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Question 1
Correct
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A 33-year-old woman presented to the medical clinic with a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus. She plans to conceive in the next few months and asks for advice. Her fasting blood sugar is 10.5 mmol/L and her HbA1c is 9%.
Which of the following is considered the best advice to give to the patient?Your Answer: Achieve HbA1c value less than 7% before she gets pregnant
Explanation:Women with diabetes have increased risk for adverse maternal and neonatal outcomes and similar risks are present for either type 1 or type 2 diabetes. Both forms of diabetes require similar intensity of diabetes care. Preconception planning is very important to avoid unintended pregnancies, and to minimize risk of congenital defects. Haemoglobin A1c goal at conception is <6.5% and during pregnancy is <6.0%.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 2
Incorrect
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The relation of different fetal parts to each other determines?
Your Answer: Position of the foetus
Correct Answer: Attitude of the foetus
Explanation:Fetal attitude is defined as the relation of the various parts of the foetus to each other. In the normal attitude, the foetus is in universal flexion. The anatomic explanation for this posture is that it enables the foetus to occupy the least amount of space in the intrauterine cavity. The fetal attitude is extremely difficult, if not impossible, to assess without the help of an ultrasound examination.
Fetal lie refers to the relationship between the long axis of the foetus relative to the long axis of the mother. If the foetus and maternal column are parallel (on the same long axis), the lie is termed vertical or longitudinal lie.
Fetal presentation means, the part of the foetus which is overlying the maternal pelvic inlet.
Position is the positioning of the body of a prenatal foetus in the uterus. It will change as the foetus develops. This is a description of the relation of the presenting part of the foetus to the maternal pelvis. In the case of a longitudinal lie with a vertex presentation, the occiput of the fetal calvarium is the landmark used to describe the position. When the occiput is facing the maternal pubic symphysis, the position is termed direct occiput anterior.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 3
Correct
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A 22 year old woman had a C-section two hours ago. However, she has not urinated since then and claims she had no urinary complaints before the operation. Upon inspection she appears unwell and her abdomen is distended and tender suprapubically and in the left flank. Auscultation reveals no bowel sounds. Further examination reveals the following: Temp=37.5C, BP=94/73mmHg, Pulse=116bpm, Sat=97%. What's the most likely complication?
Your Answer: Urinary tract injury
Explanation:Urologic injury is the most common injury at the time of either obstetric or gynaecologic surgery, with the bladder being the most frequent organ damaged. Risk factors for bladder injury during caesarean section include previous caesarean delivery, adhesions, emergency caesarean delivery, and caesarean section performed during the second stage of labour.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old mother with a 9-year-old child is considering having a second child. Her first pregnancy was complicated by puerperal psychosis. Following electroconvulsive therapy (ECT), she promptly recovered and has been well until now. She is in excellent health and her husband has been very supportive. According to patient files, she was noted to be an excellent mother.
What would be the most appropriate advice?Your Answer: In view of her good outcome, there is minimal risk of further recurrence.
Correct Answer: There is a 15-20% chance of recurrence of psychosis postpartum.
Explanation:Puerperal psychosis seems to be mainly hereditary and closely associated with bipolar disorder especially the manic type, rather than being a distinct condition with a group of classical symptoms or course. Postpartum psychoses typically have an abrupt onset within 2 weeks of delivery and may have rapid progression of symptoms. Fortunately, it is generally a brief condition and responds well to prompt management. If the condition is threatening the mother and/or baby’s safety, hospital admission is warranted. A patient can present with a wide variety of psychotic symptoms ranging from delusion, passivity phenomenon, catatonia, and hallucinations. While depression and mania may be the predominating features, it is not surprising to see symptoms such as confusion and stupor. Although the rate of incidence is about 1 in 1000 pregnancies, it is seen in about 20% of women who previously had bipolar episodes prior to pregnancy. It has not been shown to be linked with factors such as twin pregnancies, stillbirth, breastfeeding or being a single parent. However, it might be more commonly seen in women who are first-time mothers and pregnancy terminations.
The risk of recurrence is 20%. Unfortunately, there is no specific treatment guideline but organic causes should first be ruled out. First generation/typical anti-psychotics are often associated with extrapyramidal symptoms. Nowadays, atypical antipsychotics such as risperidone or olanzapine can be used along with lithium which is a mood stabiliser. As of now, there hasn’t been any significant side effects as a result of second generation antipsychotic use in pregnancy. While women are usually advised to stop breast-feeding, it might be unnecessary except if the mother is being treated with lithium which has been reported to cause side effects on the infants in a few instances. ECT is considered to be highly efficacious for all types of postpartum psychosis and may be necessary if the mother’s condition is life-threatening to herself or/and the baby. If untreated, puerperal psychosis might persist for 6 months or even longer.
The options of saying ‘in view of her age and previous problem, further pregnancies are out of the question’ and so is ‘By all means start another pregnancy and see how she feels about it. If she has misgivings, then have the pregnancy terminated.’ are inappropriate.
As mentioned earlier, considering there is a 20% chance of recurrence it is not correct to say that since she had good outcomes with her first pregnancy, the risk of recurrence is minimal.
