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Question 1
Correct
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A 21-year-old university student is taken to the A&E. She lives alone in a small apartment. She is normally fit and well but she has been complaining of difficulty concentrating in classes. She is a one pack per day smoker and she has no significant past medical history. She is also not on any medication.
She had a pulse of 123 beats per minute and her blood pressure was measured to be 182/101 mmHg. She looked flushed. Chest x-ray was normal and her oxygen saturations were normal. She has typical features of carbon monoxide poisoning.
Initial investigations showed:
Haemoglobin 13.0 g/dL (11.5-16.5)
White cell count 10.3 x109/L (4-11 x109)
Platelets 281 x109/L (150-400 x109)
Serum sodium 133 mmol/L (137-144)
Serum potassium 3.7 mmol/L (3.5-4.9)
Serum urea 7.3 mmol/L (2.5-7.5)
Serum creatinine 83 μmol/L (60-110)
Drug screen Negative
Arterial blood gases on air:
pO2 7.9 kPa (11.3-12.6)
pCO2 4.7 kPa (4.7-6.0)
pH 7.43 (7.36-7.44)
Which test would confirm this diagnosis?Your Answer: Carboxy haemoglobin
Explanation:Carbon monoxide (CO) is a colourless, odourless gas produced by incomplete combustion of carbonaceous material. Clinical presentation in patients with CO poisoning ranges from headache and dizziness to coma and death. Hyperbaric oxygen therapy can significantly reduce the morbidity of CO poisoning, but a portion of survivors still suffer significant long-term neurologic and affective sequelae.
Complaints:
Malaise, flulike symptoms, fatigue
Dyspnoea on exertion
Chest pain, palpitations
Lethargy
Confusion
Depression
Impulsiveness
Distractibility
Hallucination, confabulation
Agitation
Nausea, vomiting, diarrhoea
Abdominal pain
Headache, drowsiness
Dizziness, weakness, confusion
Visual disturbance, syncope, seizure
Faecal and urinary incontinence
Memory and gait disturbances
Bizarre neurologic symptoms, comaVital signs may include the following:
Tachycardia
Hypertension or hypotension
Hyperthermia
Marked tachypnoea (rare; severe intoxication often associated with mild or no tachypnoea)
Although so-called cherry-red skin has traditionally been considered a sign of CO poisoning, it is in fact rare.The clinical diagnosis of acute carbon monoxide (CO) poisoning should be confirmed by demonstrating an elevated level of carboxyhaemoglobin (HbCO). Either arterial or venous blood can be used for testing. Analysis of HbCO requires direct spectrophotometric measurement in specific blood gas analysers. Elevated CO levels of at least 3-4% in non-smokers and at least 10% in smokers are significant.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 22-year-old male with exercise induced asthma, has had good control with a salbutamol inhaler. But recently he has had asthma attacks with exercise. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?
Your Answer: Inhaled steroid
Correct Answer: Sodium cromoglycate
Explanation:Steroids and theophylline have less of a role in the treatment of exercise induced asthma. The best method of treatment is pre-exercise short-acting β2-agonist administration. Long-acting β2-agonists, mast cell stabilizers (e.g.: Sodium cromoglycate), and antileukotriene drugs also play a role.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 57-year-old homeless man presents with fever and a productive cough which has green sputum with streaks of blood. A chest x-ray reveals consolidation in the right upper lobe with evidence of cavitation. He is a known alcoholic.
What is the most likely causative agent?Your Answer: M. Tuberculosis
Correct Answer: Klebsiella Pneumoniae
Explanation:Infection with Klebsiella organisms occurs in the lungs, where they cause destructive changes. Necrosis, inflammation, and haemorrhage occur within lung tissue, sometimes producing a thick, bloody, mucoid sputum described as currant jelly sputum.
The illness typically affects middle-aged and older men with debilitating diseases such as alcoholism, diabetes, or chronic bronchopulmonary disease. An increased tendency exists toward abscess formation, cavitation, empyema, and pleural adhesions. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 4
Correct
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A 21-year-old male presents with severe right-sided chest pain. On examination, percussion was hyper-resonant and breath sounds were reduced on the right side. He has no history of any respiratory illness or trauma. What condition is this patient suffering from?
Your Answer: Simple Pneumothorax
Explanation:Pneumothorax refers to a condition in which air or gases accumulate inside the pleural space causing the lungs to collapse. Because the patient did not have a history of any previous pulmonary disease or trauma, this is a case of simple pneumothorax.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 5
Correct
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A 63-year-old man presents to the clinic complaining of a 6-month history of shortness of breath on exertion and a non-productive cough.
