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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old gravida 1 para 0 woman, at her 36 weeks of gestation, is brought to the emergency department by her mother due to a seizure. Patient was sitting outside when she suddenly had a 2-minute seizure with loss of urinary continence and is still confused when she arrived at the emergency department. Her mother reports that the patient had severe anxiety and had been acting out for the past several days. Her only surgery was a splenectomy after a motor vehicle collision last year.Â
On physical examination patient's temperature is 37.7 C (99.9 F), blood pressure is 158/98 mm Hg, and pulse is 120/min. Patient seems agitated and diaphoretic with bilaterally dilated pupils.Â
On systemic examination:
Cranial nerves are intact, neck is supple and nontender.Â
Cardiopulmonary examination is normal.Â
The abdomen is gravid without any rebound or guarding and the uterus is nontender.Â
There is 2+ pitting pedal edema bilaterally. Sensations and strength are normal in the bilateral upper and lower extremities.Â
Laboratory results are as follows:
a) Complete blood count shows
- Hematocrit: 33%
- Platelets: 140,000/mm3
- Leukocytes: 13,000/mm3
b) Serum chemistry
- Sodium: 124 mmol/L
- Potassium: 3.4 mmol/L
- Chloride: 96 mmol/L
- Bicarbonate: 21 mmol/L
- Blood urea nitrogen: 6.43 umol/L
- Creatinine: 70.7 umol/L
- Glucose: 4.4 mmol/L
c) Urinalysis
- Protein: none
- Ketones: present
CT scan of the head is normal.Â
Which of the following is most likely the diagnosis in this patient?Your Answer: Pneumococcal meningitis
Correct Answer: Amphetamine intoxication
Explanation:This patient at 36 weeks of gestation likely had a generalized tonic-clonic seizure. A new-onset seizures in pregnancy can be due to either due to eclampsia which is pregnancy-specific or due to other non-obstetric causes like meningitis, intracranial bleeding etc.
In pregnant and postpartum women eclampsia is the most common cause for seizures which is classically associated with preeclampsia, a new-onset hypertension at ≥20 weeks gestation, with proteinuria and/or signs of end-organ damage. Although this patient has hypertension, absence of proteinuria and the additional findings like agitation, dilated pupils, hyponatremia and normal head CT scan are suggestive of another etiology. Patients with eclampsia will show white matter edema in head CT scan.
Amphetamine intoxication, which causes overstimulation of the alpha-adrenergic receptors resulting in tachycardia, hypertension and occasional hyperthermia, might be the cause for this patient’s seizures. Some patients will also have diaphoresis and minimally reactive, dilated pupils and severe intoxication can lead to electrolyte abnormalities, including significant hyponatremia (possibly serotonin-mediated) and resultant seizure activity.
Confirmation of Amphetamine intoxication can be done by a urine drug testing. it is essential to distinguishing between eclampsia and other causes of seizure in this case, as it will help to determine whether or not there is need for an emergency delivery.Altered mental status and electrolyte abnormalities can be due to heat stroke, however, patients affected this way will have an elevated temperature of >40 C /104 F associated with hemodynamic instabilities like hypotension.
Hemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, and low platelet count (HELLP) syndrome is a hypertensive disorder of pregnancy which can result in seizures (ie, eclampsia), but this patient’s hematocrit level is normal without any hemolysis, also patients with HELLP syndrome typically presents with a platelet count <100,000/mm3. Seizures and altered mental status in patients with prior splenectomy can be due to pneumococcal meningitis however, such patients will present with high fever and nuchal rigidity, making this diagnosis less likely in the given case. Amphetamine intoxication can present with hypertension, agitation, diaphoresis, dilated pupils, and a generalized tonic-clonic seizure due to hyponatremia, which is most likely to be the case here.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 2
Incorrect
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In developed countries, Group B streptococcus is the leading cause of early-onset neonatal sepsis. The risk of early onset neonatal Group B Streptococcus sepsis can be reduced by screening for Group B streptococcus status and by the use of intrapartum antibiotics.
From the below given statements, which is false regarding Group B streptococcus screening and intrapartum antibiotics prophylaxis?Your Answer: Intrapartum antibiotic prophylaxis should be offered to all women at increased risk of early onset Group B streptococcus sepsis
Correct Answer: For elective caesarian section before the commencement of labour give antibiotics prophylaxis is recommended, irrespective of Group B streptococci carriage
Explanation:A rectovaginal swab taken for Group B streptococci culture should be done in women presenting with threatened preterm labour
If labour is establishes, intrapartum antibiotic prophylaxis for Group B streptococci should be commenced and continued until delivery. In cases were labour is not establish, prophylaxis for Group B streptococci should be ceased and should be re-established only if the culture is found to be positive, that too at the time of onset of labour.