Anti-psychotics are not recommended to be used routinely both during pregnancy and lactation due to the absence of long-term research on children with intrauterine and breastmilk exposure to the drugs. Hence it is not right to conclude that ‘if she gets pregnant then she should take prophylactic antipsychotics throughout the pregnancy’ as it contradicts current guidelines. Each case should be individualised and the risks compared with the benefits to decide whether anti-psychotics should be given during pregnancy. It is important to obtain informed consent from both the mother and partner with documentation.
Should the mother deteriorates during the pregnancy that she no longer is capable of making decisions about treatment, then an application for temporary guardianship should be carried out to ensure that she can be continued on the appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 5
Incorrect
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Which one of the following is true regarding routine prenatal screening ultrasonography before 24 weeks gestation?
Your Answer: It has been shown to reduce perinatal mortality
Correct Answer: It has not been proven to have any significant benefits
Explanation:Routine ultrasonography at around 18-22 weeks gestation has become the standard of care in many communities. Acceptance is based on many factors, including patient preference, medical-legal pressure, and the perceived benefit by physicians. However, rigorous testing has found little scientific benefit for, or harm from, routine screening ultrasonography.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old female G2P1 is in labour at the 38th week of gestation. Her membranes ruptured about 8 hours ago. At the moment, she is having contractions lasting 60 seconds every 4 minutes and is 8 cm dilated. The fetal heart tone baseline is currently 80/min with absent variability. The pregnancy was uneventful and she had regular prenatal check-ups.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?Your Answer: Immediate Caesarean section
Correct Answer: Maternal position change and oxygen
Explanation:This patient is towards the end of the first stage of labour and is having complications. Labour is divided into 3 stages. The first stage begins at regular uterine contractions and ends with complete cervical dilatation at 10 cm. It has a latent phase and an active phase- The active phase is usually considered to have begun when cervical dilatation reaches 4 cm. So this patient is in the active phase of the first stag- The second stage begins with complete cervical dilatation and ends with the delivery of the foetus. The third stage of labour is the period between the delivery of the foetus and the delivery of the placenta and fetal membranes.
This patient’s contractions seem adequate and yet the fetal heart tone with baseline 80/min and absent variability suggests fetal distress. This is category III of the fetal heart rate pattern because the baseline rate is < 110/min with absent variability. It is usually predictive of abnormal acid-base status. The recommended actions are maternal position change and oxygen administration, discontinuation of labour stimulus such as oxytocin, treatment of possible underlying conditions, and expedited delivery.
→ Magnesium sulphate infusion is mainly used to prevent eclamptic seizures and despite no evidence of its effectiveness as a tocolytic agent, it is used sometimes to reduce risks of preterm birth.
→ Fetal scalp pH monitoring would help determine if there is indeed an acidosis and should be done before deciding whether a Caesarean section is necessary, but maternal position change and oxygen administration should be done first.
→ Ultrasonography may be used for preinduction cervical length measurement or if the active stage has already started- It is considered more accurate than digital pelvic exam in the assessment of fetal descent; however, at this point maternal position change and oxygen administration should be done first.
→ Immediate Caesarean section would be done if fetal scalp pH monitoring revealed a pH < 7.20. At this point, the best next step is maternal position change and oxygen administration. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 7
Correct
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A 27-year-old woman who is 18 weeks pregnant presented to the emergency department due to a sudden onset of dyspnoea and pleuritic chest pain. She is known to have a previous history of deep venous thrombosis (DVT).
Which of the following is considered to be the most appropriate examination for this patient?Your Answer: Ventilation/perfusion scan
Explanation:Pulmonary embolism (PE) is a treatable disease caused by thrombus formation in the lung-vasculature, commonly from the lower extremity’s deep veins compromising the blood flow to the lungs.
Computed tomography of pulmonary arteries (CTPA) and ventilation-perfusion (V/Q) scan are the two most common and widely practiced testing modalities to diagnose pulmonary embolism.Pulmonary ventilation (V) and Perfusion (Q) scan, also known as lung V/Q scan, is a nuclear test that uses the perfusion scan to delineate the blood flow distribution and ventilation scan to measure airflow distribution in the lungs. The primary utilization of the V/Q scan is to help diagnose lung clots called pulmonary embolism. V/Q scan provides help in clinical decision-making by evaluating scans showing ventilation and perfusion in all areas of the lungs using radioactive tracers.
Ventilation-perfusion V/Q scanning is mostly indicated for a patient population in whom CTPA is contraindicated (pregnancy, renal insufficiency CKD stage 4 or more, or severe contrast allergy) or relatively inconclusive.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old primigravida presented with vaginal bleeding at 16 weeks of gestation. She is Rh-negative, and her baby is Rh-positive.
Speculum examination shows a dilated cervix with visible products of conception. Pelvic ultrasound confirmed the diagnosis of spontaneous abortion.
