clinical examination is as follows:
      Airway: Patent
      Breathing: RR: 25 breaths per minute, breath sounds vesicular, nil added
      Circulation: Capillary refill time = 4 seconds, cool peripheries
      Pulse: 125 beats per minute
      BP: 125/96 mmHg
      Disability:
      Glasgow coma score 15
      Anxious and in pain.

      Secondary survey does not reveal any other significant injuries. The patient is given high flow oxygen therapy and intravenous access is established.

      Which one of the following options is the most appropriate initial route of intravenous access?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Left cephalic vein

      Explanation:

      The clinical signs suggest a class II haemorrhage – 15-30% of circulating blood volume has been lost.

      Pelvic fractures are associated with significant concealed haemorrhage (>2000 ml) and may require aggressive fluid resuscitation. Other priorities include stabilisation of the fracture(s) and pain relief.

      The Advanced Trauma Life Support (ATLS) classification of haemorrhagic shock is as follows:

      Class I haemorrhage (blood loss up to 15%):
      <750 ml of blood loss
      Minimal tachycardia
      No changes in blood pressure, RR or pulse pressure
      Normally not require fluid replacement as will be restored in 24 hours, but in trauma correct.

      Class II haemorrhage (15-30% blood volume loss):
      Uncomplicated haemorrhage requiring crystalloid resuscitation
      Represents about 750 – 1500 ml of blood loss
      Tachycardia, tachypnoea and a decrease in pulse pressure (due to a rise in diastolic component due action of catecholamines)
      Minimal systolic pressure changes
      Anxiety, fright or hostility
      Can usually be stabilised by crystalloid, but may later require a blood transfusion.

      Class III haemorrhage (30-40% blood volume loss):
      Complicated haemorrhagic state in which at least crystalloid and probably blood replacement are required
      Classical signs of inadequate perfusion, marked tachycardia, tachypnoea, significant changes in mental state and measurable fall in systolic pressure
      Almost always require blood transfusion, but decision based on patient initial response to fluid resuscitation.

      Class IV haemorrhage (> 40% blood volume loss):
      Preterminal event patient will die in minutes
      Marked tachycardia, significant depression in systolic pressure and very narrow pulse pressure (or unobtainable diastolic pressure)
      Mental state is markedly depressed
      Skin cold and pale
      Need rapid transfusion and immediate surgical intervention.

      Loss of >50% results in loss of consciousness, pulse and blood pressure.

      The route of choice is an arm vein (cephalic) with one or two large bore cannula. This will enable initial aggressive fluid resuscitation. A central line can be inserted at a later stage if central venous monitoring is deemed necessary. If a suitable peripheral vein cannot be cannulated with a large bore cannula then the internal jugular vein could be accessed rapidly (preferably ultrasound guided).

      Intravenous access below the diaphragm in this case is inadvisable when other routes are available.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
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  • Question 193 - A patient on admission is given an infusion of 1000 mL of 10%...

    Incorrect

    • A patient on admission is given an infusion of 1000 mL of 10% glucose and 500 mL of 20% lipid over a 24 hour period.

      Which of these best approximates to the energy input over this time period?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 1300 kcal

      Explanation:

      1% solution contains 1 g of substance per 100 mL.

      A solution of 10% glucose is 10 g/100mL. Therefore 1000 mL of this glucose solution will contain 100 g.

      1 g of glucose yields about 4 kcal of energy. One litre of 10% glucose will therefore release approximately 4x100g = 400 kcal of energy.

      A solution of 20% fat is 20 g/100mL. Therefore 1000 mL of this fat solution will have 200 g and 500 mL will contain 100 g.

      1 g of fat yields approximately 9 kcal. 500 mL of 20% fat therefore has the potential to yield 900 kcal of energy.

      The total energy input over this 24 hour period is approximately 400kcal + 900kcal = 1300 kcal.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
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  • Question 194 - A post-operative patient was given paracetamol and pethidine for post-operative analgesia. A few...

    Incorrect

    • A post-operative patient was given paracetamol and pethidine for post-operative analgesia. A few hours later, the patient developed fever of 38°C, hypertension, and agitation.

      According to the patient's medical history, he is maintained on Levodopa and Selegiline for Parkinson's disease.

      Which of the following is the most probable cause of his manifestation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pethidine

      Explanation:

      Selegiline is a monoamine oxidase inhibitor. Inhibition of monoamine oxidase leads to increased levels of norepinephrine and serotonin in the central nervous system.