Strategies acceptable for reducing early onset Group B streptococci sepsis includes universal culture-based screening using combined low vaginal plus or minus anorectal swab at 35-37 weeks gestation or a clinical risk factor based approach.
No additional prophylaxis is recommended irrespective of Group B streptococci carriage, for elective cesarean section before the commencement of labour. However, if a woman who commences labour or has spontaneous rupture of the membranes before her planned Caesarean section is screened positive for Group B streptococci, she should receive intrapartum antibiotic prophylaxis while awaiting delivery.
Although there is little direct evidence to guide this practice, consideration of the above mentioned evidences it is recommendation that, every women with unknown Group B streptococci status at the time of delivery should be managed according to the presence of intrapartum risk factors.
All women at increased risk of early onset Group B streptococci sepsis must be offered an intrapartum antibiotic prophylaxis with IV penicillin-G or ampicillin. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 3
Incorrect
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Regarding gestational diabetes which of the following statements is TRUE?
Your Answer: it occurs in 5-10% of pregnancies
Correct Answer: it occurs in 2-5% of pregnancies
Explanation:Gestational Diabetes occurs in 2-9% of all the pregnancies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 4
Correct
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A pregnant female who is a known diabetic presents to the clinic for a consultation and enquires about the harmful effects of vitamin deficiencies. A deficiency of which vitamin can lead to teratogenic effects in the child?
Your Answer: Folic acid
Explanation:Pregnant women need to get enough folic acid. The vitamin is important to the growth of the foetus’s spinal cord and brain. Folic acid deficiency can cause severe birth defects known as neural tube defects. The Recommended Dietary Allowance (RDA) for folate during pregnancy is 600 micrograms (µg)/day.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman presents for an antenatal visit in her first pregnancy. The pregnancy has been progressing normally thus far. Her routine mid-trimester ultrasound examination, performed at 18 weeks of gestation, shows that the placenta occupies the lower part of the uterus. It is noted that the placenta is reaching to within 1 cm of the internal cervical os. The patient is wondering what this means for her pregnancy and what needs to be done about it.
Which one of the following would be the most appropriate management?Your Answer: Repeat the ultrasound at term.
Correct Answer: Repeat the ultrasound at 34 weeks of gestation.
Explanation:This patient is presenting with a low-lying placenta at 18 weeks of gestation. This is a common finding on ultrasound at 18-20 weeks. If there is not bleeding, there is an 80-90% chance that by late pregnancy, the placenta will have moved and is no longer occupying the lower uterine segment. For this reason, the repeat ultrasound examination is usually performed at 32-34 weeks of gestation. Further discussions about management can then be made after obtaining those results.
Leaving the repeat ultrasound until term would be inappropriate as intervention would be needed prior. If the placenta praevia is still present, it is typically advisable to deliver prior to term.
Cardiotocographic (CT) fetal heart rate monitoring is not required in the absence of bleeding or other symptoms.
Delivery by Caesarean section would not be necessary if the placenta was no longer praevia by the time the repeat ultrasound is done.
Repeat ultrasound examination at 22 weeks of gestation would also unnecessary and inappropriate as it is too close in time for the change to occur.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 6
Incorrect
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Which of the following terms best describes the pelvic type of small posterior sagittal diameter, convergent sidewalls, prominent ischial spines, and narrow pubic arch?
Your Answer: Gynecoid
Correct Answer: Android
Explanation:There are four types pelvic shapes:
1) Android pelvis: it has a larger inlet and smaller outlet along with small posterior sagittal diameter, prominent ischial spines and has a two finger arch.
2) Gynecoid pelvis: it has a transverse or nearly a circular ellipse and it is the most favourable for delivery.
3) Anthropoid pelvis: the brim is an anteroposterior ellipse.
4) Platypelloid pelvis: in this type the pelvic brim is kidney shape -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 7
Incorrect
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Which of the following is the primary source of oestrogen ?