In this case, what will you do regarding Anti-D administration?Your Answer: Give Anti-D at 28 weeks gestation during next pregnancy
Correct Answer: Give anti-D now
Explanation:As the mother is found to be rhesus negative while her baby being rhesus positive, the given case is clinically diagnosed as spontaneous abortion due to Rh incompatibility. The mother should be administered anti-D for prophylaxis for avoiding future complications.
Rhesus (Rh) negative women who deliver a Rh-positive baby or who comes in contact with Rh positive red blood cells are at high risk for developing anti-Rh antibodies. The Rh positive fetuses
eonates of such mothers are at high risk of developing hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn, which can be lethal or associated with serious morbidity.
In such situations both spontaneous and threatened abortion after 12 weeks of gestation, are indications to use anti-D in such situations.All the other options are incorrect.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 9
Correct
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A 26-year-old pregnant woman in her third trimester, was admitted with headache, abdominal pain and visual disturbances. Shortly after, she had a fit. What is the most appropriate management?
Your Answer: 4g MgSO4 in 100ml 0.9% Normal saline in 5 min.
Explanation:The woman is most probably suffering from eclampsia.
Magnesium sulphate (MgSO4) is the agent most commonly used for treatment of eclampsia and prophylaxis of eclampsia in patients with severe pre-eclampsia. It is usually given by either intramuscular or intravenous routes. The intramuscular regimen is most commonly a 4 g intravenous loading dose, immediately followed by 10 g intramuscularly and then by 5 g intramuscularly every 4 hours. The intravenous regimen is given as a 4 g dose, followed by a maintenance infusion of 1 to 2 g/h by controlled infusion pump. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old woman at her 37 weeks of gestation is diagnosed with primary genital herpetic lesions at multiple sites in the genital area.
What is the most appropriate management in this case?Your Answer: Give acyclovir to the neonate after delivery
Correct Answer: Prophylactic antiviral before 4 days before delivery
Explanation:This woman at her 37 weeks of gestation, has developed multiple herpetic lesions over her genitals. In every case were the mother develops herpes simplex infection after 28 weeks of pregnancy, chances for intrapartum and vertical transmission of the infection to the neonate is considered to be very high.
Risk factors of intrapartum herpes simplex infection of the child includes premature labour, premature rupture of membrane, primary herpes simplex infection and multiple lesion in the genital area.
The most appropriate methods for managing this case includes:
– checking for herpes simplex infection using PCR testing of a cervical swab.
– starting prophylactic antiviral therapy for the mother from 38 weeks of gestation until delivery.
– preferring a cesarean section delivery if there are active lesions present in the cervix and/or vulva.Cesarean delivery is advised in this case along with maternal antiviral therapy before delivery to minimise the risk of vertical transmission.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 11
Correct
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A 32-year-old woman at 33 weeks of gestation presents with vaginal bleeding.
A pelvic ultrasound was done, which confirms the diagnosis of placenta praevia and you are planning a cesarean section as it is the most appropriate mode of delivery.
Which among the following is considered a possible outcome of cesarean section delivery?Your Answer: Increase risk of adhesions
Explanation:Obstetric complications during or following a cesarean section delivery include:
-Increased risk of maternal mortality.
-Increased need for cesarean sections in the subsequent pregnancies.
-Increased risk for damage to adjacent visceral organs especially bowels and bladder.
-Increased risk of infections.Increased risk for formation of adhesions is a complication after cesarean section and this is the correct response for the given question.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 12
Incorrect
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Fetal distress commonly occurs when the head is in the occipito-posterior (OP) position during labour. Which of the following statements is the most probable explanation for this?
Your Answer: Prolonged labour.
Correct Answer: Incoordinate uterine action.
Explanation:Incoordinate uterine action almost always results in fetal distress due to increased resting intrauterine pressure. All other statements can also cause fetal distress, however, these are not as common as incoordinate uterine action. Syntocin infusion for labour augmentation and administration of epidural anaesthetic for pain relief can also increase the risk of fetal distress.
Cardiotocograph (CTG) monitoring during labour is highly recommended in patients where the fetal head is found in the OP position. Moreover, it is mandatory when there is Syntocin infusion or epidural anaesthesia. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 6-year-old girl is brought to the emergency department for evaluation of vaginal discharge. She has had malodorous vaginal discharge and small amounts of vaginal bleeding for about a week. Her mother called the patient’s primary care provider and instructed to stop giving bubble baths to the child, however, the symptoms have not improved. Aside from the discharge, the girl is normal, she was toilet trained at age 2 and has had no episodes of incontinence. She started kindergarten a month ago. Mother informed that patient has no fever, abdominal pain, or dysuria.
On examination, the labia appear normal but a purulent, malodorous vaginal discharge is noted. Visual inspection with the child in knee-chest position shows a whitish foreign body inside the vaginal introitus.
Which among the following is the best next step in management of this patient?Your Answer: Notify Child Protective Services immediately
Correct Answer: Irrigate with warmed fluid after local anesthetic application
Explanation:Vaginal spotting, malodorous vaginal discharge and no signs of trauma like lacerations are the clinical features of vaginal foreign bodies in prepubertal girls. The most common object found as foreign body is toilet paper and its management includes warm irrigation and vaginoscopy under sedation/anesthesia.