On examination there is clubbing, and crepitations heard at the lung bases. Lung function tests show a reduced vital capacity and an increased FEV1/FVC ratio.
What is his diagnosis?Your Answer: Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis
Explanation:Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis (IPF) is a condition in which the lungs become scarred and breathing becomes increasingly difficult.
The most common signs and symptoms of idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis are shortness of breath and a persistent dry, hacking cough. Many affected individuals also experience a loss of appetite and gradual weight loss.The clinical findings of IPF are bibasilar reticular abnormalities, ground glass opacities, or diffuse nodular lesions on high-resolution computed tomography and abnormal pulmonary function studies that include evidence of restriction (reduced VC with an increase in FEV1/FVC ratio) and/or impaired gas exchange (increased P(A-a)O2 with rest or exercise or decreased diffusion capacity of the lung for carbon monoxide [DLCO]).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 6
Correct
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What does Caplan's syndrome refer to?
Your Answer: Rheumatoid lung nodules and pneumoconiosis
Explanation:Caplan’s syndrome is defined as the association between silicosis and rheumatoid arthritis (RA). It is rare and usually diagnosed in an advanced stage of RA. It generally affects patients with a prolonged exposure to silica.
Caplan’s syndrome presents with rheumatoid lung nodules and pneumoconiosis. Originally described in coal miners with progressive massive fibrosis, it may also occur in asbestosis, silicosis and other pneumoconiosis. Chest radiology shows multiple, round, well defined nodules, usually 0.5 – 2.0 cm in diameter, which may cavitate and resemble tuberculosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old woman presents to the hospital with sharp, left-sided chest pain and shortness of breath.
On examination her pulse is 101 beats per minute and blood pressure is 124/61 mmHg. She is seen to be mildly breathless at rest but her oxygen saturation on air was 98%.
CXR reveals a left pneumothorax with a 4 cm rim of air visible.
Which management strategy is appropriate in this patient?Your Answer: Admit and repeat chest x ray in 24 hours
Correct Answer: Needle aspiration
Explanation:Pneumothorax is defined as air in the pleural space and may be classified as spontaneous, traumatic or iatrogenic. Primary spontaneous pneumothorax occurs in patients without clinically apparent lung disease.
Primary pneumothorax has an incidence of 18-28 per 100,000 per year for men and 1.2-6 per 100,000 per year for women. Most patients present with ipsilateral pleuritic chest pain and acute shortness of breath. Shortness of breath is largely dependent on the size of the pneumothorax and whether there is underlying chronic lung disease.Young patients may have chest pain only. Most episodes of pneumothorax occur at rest. Symptoms may resolve within 24 hours in patients with primary spontaneous pneumothorax. The diagnosis of a pneumothorax is confirmed by finding a visceral pleural line displaced from the chest wall, without distal lung markings, on a posterior-anterior chest radiograph.
Breathless patients should not be left without intervention regardless of the size of pneumothorax. If there is a rim of air >2cm on the chest X-ray, this should be aspirated.
Aspiration is successful in approximately 70 per cent of patients; the patient may be discharged subsequently. A further attempt at aspiration is recommended if the patient remains symptomatic and a volume of less than 2.5 litres has been aspirated on the first attempt.If unsuccessful, an intercostal drain is inserted. This may be removed after 24 hours after full re-expansion or cessation of air leak without clamping and discharge may be considered.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old girl was brought to the ED by her gym instructor after developing severe shortness of breath and chest pain at the gym. She has a history of asthma since childhood. Her skin colour looked normal; however, breath sounds were found to be diminished on auscultation of the right lung. Which investigation will you order first?
Your Answer: Capillary blood gases
Correct Answer: Chest x-ray
Explanation:Asthma patients have an increased risk of developing complications like pneumonia or collapsed lung. A clear visualization of the lungs through a CXR will define the management necessary for this patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 9
Correct
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A young man is reviewed for difficulty breathing. Lung function tests showed that his peak expiratory flow rate is 54% below the normal range for his age and height. What is a possible diagnosis?
Your Answer: Asthma
Explanation:Peak Expiratory Flow (PEF), also called Peak Expiratory Flow Rate (PEFR) is a person’s maximum speed of expiration, as measured with a peak flow meter. Measurement of PEFR requires some practise to correctly use a meter and the normal expected value depends on a patient’s gender, age and height.