Your Answer: Epithelial cells
Correct Answer: Granulosa cells
Explanation:Ovarian granulosa cells (GC) are the major source of oestradiol synthesis. Induced by the preovulatory luteinizing hormone (LH) surge, cells of the theca and, in particular, of the granulosa cell layer profoundly change their morphological, physiological, and molecular characteristics and form the progesterone-producing corpus luteum that is responsible for maintaining pregnancy.Â
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 8
Correct
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Macrophages are derived from what type of white blood cell?
Your Answer: Monocytes
Explanation:Macrophages are derived from monocytes. When monocytes come across a pathogen they differentiate into macrophages for phagocytosis to occur.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Immunology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 52-year-old female patient on HRT for the past two years wonders how often she should have breast cancer screenings.
Which of the following responses is the most appropriate?Your Answer: Self breast examination every month and mammography every 6 months
Correct Answer: Mammogram every two years until the age of 70
Explanation:Some confusion regarding breast cancer screening arose in 2009 when the U.S. Preventive Services Task Force (USPSTF) issued new mammogram guidelines. The task force recommended that screening mammograms be conducted every two years, beginning at age 50, for women with an average risk of breast cancer. For women aged 40 to 49, the decision of whether to have annual mammograms should be based on a patient’s consideration of risks vs. benefits, according to the task force.
There is no evidence that frequent screening for women on HRT helps with early detection of malignancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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Which one of the following is true regarding routine prenatal screening ultrasonography before 24 weeks gestation?
Your Answer: It has been shown to reduce maternal mortality
Correct Answer: It has not been proven to have any significant benefits
Explanation:Routine ultrasonography at around 18-22 weeks gestation has become the standard of care in many communities. Acceptance is based on many factors, including patient preference, medical-legal pressure, and the perceived benefit by physicians. However, rigorous testing has found little scientific benefit for, or harm from, routine screening ultrasonography.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 11
Incorrect
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Among the below mentioned conditions which is not a contraindication to tocolysis?
Your Answer: Fetal death in utero
Correct Answer: Maternal hypothyroidism
Explanation:Contraindications to tocolysis in preterm labor are as follows:
– Gestational age > 34 weeks or <24 weeks
– Labor is too advanced with an advanced cervical dilation of >4 cm
– Abnormal CTG suggesting a non-reassuring fetal status
– Lethal fetal anomalies
– Intrauterine fetal demise
– Suspected fetal compromise
– Significant antepartum hemorrhage, such as placental abruption/ active vaginal bleeding with hemodynamic instability
– Any suspected intrauterine infections like chorioamnionitis
– Maternal hypotension
– Pregnancy-induced hypertension/ eclampsia/ pre-eclampsia
– Placenta previa
– Placental insufficiency
– Intrauterine growth retardation
– Maternal allergy to specific tocolytic agents or cases where tocolytics are contraindicated due to specific comorbidities like in case of cardiac disease, were beta agonists cannot be administered.As there are nonpulmonary morbidities associated with preterm birth, fetal pulmonary maturity, known or suspected, is not an absolute contraindication for tocolysis. These fetuses could potentially benefit from prolongation of pregnancy and from the nonpulmonary benefits of glucocorticoid therapy.
When cervical dilation is greater than 3 cm inhibition of preterm labor is less likely to be successful. In such cases Tocolysis can be considered when the goal is to administer antenatal corticosteroids or to safely transport the mother to a tertiary care center.
Maternal hypothyroidism which is usually treated with thyroxine is not a contraindication to suppression of labor.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 12
Incorrect
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How long does involution of the uterus take after parturition?
Your Answer: 24-72 hours
Correct Answer: 4-6 weeks
Explanation:In the period immediately after the delivery of the placenta, known as the puerperium, the female reproductive system begins to undergo some physiological changes to return to a non-pregnant state. One of these changes is uterine involution. The myometrium contracts, constricting blood vessels which impedes blood flow. It is thought that the uterine tissues then undergo apoptosis and autophagy. It takes about 4-6 weeks for the uterus to decrease is size from about 1 kg to 60 grams.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 13
Incorrect
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Among the following which is the most likely finding of placental abruption in a pregnant woman?
Your Answer: Uterine tenderness
Correct Answer: Vaginal bleeding
Explanation:Placental abruption is defined as the premature separation of placenta from uterus and the condition usually presents with bleeding, uterine contractions and fetal distress. It is one of the most significant cause of third-trimester bleeding and is often associated with fetal and maternal mortality and morbidity. In all pregnant women with vaginal bleeding in the second half of the pregnancy, this condition should be considered as a differential diagnoses.