Common cause of vulvovaginitis in prepubertal girls are vaginal foreign bodies. Although other objects like small toys, hair bands, etc can be occasionally found, the most common vaginal foreign body is toilet paper. Symptoms like malodorous vaginal discharge, intermittent vaginal bleeding or spotting and urinary symptoms like dysuria are caused due to the chronic irritation caused by the foreign body (the whitish foreign body in this case) on the vaginal tissue.
An external pelvic examination is performed with the girl in a knee-chest or frog-leg position in cases of suspected vaginal foreign body. An attempt at removal, after application of a topical anesthetic in the vaginal introitus, using vaginal irrigation with warm fluid or a swab can be done in case of an easily visualized small foreign body like toilet paper. In cases were the age of the girl or the type of foreign body prohibit adequate clinical evaluation the patient should be sedated or given a general anesthesia for examination using a vaginoscope and the foreign body should be removed.
In cases where child abuse or neglect is suspected Child Protective Services should be contacted. Vaginal or rectal foreign bodies can be the initial presentation of sexual abuse; however in otherwise asymptomatic girls with no behavioral changes, urinary symptoms and vulvar or anal trauma, presence of toilet paper is not of an immediately concerning for abuse.
To evaluate pelvic or ovarian masses CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis can be used; but it is not indicated in evaluation of a vaginal foreign body.
Patients in there prepubertal age have a narrow vaginal introitus and sensitive hymenal tissue due to low estrogen levels, so speculum examinations should not be performed in such patients as it can result in significant discomfort and trauma.
Topical estrogen can be used in the treatment of urethral prolapse, which is a cause of vaginal bleeding in prepubertal girls. This diagnosis is unlikely in this case as those with urethral prolapse will present with a beefy red protrusion at the urethra and not a material in the vagina.
Prepubertal girls with retained toilet paper as a vaginal foreign body will present with symptoms like malodorous vaginal discharge and vaginal spotting secondary to irritation. Initial management is topical anaesthetic application and removal of foreign body either by vaginal irrigation with warm fluid or removal with a swab.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 14
Incorrect
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The most common cause of perinatal death in mono-amniotic twin is:
Your Answer: Lethal congenital anomalies
Correct Answer: Cord entrapment
Explanation:Cord entanglement, a condition unique to MoMo pregnancies, occurs in 42 to 80% of the cases and it has been traditionally related to high perinatal mortality. Umbilical cord entanglement is present in all monoamniotic twins when it is systematically evaluated by ultrasound and colour Doppler. Perinatal mortality in monoamniotic twins is mainly a consequence of conjoined twins, twin reversed arterial perfusion (TRAP), discordant anomaly and spontaneous miscarriage before 20 weeks’ gestation. Expectantly managed monoamniotic twins after 20 weeks have a very good prognosis despite the finding of cord entanglement. The practice of elective very preterm delivery or other interventions to prevent cord accidents in monoamniotic twins should be re-evaluated.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 15
Correct
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A diminishing blood volume within the first 4 hours post-partum may be seen when a warning sign occurs.
Which of the following is considered the single most important warning sign for the said situation?Your Answer: Tachycardia
Explanation:Postpartum haemorrhage (PPH) is a cumulative blood loss greater than 1000 mL with signs and symptoms of hypovolemia within 24 hours of the birth process, regardless of the route of delivery.
The first step in managing hemorrhagic shock is recognition. This should occur before the development of hypotension. Close attention should be paid to physiological responses to low blood volume. Tachycardia, tachypnoea, and narrowing pulse pressure may be the initial signs.
Tachycardia is typically the first abnormal vital sign of hemorrhagic shock. As the body attempts to preserve oxygen delivery to the brain and heart, blood is shunted away from extremities and nonvital organs. This causes cold and modelled extremities with delayed capillary refill. This shunting ultimately leads to worsening acidosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 16
Incorrect
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Among the following which is the most likely finding of placental abruption in a pregnant woman?
Your Answer: Uterine tenderness
Correct Answer: Vaginal bleeding
Explanation:Placental abruption is defined as the premature separation of placenta from uterus and the condition usually presents with bleeding, uterine contractions and fetal distress. It is one of the most significant cause of third-trimester bleeding and is often associated with fetal and maternal mortality and morbidity. In all pregnant women with vaginal bleeding in the second half of the pregnancy, this condition should be considered as a differential diagnoses.
Though vaginal bleeding is the most common presenting symptom reported by almost 80% of women with placental abruption, vaginal bleeding is concealed in 20% of women with placental abruption, therefore, absence of vaginal bleeding does not exclude placental abruption.Symptoms and complications of placental abruption varies according to patient, frequency of appearance of some common features is as follows:
- Vaginal bleeding is the common presentation in 80% of patients.
- Abdominal or lower back pain with uterine tenderness is found in 70%
- Fetal distress is seen in 60% of women.
- Abnormal uterine contractions like hypertonic, high frequency contractions are seen in 35% cases.
- Idiopathic premature labor in 25% of patients.