      Pethidine, also known as meperidine, is a strong agonist at the mu and kappa receptors. It inhibits pain neurotransmission and blocks muscarinic-specific actions.

      Administering opioid analgesic is relatively contraindicated to individuals taking monoamine oxidase inhibitors. This is because of the high incidence of serotonin syndrome, which is characterized by fever, agitation, tremor, clonus, hyperreflexia and diaphoresis. Onset of symptoms is within hours, and the treatment is mainly through sedation, paralysis, intubation and ventilation.

      The clinical findings are more consistent with Serotonin syndrome rather than exacerbation of Parkinson’s. Parkinson’s Disease (PD) exacerbations are defined as patient-reported or caregiver-reported episodes of subacute worsening of PD motor function in 1 or more domains (bradykinesia, tremor, rigidity, or PD-related postural instability/gait disturbance) that caused a decline in functional status, developed over a period of < 2 months, did not fluctuate with medication timing, and are not caused by intentional adjustments of PD medications by the treating neurologist. Malignant hyperthermia usually occurs within minutes of administration of a volatile anaesthetic, such as halothane, or succinylcholine. There is massive release of calcium from the sarcoplasmic reticulum, leading to fever, acidosis, rhabdomyolysis, trismus, clonus, and hypertension. In sepsis, it more common for patients to present with hypotension rather than hypertension.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 195 - You are shown the summary of a publication recommending use of their company's...

    Incorrect

    • You are shown the summary of a publication recommending use of their company's antiemetic to prevent postoperative nausea and vomiting by a pharmaceutical representative. You read the article, which is in a peer reviewed journal, and consider whether to change your current practice of using cyclizine intraoperatively.

      Which type of publication will provide the best evidence on which to base changes to your practice?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A prospective randomised double blind controlled trial against cyclizine in multiple centres

      Explanation:

      A prospective randomised double blind controlled trial against cyclizine in multiple centres is the most likely to change your practice.

      Case controlled studies are efficient in identifying an association between a drug treatment and outcome and are usually conducted retrospectively. They are generally less valued than prospective randomised trials. They cannot generate incidence data, are subject to bias, have difficult selection of controls and can be made more difficult if note keeping is not reliable.

      The gold standard in intervention-based studies is randomised controlled double blind trials. Its features are:

      Treating all intervention groups identically
      Reduction of bias by random allocation to intervention groups
      Patients and researchers unaware of which treatment was given until at completion of study
      Patients analysed within the group to which they were allocated, and
      Analysis focused on estimating the size of the difference in predefined outcomes between intervention groups.

      New healthcare interventions should be evaluated through properly designed randomised controlled trials (though there are some potential ethical disadvantages)

      Conducting trials in multiple centres is an accepted way of evaluating a new drug as it may be the only way of recruiting sufficient number of patients within a reasonable time frame to satisfy the objectives of the trial. Type II statistical errors will occur if a small numbers of patients is used in study group.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
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  • Question 196 - A 25-year old lady is in the operating room and has had general...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year old lady is in the operating room and has had general anaesthesia for a knee arthroscopy.

      Induction was done with fentanyl 1mcg/kg and propofol 2mg/kg. A supra-glottic airway was inserted and using and air oxygen mixture with 2.5% sevoflurane, her anaesthesia was maintained. The patient is allowed to spontaneously breathe using a Bain circuit, and the fresh gas flow is 9L/min. Over the next 30 minutes, the end-tidal Co2 rises from 4.5kPa to 8.4kPa, and the baseline reading on the capnograph is 0kPa.

      The most appropriate initial action is which of the following?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypoventilation

      Explanation:

      The commonest and most likely cause of a gradual rise in end-tidal CO2 (EtCO2) occurring during anaesthesia in a spontaneously breathing patient is hypoventilation. This occurs from the respiratory depressant effects of the opioid and sevoflurane.

      Malignant hyperthermia should be sought if the EtCO2 shows further progressive rise.

      Causes of rebreathing and a rise in the baseline of the capnograph can be caused by exhausted soda lime and inadequate fresh gas flow into the Bain circuit.

      A sudden rise in EtCO2 can be caused deflation of the tourniquet.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
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  • Question 197 - A 52-year old man was placed under general anaesthesia for an emergent open...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year old man was placed under general anaesthesia for an emergent open cholecystectomy. As part of the induction, suxamethonium was administered at 1.5mg/kg. Post-operatively, there was failure to restore muscle twitch responses over a course of five hours.