Though vaginal bleeding is the most common presenting symptom reported by almost 80% of women with placental abruption, vaginal bleeding is concealed in 20% of women with placental abruption, therefore, absence of vaginal bleeding does not exclude placental abruption.Symptoms and complications of placental abruption varies according to patient, frequency of appearance of some common features is as follows:
‌- Vaginal bleeding is the common presentation in 80% of patients.
‌- Abdominal or lower back pain with uterine tenderness is found in 70%
‌- Fetal distress is seen in 60% of women.
‌- Abnormal uterine contractions like hypertonic, high frequency contractions are seen in 35% cases.
‌- Idiopathic premature labor in 25% of patients.
‌- Fetal death in about 15% of cases.Examination findings include vaginal bleeding, uterine contractions with or without tenderness, shock, absence of fetal heart sounds and increased fundal height due to an expanding hematoma. Shock is seen in class 3 placental abruption which represents almost 24% of all cases of placental abruption.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old G2P0+1 comes to the emergency department with vaginal spotting. She experienced periodic stomach pain related with the bleeding, but no fetal product passing, about 6 hours before presentation. She is now in the first trimester of her pregnancy and claims that her previous pregnancy was uneventful. She takes her prenatal vitamins regularly and does not use any other prescriptions or drugs.
Her vital signs are normal, and her physical examination reveals that she has a closed cervical os. Which of the following diagnoses is the most likely?Your Answer: Septic abortion
Correct Answer: Threatened abortion
Explanation:Threatened abortion consists of any vaginal bleeding during early pregnancy without cervical dilatation or change in cervical consistency. Usually, no significant pain exists, although mild cramps may occur. More severe cramps may lead to an inevitable abortion.
Threatened abortion is very common in the first trimester; about 25-30% of all pregnancies have some bleeding during the pregnancy. Less than one half proceed to a complete abortion. On examination, blood or brownish discharge may be present in the vagina. The cervix is not tender, and the cervical os is closed. No fetal tissue or membranes have passed. The ultrasound shows a continuing intrauterine pregnancy. If an ultrasound was not performed previously, it is required at this time to rule out an ectopic pregnancy, which could present similarly. If the uterine cavity is empty on ultrasound, obtaining a human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) level is necessary to determine if the discriminatory zone has been passed.
Placenta previa is an antenatal complication occurring around the third trimester of pregnancy. The cervix is closed in this condition which rules out inevitable abortion and the patient has no history of passage of tissue, this rules out complete abortion. The patient has no history of fever or offensive vaginal discharge which makes septic abortion unlikely.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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One year ago, Pap smear was done at your clinic for a 53 year old female patient. HPV type 42 was detected and reported as LSIL. A repeat pap smear after 12 months shows no change.
What is the next best step in management?Your Answer: Repeat the pap smear in 12 months
Correct Answer: Refer for colposcopy
Explanation:The management of low-grade squamous intraepithelial lesions (LSIL) on cervical cytology in women ages 25 years or older depends upon whether the patient underwent high-risk human papillomavirus (HPV) testing.
Women in this age group comprise two different populations in terms of cervical cancer screening strategies. Professional organizations recommend that women ages 25 to 29 years be screened with cytology alone, while women 30 years or older should be screened with cytology and HPV co-testing. Thus, the American Society for Colposcopy and Cervical Pathology (ASCCP) prefers that women ages 25 to 29 years are not managed based upon HPV results, even if an HPV test was performed at the time of screening. For women with ages 30 years or older and HPV positive, colposcopy must be performed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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Which is not a risk factor for endometrial cancer?
Your Answer: Nulliparity
Correct Answer: Norethisterone
Explanation:Multiple epidemiological risk factors have been identified in patients who have adenocarcinoma of the endometrium.
– Endogenous factors
– Obesity
– Nulliparity
– An individual who has had a late menopause (aged >52 y)
– Unopposed oestrogen
– Tamoxifen
– Family history
– Individuals with a family history of endometrial cancer appear to be at increased risk. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old primigravid woman at 18 weeks of gestation comes to office for a routine prenatal visit and anatomy ultrasound. Patient feels well generally and has no concerns, also has no chronic medical conditions, and her only daily medication is a prenatal vitamin. She is accompanied by her mother as her husband was unable to get off work.Â
Ultrasound shows a cephalic singleton fetus measuring at <10th percentile consistent with severe growth restriction. There are bilateral choroid plexus cysts, clenched fists, and a large ventricular septal defect. Amniotic fluid level is normal with a posterior and fundal placenta.Â
Which of the following statements is the most appropriate initial response by the physician?Your Answer: Could I speak to you in private about my concerns with your ultrasound findings?