It is classically reduced in obstructive lung disorders, such as Asthma, COPD or Cystic Fibrosis. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 10
Incorrect
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Which treatment of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) increases the long-term prognosis in patients?
Your Answer: Inhaled β2-agonists
Correct Answer: Long-term domiciliary oxygen therapy
Explanation:COPD is commonly associated with progressive hypoxemia. Oxygen administration reduces mortality rates in patients with advanced COPD because of the favourable effects on pulmonary hemodynamics.
Long-term oxygen therapy improves survival 2-fold or more in hypoxemic patients with COPD, according to 2 landmark trials, the British Medical Research Council (MRC) study and the US National Heart, Lung and Blood Institute’s Nocturnal Oxygen Therapy Trial (NOTT). Hypoxemia is defined as PaO2 (partial pressure of oxygen in arterial blood) of less than 55 mm Hg or oxygen saturation of less than 90%. Oxygen was used for 15-19 hours per day.
Therefore, specialists recommend long-term oxygen therapy for patients with a PaO2 of less than 55 mm Hg, a PaO2 of less than 59 mm Hg with evidence of polycythaemia, or cor pulmonale. Patients should be evaluated after 1-3 months after initiating therapy, because some patients may not require long-term oxygen.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 11
Correct
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A 33-year-old lady presented with complaints of an erythematous rash over her shins, along with arthritis and painful swollen knees. What will be the single most likely finding on her chest X-ray?
Your Answer: Bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy
Explanation:Lofgren’s syndrome is characterised by a triad of erythema nodosum, arthritis and bilateral lymphadenopathy. It is a variant of sarcoidosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 12
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old woman is admitted with a right lower lobe pneumonia. There is consolidation and a moderate sized pleural effusion on the same side. An ultrasound guided pleural fluid aspiration is performed. The appearance of the fluid is clear and is sent off for culture. Whilst awaiting the culture results, which one of the following is the most important factor when determining whether a chest tube should be placed?
Your Answer: Glucose of the pleural fluid
Correct Answer: pH of the pleural fluid
Explanation:In adult practice, biochemical analysis of pleural fluid plays an important part in the management of pleural effusions. Protein levels or Light’s criteria differentiate exudates from transudates, while infection is indicated by pleural acidosis associated with raised LDH and low glucose levels. In terms of treatment, the pH may even guide the need for tube drainage, suggested by pH <7.2 in an infected effusion, although the absolute protein values are of no value in determining the likelihood of spontaneous resolution or chest drain requirements. pH is therefore the most important factor.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman with a 30 pack year history of smoking presents with a persistent cough and occasional haemoptysis. A chest x-ray which is done shows no abnormality. What percentage of recent chest x-rays were reported as normal in patients who are subsequently diagnosed with lung cancer?
Your Answer: 5%
Correct Answer: 0.1
Explanation:A retrospective cohort study of the primary care records of 247 lung cancer patients diagnosed between 1998-2002 showed that 10% of the X-rays were reported as normal.
Other tests may include:
– Imaging tests: A CT scan can reveal small lesions in your lungs that might not be detected on an X-ray.
– Sputum cytology: sputum may reveal the presence of lung cancer cells.
– Tissue sample (biopsy): A sample of abnormal cells may be removed for histological analysis. A biopsy may be performed in a number of ways, including bronchoscopy, mediastinoscopy and needle biopsy. A biopsy sample may also be taken from adjacent lymph nodes. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 14
Incorrect
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Which of the following regarding malignant mesothelioma is correct?
Your Answer: is usually diagnosed with pleural fluid cytology
Correct Answer: is treated with radiotherapy
Explanation:Malignant mesothelioma is a type of cancer that occurs in the thin layer of tissue that covers the majority of the internal organs (mesothelium).
Malignant Mesothelioma (MM) is a rare but rapidly fatal and aggressive tumour of the pleura and peritoneum. Aetiology of all forms of mesothelioma is strongly associated with industrial pollutants, of which asbestos is the principal carcinogen.Thoracoscopically guided biopsy should be performed if mesothelioma is suggested; the results are diagnostic in 98% of cases. No specific treatment has been found to be of benefit, except radiotherapy, which reduces seeding and invasion through percutaneous biopsy sites.
Median survival for patients with malignant mesothelioma is 11 months. It is almost always fatal.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 37-year-old woman presents with signs of decreased air entry at the right base after an emergency laparotomy cholecystectomy 18h ago but with no obvious abnormality showed on her CXR. What is the most appropriate management strategy?