      Clinical chemistry studies were obtained and showed the following results:
      Butrylcholinesterase (BChE) activity: 49 U/L (Reference range: 3300-10,300 U/L)
      Dibucaine number: <4% (Reference range: 83-88%)

      The attending physician gave an initial diagnosis of Suxamethonium Apnoea.

      What is the most probable phenotype of BChE of the patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: S (silent)

      Explanation:

      Silent (S) is the most probable phenotype of the patient. In S phenotype, patients have significantly reduced levels of BChE, the lowest among the four phenotypes. Because of this, individuals with S phenotype are subjected to long periods of apnoea. In addition, their dibucaine number is very low.

      Other BChE phenotypes are the following:

      Usual (U)
      Atypical (A)
      Fluoride-resistant (F)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
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  • Question 198 - Which of the following statements is true regarding antibiotics? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is true regarding antibiotics?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Staphylococcus aureus colonises the nasopharynx in >20% of the general population

      Explanation:

      Staphylococcus aureus colonizes the nasopharynx in >20% of the general population.

      Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) is resistant to flucloxacillin.

      Trimethoprim binds to dihydrofolate reductase and inhibits the reduction of dihydrofolic acid (DHF) to tetrahydrofolic acid (THF). THF is an essential precursor in the thymidine synthesis pathway and interference with this pathway inhibits bacterial DNA synthesis.

      All ?-lactam antibiotics like penicillin interfere with the synthesis of the bacterial cell walls. The ?-lactam antibiotics inhibit the transpeptidases so that cross-linking (which maintains the close-knit structure of the cell wall) does not take place

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 199 - The following statements are about capnography. Which of them is true? ...

    Incorrect

    • The following statements are about capnography. Which of them is true?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Collision broadening is due to presence of other polyatomic molecules

      Explanation:

      Capnography is the non-invasive measurement and pictorial display of inhaled and exhaled carbon dioxide (CO2) partial pressure.

      It is depicted graphically as the concentration of CO2 over time.

      It is used in disease diagnosis, determining disease severity, assessing response to treatment and is the best method to for indicating when an endotracheal tube is placed in the trachea after intubation.

      The wavelength of IR light usually absorbed by nitrous oxide is between 4.4-4.6?m (very close to that of CO2). Its absorption of wavelengths at 3.9 ?m is much weaker. It causes a measurable deficit of 0.1% for every 10% of nitrous oxide. The maximal wavelength of infrared (IR) light absorbed by carbon monoxide is 4.7 ?m. The volatile agents have strong absorption bands at 3.3 ?m and throughout the ranges 8-12 ?m.

      IR light is not absorbed by oxygen (O2), but O2 and CO2 molecules are constantly colliding which interrupts the absorption of IR light by CO2. This increases the band of absorption, that is the Collison or pressure broadening). An oxygen percentage of 95 will result in a 0.5 percentage fall in CO2 measure.

      IR light is also absorbed by water vapour which will result in an overlap of the absorption band, collision broadening and a dilution of partial pressure. This is why water trap and water permeable tubing is recommended for use as it reduces measurement inaccuracies.

      The use of multi-gas analysers of modern gases also help reduce the effects of collision broadening.

      Beer’s law is also applied in this system as an increase in the concentrations of CO2 causes a decrease in the amount of IR able to pass through the gas. This IR light is what generated the signal that is analysed for display.

      The capnograph can indicate oesophageal intubation, but cannot determine if it is endotracheal or endobronchial. For this, auscultation is used.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
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  • Question 200 - The following statement is true with regards to the Nernst equation: ...

    Incorrect

    • The following statement is true with regards to the Nernst equation:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It is used to calculate the potential difference across a membrane when the individual ions are in equilibrium

      Explanation:

      The Nernst equation is used to calculate the membrane potential at which the ions are in equilibrium across the cell membrane.

      The normal resting membrane potential is -70 mV (not + 70 mV).

      The equation is:
      E = RT/FZ ln {[X]o
      /[X]i}

      Where:
      E is the equilibrium potential
      R is the universal gas constant
      T is the absolute temperature
      F is the Faraday constant
      Z is the valency of the ion
      [X]o is the extracellular concentration of ion X
      [X]i is the intracellular concentration of ion X.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
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