Correct Answer: There are some things about your ultrasound that I need to discuss with you; is it okay to do that now?
Explanation:SPIKES protocol for delivering serious news to patients includes:
– Set the stage includes arranging for a private, comfortable setting space, introduce patient/family & team members, maintain eye contact & sit at the same level and schedule appropriate time interval & minimize space for interruptions.
– Perception: Use open-ended questions to assess the patient’s/family’s perception of the medical situation.
– Invitation: should ask patient/family how much information they would like to know and remain cognizant of their cultural, educational & religious issues.
– Knowledge:
Warn the patient/family that serious news is coming, Speak in simple & straightforward terms, stop & check whether they are understanding.
– Empathy: Express understanding & give support when responding to emotions
– Summary & strategy: Summarize & create follow-through plan, including end-of-life discussions if applicable.The ultrasound findings of severe growth restriction, bilateral choroid plexus cysts, clenched fists, and a large ventricular septal defect are consistent with trisomy 18, the second most common autosomal trisomy, which results in fetal loss or neonatal death in the majority of cases. In this case, the physician is to deliver a very serious news to the patient who is presenting for a routine visit, believing her pregnancy was normal. When serious news is unexpected, it is especially important to prepare the patient and determine how the patient would like to receive the results.
The physician is supposed to provide a comfortable setting and must ask patient’s permission to share the results. This allows the patient to respond with her preference and avoids making assumptions about whom, if anyone, she would like to be present with. For example, some patients may prefer to defer discussion of the results until a major support person (eg, husband, mother) is present. In addition to establish patient’s preferred setting, physician should determine how much information the patient would like to receive. Some patients will prefer a detailed medical information about diagnosis and prognosis, whereas others may prefer to have time to process the news emotionally and receive further information later. The SPIKES protocol (Setting the stage, Perception, Invitation, Knowledge, Empathy, and Summary/strategy) is a six-step model that can guide physicians in delivering serious news to patients.These statements do not allow the patient to choose how she receives the results and assume that she does not want her mother present.
This statement fails to prepare the patient for serious news and prematurely jumps to sharing results using technical, medical terminology that may be difficult for the patient to comprehend. This approach could also be upsetting to a patient undergoing a routine ultrasound who is not expecting anything abnormal.
This statement inappropriately determines when and with whom the patient should receive the results. Instead the patient should be asked how she prefers to receive the results.
While delivering unexpected, serious news, physicians should prepare the patient and determine how the patient prefers to receive the information.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman comes in to talk about the findings of a recent CT scan. Last week, the patient was involved in a car accident and had a CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis to rule out any intraabdominal trauma. The CT scan revealed a uterus that was significantly enlarged, with several intramural and pedunculated leiomyomata that did not squeeze the ureters or the surrounding intestine. The patient has a monthly menstrual period with light bleeding lasting four days. On the first day of her monthly period, she normally has stomach discomfort but does not require pain medication. There are no changes in bowel habits, urine frequency, urgency, or chronic pelvic pain in the patient. She doesn't have any chronic illnesses and doesn't use any drugs on a daily basis. The patient is in a monogamous, same-sex relationship and experiences no discomfort during sexual activity. The vital signs are OK, and the BMI is 24 kilograms per square metre. The lower abdomen has an irregularly expanded mass, which is consistent with uterine leiomyomata.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in this patient's care?Your Answer: GnRH agonist therapy
Correct Answer: Observation and reassurance only
Explanation:Leiomyomas uterine (fibroids)
Clinical features:
Menses that are heavy and last a long time, symptoms of pressure, pelvic discomfort, constipation, frequency of urination, complications during pregnancy, fertility problems, loss of pregnancy, premature birth, uterus enlargement and irregularityWorkup:
UltrasoundTreatment:
Asymptomatic: monitoring
Surgical intervention, hormonal contraceptionThis patient has uterine leiomyomata, or fibroids, which are benign smooth muscle (myometrial) tumours that are very prevalent in adult women (up to 25%). These tumours can expand the endometrium’s surface area, the uterus’ overall size and thickness, and compress adjacent structures; nevertheless, some individuals have no symptoms and are identified by chance during a physical examination or imaging (as in this patient’s CT scan after a car accident).