Your Answer: Ceftriaxone IV
Correct Answer: Chest physiotherapy
Explanation:Non-invasive action via chest physiotherapy is helpful in the reduction or clearance of excessive secretions from airways.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 16
Correct
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A 39-year-old man was admitted with an exacerbation of asthma. He responded to treatment but the medical intern was concerned that Aspergillus fumigatus was cultured from his sputum.
Subsequently arranged serum total, IgE level was elevated at 437 ng/ml (normal 40-180 ng/ml), RAST to Aspergillus fumigatus was class III, Aspergillus fumigatus precipitins were negative.
What would be the most appropriate management step in this patient?Your Answer: No change in medication
Explanation:Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis (ABPA) is a form of lung disease that occurs in some people who are allergic to Aspergillus. With ABPA, this allergic reaction causes the immune system to overreact to Aspergillus leading to lung inflammation. ABPA causes bronchospasm (tightening of airway muscles) and mucus build-up resulting in coughing, breathing difficulty and airway obstruction.
Blood tests are used to look for signs of an allergic reaction. This includes evaluating your immunoglobulin E (IgE) level. This level is increased with any type of allergy. Many people with asthma have higher than normal IgE levels. In ABPA however, the IgE level is extremely high (more than 1000 ng/ml or 417 IU/ml). In addition to total IgE, all patients with ABPA have high levels of IgE that is specific to Aspergillus. A blood test can be done to measure specific IgE to Aspergillus. A blood or skin test for IgE antibodies to Aspergillus can be done to see if a person is sensitized (allergic) to this fungus. If these skin tests are negative (i.e. does not show a skin reaction) to Aspergillus fumigatus, the person usually does not have ABPA.
Therefore, there should be no change in medication since this patient does not have ABPA. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 17
Correct
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Which of the following statements regarding the clinical effects of long-term oxygen therapy (LTOT) is the most accurate?
Your Answer: Reduced sympathetic outflow
Explanation:Studies have shown that benefits of Long-tern oxygen therapy (LTOT) include improved exercise tolerance, with improved walking distance, and ability to perform daily activities, reduction of secondary polycythaemia, improved sleep quality and reduced sympathetic outflow, with increased sodium and water excretion, leading to improvement in renal function.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 18
Correct
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A 21 year-old male, who is a known alcoholic, presents with a fever, haemoptysis, green sputum and an effusion clinically. There is concern that it may be an empyema.
Which test would be most useful to resolve the suspicion?Your Answer: Pleural fluid pH
Explanation:If a pleural effusion is present, a diagnostic thoracentesis may be performed and analysed for pH, lactate dehydrogenase, glucose levels, specific gravity, and cell count with differential. Pleural fluid may also be sent for Gram stain, culture, and sensitivity. Acid-fast bacillus testing may also be considered and the fluid may be sent for cytology if cancer is suspected.
The following findings are suggestive of an empyema or parapneumonic effusion that will likely need a chest tube or pigtail catheter for complete resolution:
-Grossly purulent pleural fluid
-pH level less than 7.2
-WBC count greater than 50,000 cells/µL (or polymorphonuclear leukocyte count of 1,000 IU/dL)
-Glucose level less than 60 mg/dL
-Lactate dehydrogenase level greater than 1,000 IU/mL
-Positive pleural fluid cultureThe most often used golden criteria for empyema are pleural effusion with macroscopic presence of pus, a positive Gram stain or culture of pleural fluid, or a pleural fluid pH under 7.2 with normal peripheral blood ph.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 19
Correct
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A 55-year-old male underwent a pneumonectomy. Post operatively he was drowsy and found to have a hyponatremia. What would be the most likely reason for his condition?
Your Answer: Removal of hormonally active tumour
Explanation:The syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) is often associated with small-cell lung carcinoma which manifests as a paraneoplastic disorder. SIADH due to non-small-cell cancer has been shown to be triggered following open surgical procedures, however this is an extremely rare phenomenon.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 20
Incorrect
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Which of the statements is most accurate regarding the lung?
Your Answer: In normal subjects the small airways contribute to most of the resistance
Correct Answer: The medial basal segment is absent in the left lower lobe
Explanation:The right and left lung anatomy are similar but asymmetrical. The right lung consists of three lobes: right upper lobe (RUL), right middle lobe (RML), and right lower lobe (RLL). The left lung consists of two lobes: right upper lobe (RUL) and right lower lobe (RLL). The right lobe is divided by an oblique and horizontal fissure, where the horizontal fissure divides the upper and middle lobe, and the oblique fissure divides the middle and lower lobes. In the left lobe there is only an oblique fissure that separates the upper and lower lobe.