- Fetal death in about 15% of cases.Examination findings include vaginal bleeding, uterine contractions with or without tenderness, shock, absence of fetal heart sounds and increased fundal height due to an expanding hematoma. Shock is seen in class 3 placental abruption which represents almost 24% of all cases of placental abruption.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 17
Correct
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Consider you are looking after a male baby in neonatal unit. Case chart shows that his mother has been abusing intravenous drugs until late this pregnancy.
You will not discharge this baby home after delivery in all of the following conditions except?Your Answer: Weight loss greater than two percent of birth weight
Explanation:If a mother has been abusing drugs during antenatal period, there are some contraindications to discharge her baby home. These conditions includes:
– excessive weight loss, which is greater than ten percent of birth weigh
– suspected baby neglect or abuse
– suspected domestic violence
– a court order preventing baby from being discharged home or if there is requirement for further assessment of withdrawal symptoms.A 2-3 percentages weight loss during the early neonatal period is considered to be a normal finding and is therefore not considered as a contraindication to discharge the baby home.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old female presented with acute migraine accompanied with headache and vomiting. She was noted to be at 33 weeks of gestation.
Which of the following is considered the safest treatment for the patient?Your Answer: Paracetamol
Correct Answer: Paracetamol and metoclopramide
Explanation:The occurrence of migraine in women is influenced by hormonal changes throughout the lifecycle. A beneficial effect of pregnancy on migraine, mainly during the last 2 trimesters, has been observed in 55 to 90% of women who are pregnant, irrespective of the type of migraine.
For treatment of acute migraine attacks, 1000 mg of paracetamol (acetaminophen) preferably as a suppository is considered the first choice drug treatment. The risks associated with use of aspirin (acetylsalicylic acid) and ibuprofen are considered to be small when the agents are taken episodically and if they are avoided during the last trimester of pregnancy.
Paracetamol 500 mg alone or in combination with metoclopramide 10 mg are recommended as first choice symptomatic treatment of a moderate-to-severe primary headache during pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old woman, gravida 4 para 0 aborta 3, at 35 weeks of gestation comes to the hospital due to intense, constant lower abdominal pain. The patient got conceived via in-vitro fertilization and her prenatal course has been uncomplicated. Over the past 10 years, the patient has had 3 spontaneous abortions, all attributed to uterine leiomyoma. Two years ago, she had an abdominal myomectomy during which the uterine cavity was entered.
On examination her temperature is 36.7 C (98 F), blood pressure is 132/84 mm Hg, and pulse is 100/min. The fetal heart rate tracing shows a baseline rate in the 140s with moderate variability and persistent variable decelerations to the 90s. Contractions occur every 2-3 minutes and last for 45 seconds, her cervix is 4 cm dilated and 100% effaced.
Which among the following is the best next step in management of this patient?Your Answer: Expectant management and spontaneous vaginal delivery
Correct Answer: Laparotomy and cesarean delivery
Explanation:Uterine surgical history & scope of vaginal birth are as follows:
– In case of low transverse cesarean delivery with horizontal incision: trial of labor is not contraindicated.
– Classical cesarean delivery with vertical incision: trial of labor is contraindicated
– Abdominal myomectomy with uterine cavity entry: trial of labor is contraindicated
– Abdominal myomectomy without uterine cavity entry: trial of labor is not contraindicated.In laboring patients with prior uterine surgical histories like a prior classical (vertical) cesarean delivery or a prior myomectomy that was extensive or has entered the uterine cavity like during removal of intramural or submucosal fibroids are at a higher risk for uterine rupture. Given this patient’s history of previous myomectomy, her intense and constant abdominal pain with an abnormal fetal heart rate tracing, like persistent variable decelerations, are pointing to uterine rupture. vaginal bleeding, abdominally palpable fetal parts, loss of fetal station and any change in contraction pattern are the other possible manifestations of uterine rupture. Based on the extent and exact location of the rupture and the presence or absence of regional anesthesia, presentation of a uterine rupture will change.
Vaginal delivery is safe after a low transverse (horizontal uterine incision) cesarean delivery. Patients with a history of either classical cesarean delivery or an extensive myomectomy are delivered via cesarean delivery at 36-37 weeks gestation, so urgent laparotomy and cesarean delivery are required if these patients present in labor. Further management is determined by other intraoperative findings like, whether uterine rupture has occurred, if occured then delivery is done through the rupture site, followed by a uterine repair; If the uterus is unruptured, a hysterotomy (ie, cesarean delivery) is performed. In patients with prior classical cesarean delivery or extensive myomectomy, an expectant management for a vaginal delivery is contraindicated.
Amnioinfusion is the technique of placing an intrauterine pressure catheter to decrease umbilical cord compression by doing an intrauterine infusion and this thereby helps to resolve variable decelerations. In patients with a history of uterine surgery Amnioinfusion is contraindicated.
In cases with abnormal fetal heart rate tracings, if the patient is completely (10cm) dilated, an operative vaginal delivery can be performed to expedite a vaginal delivery.