Heavy, prolonged menses are among the indications for uterine leiomyomata treatment (particularly if associated with anaemia).
Pelvic discomfort that persists (e.g., dyspareunia).
Symptoms in abundance (e.g., pelvic pressure, hydronephrosis, constipation).
Recurrent miscarriages.
Medical or surgical treatment options are available for patients with these clinical characteristics (e.g., myomectomy).This woman had mild menses and no pelvic discomfort or mass symptoms while having many big intramural and pedunculated leiomyomata (e.g., no ureter compression). There is no need for extra treatment in persons with asymptomatic fibroids. Only observation and reassurance are required.
In the treatment of symptomatic fibroids, a combination of oral contraceptive pills and progestin-containing intrauterine devices can be utilised, although they are not required in the management of asymptomatic fibroids. Furthermore, this patient has a minimal risk of unwanted pregnancy (e.g., monogamous, same-sex relationship), and the hazards of these contraceptives (e.g., venous thromboembolism, uterine perforation) outweigh the benefits.GnRH agonist therapy (e.g., leuprolide) is a treatment for symptomatic uterine fibroids that works by inhibiting pulsatile FSH and LH production in the hypothalamus, lowering oestrogen levels. Low oestrogen levels cause a temporary reduction in leiomyoma size, which helps with heavy menses and bulky symptoms. Because long-term usage of GnRH agonists is linked to an increased risk of osteoporotic fractures, they are only administered preoperatively.
Tranexamic acid is a nonhormonal medicinal medication that reduces heavy menstrual bleeding by preventing fibrin breakdown (i.e., an antifibrinolytic drug). This patient’s menses are light.
Uterine leiomyomata (fibroids) are benign myometrial tumours that can produce a range of symptoms but are often identified by chance. Heavy menstrual blood, pelvic pain, and bulk symptoms are all indications for treatment. Patients with asymptomatic fibroids merely need to be monitored and reassured. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A baby with shoulder dystocia suffers a brachial plexus injury. The mother asks you if this will be permanent. What percentage of babies will have permanent neurological dysfunction as a result of brachial plexus injury secondary to shoulder dystocia?
Your Answer: 25%
Correct Answer:
Explanation:of cases there is no permanent neurological disability. Shoulder dystocia is the most common cause of Erb’s palsy (Erb-Duchenne palsy) where there is injury to C5 and C6 of the brachial plexus (C5 to T1)
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 23-year-old woman presents to the local hospital clinic for her first antenatal visit.
She is primigravid at 39 weeks of gestation (exact dates uncertain).
She has just arrived from overseas, and no antenatal care had been available in her origin country.
On examination, BP is 120/80 mmHg. The fundal height is 30cm above the pubic symphysis. Fetal heart sounds are present at a rate of 144/min.
Pelvic examination indicates a long, closed cervix. The baby is noted to be in cephalic presentation.
What is the appropriate choice for initial management of this woman?Your Answer: Amniocentesis.
Correct Answer: Ultrasound examination.
Explanation:In this case, the fundus height appears to be smaller than the suggested dates of gestation. However, this is uncertain as the exact gestation dates are not known. Head-sparing intrauterine growth restriction needs to be excluded or managed appropriately if detected.
The best initial management step would be to perform an ultrasound examination (correct answer). This would enable complete assessment of the foetus and all the measurable parameters can be determined. This would aid in identifying any discrepancy in size of the abdomen, limbs and head, and the liquor volume (amniotic fluid index) could be evaluated.
If asymmetrical growth restriction was detected via ultrasound examination, further evaluations such as cardiotocography (CTG) and umbilical arterial wave form analysis by Doppler could be initiated.
Additionally, foetal movement counting could then be commenced and evaluation of foetal lung maturity by amniocentesis could be considered.
If the ultrasound was normal (no evidence of asymmetrical growth restriction, normal amniotic fluid), repeat ultrasound should be performed after two weeks to evaluate the foetal growth.
If normal growth is observed on the repeat ultrasound, the estimated due date can be calculated (assuming normal foetal growth around the 50th percentile for the population).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old woman, at 27 weeks of gestation, who lives 40 kilometres from the nearest tertiary obstetric hospital, is referred due to premature rupture of membranes (PROM) which occurred 2 days ago. This is her first pregnancy, which had been progressing normally until the rupture of membranes. Over the last 48 hours, she did not have any contractions. Transfer was made to the tertiary referral obstetric hospital where she was started on glucocorticoid therapy. Cervical swabs were taken and she underwent ultrasound and cardiotocography assessments. She was also started on prophylactic antibiotics. Cervical swabs only showed growth of normal vaginal flora whereas the abdominal ultrasound found almost no liquor. CTG was normal and reactive.