The lobes further divide into segments which are associated with specific segmental bronchi. Segmental bronchi are the third-order branches off the second-order branches (lobar bronchi) that come off the main bronchus.
The right lung consists of ten segments. There are three segments in the RUL (apical, anterior and posterior), two in the RML (medial and lateral), and five in the RLL (superior, medial, anterior, lateral, and posterior). The oblique fissure separates the RUL from the RML, and the horizontal fissure separates the RLL from the RML and RUL.
There are eight to nine segments on the left depending on the division of the lobe. In general, there are four segments in the left upper lobe (anterior, apicoposterior, inferior and superior lingula) and four or five in the left lower lobe (lateral, anteromedial, superior and posterior). The medium sized airways offer the maximum airway resistance, not smaller ones.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 21
Correct
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A 60-year-old male presents with intermittent haemoptysis and chronic, productive cough. He has a strong history of smoking and has recently lost weight. What is the patient most likely suffering from?
Your Answer: Bronchogenic carcinoma
Explanation:The combination of haemoptysis, chronic productive cough, and recent weight loss in a smoker is a strong indication of bronchogenic carcinoma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 22
Correct
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A 41-year-old man who has had two episodes of pneumonia in succession and an episode of haemoptysis is observed to have paroxysms of coughing and increasing wheezing. A single lesion which is well-defined is seen in the lower right lower lobe on a chest x-ray. There is no necrosis but biopsy shows numerous abnormal cells, occasional nuclear pleomorphism and absent mitoses.
Which diagnosis fits the clinical presentation?Your Answer: Bronchial carcinoid
Explanation:Bronchial carcinoids are uncommon, slow growing, low-grade, malignant neoplasms, comprising 1-2% of all primary lung cancers.
It is believed to be derived from surface of bronchial glandular epithelium. Mostly located centrally, they produce symptoms and signs of bronchial obstruction such as localized wheeze, non resolving recurrent pneumonitis, cough, chest pain, and fever. Haemoptysis is present in approximately 50% of the cases due to their central origin and hypervascularity.
Central bronchial carcinoids are more common than the peripheral type and are seen as endobronchial nodules or hilar/perihilar mass closely related to the adjacent bronchus. Chest X-ray may not show the central lesion depending on how small it is. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old heroin addict is admitted following an overdose. She is drowsy and has a respiratory rate of 6 bpm. Which of the following arterial blood gas results (taken on room air) are most consistent with this?
Your Answer: pH = 7.49; pCO2 = 4.9 kPa; pO2 = 10.1 kPa
Correct Answer: pH = 7.31; pCO2 = 7.4 kPa; pO2 = 8.1 kPa
Explanation:In mild-to-moderate heroin overdoses, arterial blood gas (ABG) analysis reveals respiratory acidosis. In more severe overdoses, tissue hypoxia is common, leading to mixed respiratory and metabolic acidosis.
The normal range for PaCO2 is 35-45 mmHg (4.67 to 5.99 kPa). Respiratory acidosis can be acute or chronic. In acute respiratory acidosis, the PaCO2 is elevated above the upper limit of the reference range (i.e., >45 mm Hg) with an accompanying academia (i.e., pH < 7.35). In chronic respiratory acidosis, the PaCO2 is elevated above the upper limit of the reference range, with a normal or near-normal pH secondary to renal compensation and an elevated serum bicarbonate levels (i.e., >30 mEq/L).
Arterial blood gases with pH = 7.31; pCO2 = 7.4 kPa; pO2 = 8.1 kPa would indicate respiratory acidosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 24
Correct
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A 68-year-old man who has chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is reviewed. On examination, there is evidence of cor pulmonale with a significant degree of pedal oedema. His FEV1 is 44%. During a recent hospital stay his pO2 on room air was 7.4 kPa.
Which one of the following interventions is most likely to increase survival in this patient?Your Answer: Long-term oxygen therapy
Explanation:Assess the need for oxygen therapy in people with:
– very severe airflow obstruction (FEV1 below 30% predicted)
– cyanosis (blue tint to skin)
– polycythaemia
– peripheral oedema (swelling)
– a raised jugular venous pressure
– oxygen saturations of 92% or less breathing air.Also consider assessment for people with severe airflow obstruction (FEV1 30-49% predicted).