Terbutaline is a tocolytic, which is administered to relax the uterus in conditions with contractile abnormalities, such as tachysystole which presents with >5 contractions in 10 minutes or tetanic contractions were contractions last for >2 minutes, which results in fetal heart rate abnormalities. In the given case, the patient’s contractions are normal, which occurs in every 2-3 minutes and lasts for 45 seconds, causing pain and cervical dilation.
After a classical cesarean delivery or an extensive myomectomy, labor and vaginal delivery are contraindicated due to its significant risk of uterine rupture. Laparotomy and cesarean delivery are preferred in laboring a patients at high risk of uterine rupture.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman presented to the emergency department with complaints of abdominal pain and nausea. She noted that her symptoms began 2 days ago but has severely increased over the last 3 hours. It was also noted that the patient has passed several vaginal blood clots in the last hour.
Upon history taking, it was noted that she has a history of irregular menstrual cycles and is not sure of the date of her last period. Two years ago, she was diagnosed with a bicornuate uterus during an infertility evaluation. Aside from these, the patient has no other medical conditions and has no past surgeries.
Further examination was done and the following are her results:
BMI is 28 kg/m2
Blood pressure is 90/56mmHg
Pulse is 120/min
An abdominal examination was performed and revealed guarding with decreased bowel sounds. Speculum examination also revealed moderate bleeding with clots from the cervix. Her urine pregnancy test result turned out positive. A transvaginal ultrasound was performed and revealed a gestational sac at the upper left uterine cornu and free fluid in the posterior cul-de-sac of the pelvis.
Which of the following is considered the next step in best managing the patient's condition?Your Answer: Serum quantitative β-hCG level
Correct Answer: Surgical exploration
Explanation:Ectopic pregnancy is a known complication of pregnancy that can carry a high rate of morbidity and mortality when not recognized and treated promptly. It is essential that providers maintain a high index of suspicion for an ectopic in their pregnant patients as they may present with pain, vaginal bleeding, or more vague complaints such as nausea and vomiting. Ectopic pregnancy, in essence, is the implantation of an embryo outside of the uterine cavity most commonly in the fallopian tube.
Providers should identify any known risk factors for ectopic pregnancy in their patient’s history, such as if a patient has had a prior confirmed ectopic pregnancy, known fallopian tube damage (history of pelvic inflammatory disease, tubal surgery, known obstruction), or achieved pregnancy through infertility treatment.
Performance of laparoscopic surgery is safe and effective treatment modalities in hemodynamically stable women with a non-ruptured ectopic pregnancy.
Patients with relatively low hCG levels would benefit from the single-dose methotrexate protocol. Patients with higher hCG levels may necessitate two-dose regimens. There is literature suggestive that methotrexate treatment does not have adverse effects on ovarian reserve or fertility. hCG levels should be trended until a non-pregnancy level exists post-methotrexate administration.
Surgical management is necessary when the patients demonstrate any of the following: an indication of intraperitoneal bleeding, symptoms suggestive of ongoing ruptured ectopic mass, or hemodynamically instability. Women who present early in pregnancy and have testing suggestive of an ectopic pregnancy would jeopardize the viability of an intrauterine pregnancy if given Methotrexate. The patient may have a cervical ectopic pregnancy and would thus run the risk of haemorrhage and potential hemodynamic instability if a dilation and curettage are performed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 28-year -old lady in her 13th week of gestation comes to your clinic with a recent history of, four days ago, contact with a child suffering from parvovirus infection. She is concerned whether her baby might be affected.
A serum analysis for lgM and lgG antibody for parvovirus came back as negative.
Which among the following would be the most appropriate next step of management in this case?Your Answer: Reassure her as the antibody titres are negative
Correct Answer: Repeat serologic tests in two weeks
Explanation:Parvovirus B19 is a single-stranded DNA virus, which is the causative organism for erythema infectiosum, also known as fifth disease or slapped cheek syndrome.
Maternal infection with parvovirus B19 is almost always associated with an increased risk of transplacental fetal infection throughout the pregnancy. Fetal infection results in fetal parvovirus syndrome, which is characterized by anemia hydrops with cardiac failure and possibly death.
The earlier the exposure occurs, it is more likely to result in fetal parvovirus syndrome and stillbirth is the common outcome in case of third trimester infection.Women who have been exposed to parvovirus in early pregnancy should be informed on the possible risk of fetal infection and also should be screened for parvovirus B19 specific lgG.
– If parvovirus specific lgG is positive reassure that pregnancy is not at risk
– If parvovirus specific lgG is negative, serology for lgM should be performed
After infection with parvovirus, patient’s lgM is expected to become positive within 1 to 3 weeks and it will remain high for about 8-12 weeks. lgG levels will start to rise within 2 to 4 weeks after the infection.This woman has a negative lgG titer which indicates that she is not immune to the infection. Although her lgM titer is negative now, this does not exclude the chance of infection as it takes approximately 1 to 3 weeks after infection for lgM to become positive, and will then remain high for 8 to 12 weeks. In such cases, it is recommended the serologic tests be repeated in 2 weeks when the lgM may become positive while lgG starts to rise.