Which is the most appropriate next step in her management?
Your Answer: CTG assessments of the fetal heart rate should be repeated weekly.
Correct Answer: The white cell count (WCC) and C-reactive protein (CRP) levels should be assessed every 2-3 days.
Explanation:If a patient presents with PROM at 27 weeks of gestation, her management plan would have to include:
1) Cervical swabs to rule out infection
2) Commencement of prophylactic antibiotics such as erythromycin until results from the swabs are available
-If only normal vaginal flora are seen, prophylactic antibiotics can be stopped.
3) Administration of glucocorticoid- usually for 48 hours to promote maturity of the fetal lung and lower the chance of intracranial bleeding if the foetus has to be delivered prematurely
4) Transfer to a healthcare centre that has neonatal intensive care facilities to ensure if intensive care is needed post-delivery, the healthcare staff are prepared
5) Blood profile (particularly white cell count) and inflammatory markers (CRP) to look for any signs of chorioamnionitis
6) CTG assessment every 2-3 days. Abnormalities found on the CTG tracing are often the first evidence of problems such as a subclinical chorioamnionitis
7) Tocolysis with tocolytics such as IV salbutamol or nifedipine if contractions start before the course of glucocorticoid therapy is finished. Post-glucocorticoid therapy, tocolysis would not be often employed since there is a risk of masking contractions that occur due to an infection. In those cases, it is better to deliver the baby rather than to prolong the pregnancy. If there is no infection, the management plan should aim to prolong the pregnancy and delay delivery of a very premature baby. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 22
Incorrect
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Question 23
Incorrect
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Which of the following is the most accurate estimate of mature breast milk composition?
Your Answer: Fat 18% Protein 5% Sugar 5%
Correct Answer: Fat 4%, Protein 1%, Sugar 7%
Explanation:Breast milk contains around 4% fat, 7% sugar and 1% proteins. The rest is water and minerals.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A young patient presented with foul smelling greyish vaginal discharge. She also has burning and itching. She is sexually active.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Candida albicans
Correct Answer: Gardnerella vaginalis
Explanation:Bacterial vaginosis (BV) is a clinical condition characterized by a shift in vaginal flora away from Lactobacillus species toward more diverse bacterial species, including facultative anaerobes. The altered microbiome causes a rise in vaginal pH and symptoms that range from none to very bothersome. Future health implications of BV include, but are not limited to, increased susceptibility to other sexually transmitted infections and preterm birth. Fifty to 75 percent of women with BV are asymptomatic. Symptomatic women typically present with vaginal discharge and/or vaginal odour. The discharge is off-white, thin, and homogeneous; the odour is an unpleasant fishy smell that may be more noticeable after sexual intercourse and during menses.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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What is the role of DHEA produced by the fetal adrenal glands?
Your Answer: Stimulate development of the Thymus
Correct Answer: Stimulate placenta to form oestrogen
Explanation:Dehydroepiandrosterone (DHEA) is a steroid hormone synthesised from cholesterol (via Pregnenolone) by the adrenal glands. The foetus manufactures DHEA, which stimulates the placenta to form oestrogen, thus keeping a pregnancy going. Production of DHEA stops at birth, then begins again around age seven and peaks when a person is in their mid-20s
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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Which statement given below is correct regarding the management of deep venous thrombosis during pregnancy?
Your Answer: Low-molecular weight heparins are contraindicated in the first trimester of pregnancy
Correct Answer: Warfarin therapy is contraindicated throughout pregnancy but safe during breast feeding
Explanation:Pregnancy is considered as a hypercoagulable state with an increased risk for the development of conditions like deep venous thrombosis (DVT) and pulmonary embolism (PE). Among these two PE is the considered the most significant cause for maternal death in Australia.
A pregnant women with venous thromboembolism should be treated with heparin as warfarin is contraindicated. Warfarin should be avoided throughout pregnancy and especially during the first and third trimesters of pregnancy as it crosses the placenta. Intake of warfarin at 6-12 weeks of pregnancy can results in fetal warfarin syndrome which is characterised by:
– A characteristic nasal hypoplasia
– Short fingers with hypoplastic nails
– Calcified epiphyses, namely chondrodysplasia punctuta which is evident by stippling of epiphyses on X-ray.