Consider long-term oxygen therapy for people with COPD who do not smoke and who:
have a partial pressure of oxygen in arterial blood (PaO2) below 7.3 kPa when stable or have a PaO2 above 7.3 and below 8 kPa when stable, if they also have 1 or more of the following:
– secondary polycythaemia
– peripheral oedema
– pulmonary hypertension. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 73-year-old woman presents with severe emphysema. She is on maximal therapy including high dose Seretide and tiotropium. She tells you that she is so unwell that she can barely manage the walk the 160 metres to the bus stop.
On examination she looks short of breath at rest. Her BP is 158/74 mmHg, pulse is 76 and regular. There are quiet breath sounds, occasional coarse crackles and wheeze on auscultation of the chest.
Investigations show:
Haemoglobin 14.2 g/dl (13.5-17.7)
White cell count 8.4 x 109/l (4-11)
Platelets 300 x 109/l (150-400)
Sodium 137 mmol/l (135-146)
Potassium 4.1 mmol/l (3.5-5)
Creatinine 127 micromol/l (79-118)
pH 7.4 (7.35-7.45)
pCO2 7.5 kPa (4.8-6.1)
pO2 9.7 kPa (10-13.3)
Chest x-ray - Prominent upper lobe emphysema.
FEV1 - 30% of predicted.
Which of the features of her history, examination or investigations would preclude referral for lung reduction surgery?Your Answer: Predominant upper lobe emphysema
Correct Answer: pCO2 7.4
Explanation:Nice guidelines for lung reduction surgery:
FEV1 > 20% predicted
PaCO2 < 7.3 kPa
TLco > 20% predicted
Upper lobe predominant emphysemaThis patient has pCO2 of 7.4 so she is unsuitable for referral for lung reduction surgery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 26
Correct
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A patient with a history of asthma presents with worsening of her symptoms and dyspnoea. She recently started taking a new medicine and she feels it might have aggravated her symptoms.
Which of the following is likely responsible for her symptoms?Your Answer: Timolol eye drops
Explanation:β-blockers are the class of drug most often chosen to treat glaucoma, although other medical therapies are available. Systemic absorption of timolol eye drops can cause unsuspected respiratory impairment and exacerbation of asthma. Physicians should be alert to the possibility of respiratory side-effects of topical therapy with β-blockers. Leukotriene antagonists and salbutamol are used in asthma treatment. HRT and ferrous sulphate do not lead to the exacerbation of asthma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 27
Correct
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A 50-year-old woman presents with coughing up copious sputum with blood streaks, increased breathlessness, and finger clubbing. She has a history of chronic cough. What is the initial investigation?
Your Answer: Chest x-ray
Explanation:Finger clubbing and past history suggest a chronic pulmonary process going on. A CXR will allow the pathology to be visualised including any infective or cancerous causes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 28
Correct
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A 60-year old male presented to the OPD with a complaint of a rusty-coloured sputum along with a cough for 3 days. His has a history of smoking for 40 years, and a history of significant weight loss. His chest X-ray revealed solid nodules in both lungs and bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy. Out of the following, which one is the most appropriate investigation?
Your Answer: LN biopsy
Explanation:The patient’s age, a history of long-term smoking, and bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy are strong indications of malignancy. Lymph node biopsy would be essential in order to check the degree of metastasis in the mediastinal lymph nodes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old man presents with an acute exacerbation of asthma associated with a chest infection. He is unable to complete a sentence and his peak flow rate was 34% of his normal level. He is treated with high-flow oxygen, nebulised bronchodilators, and oral corticosteroids for three days, but his condition has not improved.
Which of the following intravenous treatments would be the best option for this patient?Your Answer: Augmentin
Correct Answer: Magnesium
Explanation:A single dose of intravenous magnesium sulphate is safe and may improve lung function and reduce intubation rates in patients with acute severe asthma. Intravenous magnesium sulphate may also reduce hospital admissions in adults with acute asthma who have had little or no response to standard treatment.
Consider giving a single dose of intravenous magnesium sulphate to patients with acute severe asthma (PEF <50% best or predicted) who have not had a good initial response to inhaled bronchodilator therapy. Magnesium sulphate (1.2-2 g IV infusion over 20 minutes) should only be used following consultation with senior medical staff.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 30
Correct
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A 69-year-old man complains of a significant decrease in weight, SOB, chest pain discomfort and cough. Examination results are constricted left pupil and drooping left eyelid. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Pancoast tumour
Explanation:Destructive lesions of the thoracic inlet is related to the apical lung cancer called Pancoast tumour, along with the involvement of cervical sympathetic nerves (the stellate ganglion) and brachial plexus which can lead to a Horner’s syndrome
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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