– Positive lgM titers confirm maternal parvovirus infection. If that is the case, the next step would be fetal monitoring with ultrasound for development of hydrops at 1-2 weeks intervals for the next 6-12 weeks(needs referral). Once the fetus is found to have hydrops, fetal umbilical cord sampling and intrauterine blood transfusion are considered the treatment options.
– Positive lgG and negative lgM indicates maternal immunity to parvovirus.Interpretation of serologic tests results and the further actions recommended are as follows:
If both IgM and IgG are negative, it means mother is not immune to parvovirus B19 infection, and an infection is possible. Further action will be Repetition of serological tests in 2 weeks.
If IgM is positive and IgG is negative, it means the infection is established. Fetal monitoring with ultrasound at 1- to 2-week intervals for the next 6- 12 weeks must be done.
If both IgM and IgG are positive, it means infection is established, and an infection is possible. Further action will be fetal monitoring with ultrasound at 1- to 2-week intervals for the next 6- 12 weeks.
If IgM is negative and IgG is positive, it means the mother is immune to parvovirus infection. In this case it is important to reassure the mother that the baby is safe.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 22
Correct
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A woman in her 27 weeks of gestation presents to your clinic with gushing of clear yellow vaginal fluid.
Premature rupture of membrane (PPROM ) is confirmed on speculum examination, and the cervical os is closed.
Which of the following would be the most appropriate management, in addition to transfer to a tertiary center?Your Answer: Systemic corticosteroids
Explanation:Cases with spontaneous rupture of membrane before the onset of labour, prior to 37 weeks of gestation is defined as preterm premature rupture of membranes(PPROM). It complicates almost 2-4% of all singleton and 7- 20% of twin pregnancies and is commonly associated with more than 60% of all preterm births.
Management of PPROM In the absence of chorioamnionitis, depends on the gestational age. That is in cases of PPROM before 23 weeks, labor may be induced or the patient be sent home for bed rest and is asked to wait until any signs of spontaneous delivery to start. Between 23 and 34 + 0/7 weeks, the patient should be transferred to a tertiary hospital and be admitted there as it is very important to administer systemic corticosteroids, for the fetal lung to attain maturity. It is also mandatory the patient gets adequate bed rest, cervical and vaginal swabs for microscopy and culture, along with prophylactic antibiotics for prevention of chorioamnionitis.
NOTE – regardless of the gestational age, chorioamnionitis is said to be an absolute indication for the termination of pregnancy.In the given case, patient is currently in her 28th week of gestation, so she should be immediately transferred to a tertiary hospital and given systemic steroids to promote fetal lung maturation in case preterm delivery ensues.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A pregnant female recently underwent her antenatal screening for HIV and Hepatitis B. Which of the following additional tests should she be screened for?
Your Answer: Syphilis and Toxoplasma
Correct Answer: Rubella, Toxoplasma and Syphilis
Explanation:A screening blood test for the infectious diseases HIV, Syphilis, Rubella, Toxoplasmosis and Hepatitis B is offered to all pregnant females so as to reduce the chances of transmission to the neonate.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 24
Correct
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A 26-year-old woman developed nausea and vomiting since 5th week of gestation, her symptoms started getting worsening over the last two weeks.
On examination, she presents with signs of moderate degree of dehydration, along with a weight loss of approximately 10%.
Urine dipstick examination is negative for both leukocytes and nitrites but is positive for ketones. Serum ketone level is elevated and other electrolytes including blood glucose levels are within normal range.
Which of the below mentioned treatment options is not appropriate in this situation?Your Answer: Encourage oral intake and discharge home
Explanation:Patient mentioned in the case has developed severe nausea and vomiting at the initial weeks of pregnancy. If the following clinical features are present, it confirms the diagnosis of hyperemesis gravidarum:
– Weight loss of more than 5% of pre-pregnancy weight
– Moderate to severe dehydration.
– Ketosis
– Electrolyte abnormalities.Management of hyperemesis gravidarum include:
– Temporary suspension of oral intake, followed by gradual resumption.
– Intravenous fluid resuscitation, beginning with 2 L of Ringer’s lactate infused over 3 hours to maintain a urine output of more than 100 mL/h.
– Use of Antiemetics like metoclopramide, if needed.
– Oral administration of Vitamin B6.
– Replacement of electrolytes if required in the case.Encouraging oral intake and sending this patient home without any intravenous hydration, is not considered the correct treatment option in this case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 25
Correct
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A 26-year-old woman had a history of dilation and curettage for septic abortion. Currently, she has developed amenorrhea for 6 months already. It was also noted that she smokes 10 cigarettes and drinks 2 standard alcoholic drinks every day. She was tested for beta-hCG but it was not detectable.
Which of the following is considered the most appropriate next step to establish a diagnosis?Your Answer: Transvaginal ultrasound
Explanation:Asherman syndrome (intrauterine adhesions or intrauterine synechiae) occurs when scar tissue forms inside the uterus and/or the cervix. These adhesions occur after surgery of the uterus or after a dilatation and curettage.