– Intellectual disability
– Low birth weight
Recent studies show that the risk of fetal warfarin syndrome is around 5 % more in babies of women who require warfarin throughout pregnancy and the risk is always dose dependent.
Later exposure to warfarin, as in after 12 weeks, is mostly associated with central nervous system anomalies like microcephaly, hydrocephalus, agenesis of corpus callosum, Dandy-Walker malformation which is characterised by complete absence of cerebellar vermis along with enlarged fourth ventricle and mental retardation. Eye anomalies such as optic atrophy, microphthalmia, and Peter anomaly which is the dysgenesis of the anterior segment are also found in association. Newborns exposed to warfarin in all three trimesters are prone to present with blindness. Other complications found in neonates exposed to warfarin are perinatal intracranial hemorrhage and other major bleeding episodes.Warfarin is not secreted into the breast milk and is so safe to use during the postpartum period.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old lady is somewhat jaundiced, has black urine, and has pruritus of her abdomen skin at 30 weeks of pregnancy in her first pregnancy. Her blood pressure is 130/80 mmHg, her fundal height is 29 cm above the pubic symphysis, and her liquid volume is a little lower than expected. Laboratory investigations reveal:
Serum bilirubin (unconjugated): 5 mmol/L (0-10)
Serum bilirubin (conjugated): 12 mmol/L (0-5)
Serum alkaline phosphatase (ALP): 450U/L (30--350)
Serum alanine aminotransferase (ALT) 45U/L (<55)
Serum bile acids: 100 mmol/L (1-26)
The most likely cause for her presentation is?Your Answer: Pre-eclampsia.
Correct Answer: Obstetric cholestasis.
Explanation:The correct answer is Obstetric Cholestasis.
The characteristics (elevated bile acids, conjugated bilirubin, and alkaline phosphatase (ALP) levels) are typical with obstetric cholestasis, which affects roughly 3-4 percent of pregnant women in Australia. Obstetric cholestasis is diagnosed when otherwise unexplained pruritus occurs in pregnancy and abnormal liver function tests (LFTs) and/or raised bile acids occur in the pregnant woman and both resolve after delivery. Pruritus that involves the palms and soles of the feet is particularly suggestive.
Liver function tests and bile acid levels measurements are used to validate this diagnosis.
All of the other diagnoses are theoretically possible, but unlikely.
On liver function tests, hepatitis A and acute fatty liver of pregnancy (which is frequently associated with severe vomiting in late pregnancy) usually show substantially worse hepatocellular damage.
Pre-eclampsia is connected with hypertension and proteinuria (along with changes in renal function and, in certain cases, thrombocytopenia), while cholelithiasis is associated with obstructive jaundice and pale stools due to a stone in the CBD. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 28
Incorrect
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DEXA scans measure bone density by
Your Answer: Uses geographical digital processing to analyse XRAY beams in a single axis of rotation
Correct Answer: Measuring absorption from two different XRAY beams with different energy peaks at the same site
Explanation:DEXA works by passing two low dose XRAY beams with different energy peaks at the patient’s bone. Some of the XRAY radiation will be absorbed (the greater the density the greater the absorption) whilst some will pass through to a detector. Soft tissue absorption is subtracted out and the BMD can be determined from the absorption of each beam. It is important to realise that two beams are used at each site when measuring bone density (hence ‘dual’). Although two sites are typically used (spine and femoral neck) when measuring bone density this is not why the term dual is used Computer analysis of multiple X-ray beams taken from different angles and geographical digital processing are features of CT scanning
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Biophysics
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Question 29
Incorrect
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The arcuate line forms part of the border of the pelvic brim. Where is it located?
Your Answer: Pubis
Correct Answer: Ilium
Explanation:The arcuate line is a smooth rounded border on the internal surface of the ilium just inferior to the iliac fossa. It forms the boundary of the pelvic inlet.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 30
Incorrect
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All of the following anatomical features of the pelvis favour a vaginal delivery, except?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Obstetric conjugate is less than 10 cm
Explanation:For the foetus to pass through the vagina, the obstetric conjugate should be 11cm or greater. If the diameter is less than 10 cm then its better to perform C-section as the labour might not progress. All the other options favour a normal vaginal delivery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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