Patients with Asherman syndrome may have light or absent menstrual periods (amenorrhea). Some have normal periods based on the surface area of the cavity that is affected. Others have no periods but have severe dysmenorrhea (pain with menstruation).
Although two-dimensional sonography may suggest adhesive disease, Asherman syndrome is more often evaluated initially with saline sonography or hysterosalpingography to demonstrate the adhesions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 26
Correct
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A 21-year-old woman has been stable on medicating with lamotrigine after developing epilepsy 2 years ago. She is planning to conceive but is concerned about what her medications may do to her baby.
Which of the following is considered to reduce the incidence of neural tube defects?Your Answer: High dose folic acid for one month before conception and during first trimester
Explanation:CDC urges all women of reproductive age to take 400 micrograms (mcg) of folic acid each day, in addition to consuming food with folate from a varied diet, to help prevent some major birth defects of the baby’s brain (anencephaly) and spine (spina bifida).
The use of lamotrigine during pregnancy has not been associated with an increased risk of neural tube defects; however, the recommendation regarding higher doses of folic acid supplementation is often, but not always, broadened to include women taking any anticonvulsant, including lamotrigine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 27
Correct
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A 26-year old woman, 36 weeks age of gestation, is admitted for deep venous thrombosis (DVT) of the right calf. She receives heparin treatment. Which of the following is true regarding the use of heparin rather than a coumarin derivative for anticoagulation?
Your Answer: Reversal of the anticoagulant effect of heparin in the mother can be achieved more quickly than that of coumarin, should labour occur.
Explanation:Heparin is a large-sized molecule and does not cross the placenta; it can provide anticoagulation in the mother, however, has no effect on the baby. Heparin is the preferred anticoagulant therapy during pregnancy.
Moreover, the anticoagulant effect of heparin can be rapidly reversed by protamine sulphate.
Warfarin, a coumarin derivative, takes much longer to be reversed compared to heparin. This can be given to the mother between 13 and 36 weeks of pregnancy, however, should be avoided in the first trimester due to its teratogenic effects.
The anticoagulant effect of coumarin derivatives on the baby also takes longer to be reversed. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 28
Correct
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All of the following statements are considered correct regarding Down syndrome screening in a 40-year-old pregnant woman, except:
Your Answer: Dating ultrasound along with second trimester serum screening test has detection rate of 97 percent
Explanation:Second-trimester ultrasound markers have low sensitivity and specificity for detecting Down syndrome, especially in a low-risk population.
The highest detection rate is acquired with ultrasound markers combined with gross anomalies. Although the detection rate with this combination of markers is high in a high-risk population (50 to 75 percent), false-positive rates are also high (22 percent for a 100 percent Down syndrome detection rate).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old primigravida at her 16 weeks of gestation, presented with the history of lower vaginal pressure, vaginal spotting and lower back pain.
Transvaginal ultrasound shows cervical shortening to 2 cm, cervical dilation, and protrusion of fetal membranes into the cervical canal. Findings confirms the woman has developed non-specific symptoms of cervical insufficiency which may lead to premature delivery.
Which among the following is the most appropriate management in this case?Your Answer: Reassure and reassess in a week
Correct Answer: Reinforcement of the cervical ring with nonabsorbable suture material
Explanation:Patient mentioned in the given case has developed clinical features of cervical insufficiency and the possible treatment options include:
1- Cerclage, which is the technique used for the reinforcement of cervical ring with nonabsorbable suture material and is indicated based on ultrasonographic findings. It is the treatment of choice when cervical shortening is detected by ultrasonography before 22 to 24 weeks of gestation.2- Vaginal progesterone is used to reduce the risk of preterm delivery in women who have a prior history of idiopathic preterm delivery or cervical shortening, which is confirmed in the current pregnancy also by ultrasonography.This method is applicable only to those women who do not meet the criteria for Cerclage.
All the other options of management are incorrect in the given case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 30
Correct
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A 29-year-old lady presents to your clinic at her 26 weeks of gestation. She is worried as she came in contact with a child having chicken pox 48 hours ago and she has no symptoms.
You checked her pre-pregnancy IgG level for chicken pox which was negative, as she missed getting vaccinated for chickenpox before pregnancy.
What is the best next step in managing this patient?Your Answer: Give varicella zoster immunoglobulins
Explanation:This woman who is 26 weeks pregnant, has come in contact with a child having chickenpox 48 hours ago. As her IgG antibodies were negative during prenatal testing, she has no immunity against Varicella which makes her susceptible to get chickenpox.
Prophylactic treatment is required if a susceptible pregnant woman is exposed to chickenpox, which includes administration of varicella zoster immune globulin (VZIG), within 72 hours of exposure to infection.
As the patient has already checked for and was found to be negative, checking IgG level again is not relevant. Also, it was already revealed that she is not vaccinated against varicella before pregnancy.
If the patient had any symptoms typical of chickenpox, measuring IgM would have been helpful, but patient is completely asymptomatic in this case so measuring IgM is not indicated.
Vaccine for chickenpox is contraindicated during pregnancy as it is a live vaccine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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