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  • Question 1 - Whilst snorkelling, a 30-year old gentleman has the respiratory rate of 10/min, tidal...

    Correct

    • Whilst snorkelling, a 30-year old gentleman has the respiratory rate of 10/min, tidal volume of 550 ml and an effective anatomical dead space of 250 ml. What is his alveolar ventilation?

      Your Answer: 3000 ml/min

      Explanation:

      Alveolar ventilation is the amount of air reaching the alveoli per minute. Alveolar ventilation = respiratory rate × (tidal volume – anatomical dead space volume). Thus, alveolar ventilation = 10 × (550 − 250) = 3000 ml/min.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory
      153.5
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Bile salt reuptake principally occurs where? ...

    Incorrect

    • Bile salt reuptake principally occurs where?

      Your Answer: In the caecum

      Correct Answer: In the ileum

      Explanation:

      90 – 95% of the bile salts are absorbed from the small intestine (mostly terminal ileum and then excreted again from the liver. This is known as the enterohepatic circulation. The entire pool recycles twice per meal and approximately 6 to 8 times per day.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      • Physiology
      11.9
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Which is the correct statement regarding gonadal venous drainage: ...

    Correct

    • Which is the correct statement regarding gonadal venous drainage:

      Your Answer: The left ovarian vein drains into the left renal vein

      Explanation:

      Spermatic or testicular veins arise from the posterior aspect of the testis and receive tributaries from the epididymis. Upon uniting, they form the pampiniform plexus that makes up the greater mass of the spermatic cord. The vessels that make up this plexus rise up the spermatic cord in front of the ductus deferens. They then unite, below the superficial ring, to form three or four veins that traverse the inguinal canal and enter the abdomen through the deep inguinal ring. They further unite to form 2 veins that ascend up the psoas major muscle behind the peritoneum each lying on either side of the testicular artery. These further unite to form one vein that empties on the right side of the inferior vena cava at an acute angle and on the left side into the renal vein, at a right angle. The left testicular vein courses behind the iliac colon and is thus exposed to pressure from the contents of this part of the bowel. The ovarian vein is the equivalent of the testicular vein in women. They form a plexus in the broad ligament near the ovary and uterine tube and communicate with the uterine plexus. They drain into similar vessels as in a man.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      34.7
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - For which of the following is NOT screened for in blood for transfusion?...

    Correct

    • For which of the following is NOT screened for in blood for transfusion?

      Your Answer: EBV

      Explanation:

      Blood for transfusion is routinely screened for hepatitis B and C, HIV, CMV and syphilis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      14.9
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A surgeon trainee is assisting in an operation to ligate the ductus arteriosus....

    Incorrect

    • A surgeon trainee is assisting in an operation to ligate the ductus arteriosus. The consultant supervising explains that caution is required when placing a clamp on the ductus to avoid injury to an important structure immediately dorsal to it. To which structure is the consultant referring?

      Your Answer: Right Recurrent laryngeal nerve

      Correct Answer: Left recurrent laryngeal nerve

      Explanation:

      The left recurrent laryngeal nerve branches off the vagus and wraps around the aorta, posterior to the ductus arteriosus/ligamentum arteriosum from whence it courses superiorly to innervate the laryngeal muscles.

      Accessory Hemiazygous vein is on the left side of the body draining the posterolateral chest wall and emptying blood into the azygos vein.

      The left internal thoracic artery is branch of the left subclavian artery supplying blood to the anterior wall of the thorax.

      Left phrenic nerve is lateral to the vagus nerve.

      Thoracic duct: is behind the oesophagus, coursing between the aorta and the azygos vein in the posterior chest.

      Right recurrent laryngeal nerve: loops around the right subclavian artery and is not in danger in this procedure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      48.1
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - The muscle that depresses the glenoid fossa directly is the: ...

    Incorrect

    • The muscle that depresses the glenoid fossa directly is the:

      Your Answer: Pectoralis major

      Correct Answer: Pectoralis minor

      Explanation:

      Situated at the upper part of the thorax beneath the pectoralis major, is a thin pectoralis minor, triangular muscle. It originates from the third, fourth and fifth ribs, near the cartilage and from the aponeurosis which covers the intercostals. These fibres move upwards and laterally to join and form a flat tendon. This is inserted into the medial border and upper surface of the coracoid process of the scapula. Through this medial anterior thoracic nerve, fibres from the pectoralis minor are received from the eighth cervical and first thoracic nerves. This pectoralis minor pushes down on the point of the shoulder (glenoid fossa), drawing the scapula downward and medially towards the thorax which throws the inferior angle backwards.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      12.9
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A child presents with hypertension. Serum potassium analysis shows hypokalaemia. What is the...

    Correct

    • A child presents with hypertension. Serum potassium analysis shows hypokalaemia. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Liddle syndrome

      Explanation:

      Liddle’s syndrome,  is an autosomal dominant disorder, that is characterized by early, and frequently severe, high blood pressure associated with low plasma renin activity, metabolic alkalosis, low blood potassium, and normal to low levels of aldosterone. Liddle syndrome involves abnormal kidney function, with excess reabsorption of sodium and loss of potassium from the renal tubule. Bartter Syndrome also presents with hypokalaemia, however blood pressure of these patients is usually low or normal.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluids & Electrolytes
      • Pathology
      33.8
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - The prostatic plexus of nerves contains nerve fibres that innervate penile tissue allowing...

    Incorrect

    • The prostatic plexus of nerves contains nerve fibres that innervate penile tissue allowing for erection. From which of the following nerves do these fibres originate?

      Your Answer: Pudendal

      Correct Answer: Pelvic splanchnics

      Explanation:

      Pelvic splanchnic nerves are examples of the parasympathetic nerves that innervate the smooth muscle and glands of the pelvic viscera. They are also the nerves contributing fibres to the prostatic plexus which innervate penile erectile tissue.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Pelvis
      15.9
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Which muscle is most likely to be affected following an injury to the...

    Correct

    • Which muscle is most likely to be affected following an injury to the thoracodorsal nerve (C6-C8)?

      Your Answer: Latissimus dorsi

      Explanation:

      Latissimus dorsi is a triangular, flat muscle that covers the lumbar region and the lower half of the thoracic region. It is supplied by the sixth, seventh and eighth cervical nerves through the thoracodorsal (long subscapular) nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      19
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Rapid eye movement (REM) sleep is likely to be affected by a lesion...

    Incorrect

    • Rapid eye movement (REM) sleep is likely to be affected by a lesion in the:

      Your Answer: Cerebellum

      Correct Answer: Pons

      Explanation:

      Rapid eye movement (REM) sleep is also known as paradoxical sleep, as the summed activity of the brain’s neurons is quite similar to that during waking hours. Characterised by rapid movements of the eyes, most of the vividly recalled dreams occur during this stage of sleep. The total time of REM sleep for an adult is about 90–120 min per night.

      Certain neurones in the brainstem, known as REM sleep-on cells, which are located in the pontine tegmentum, are particularly active during REM sleep and are probably responsible for its occurrence. The eye movements associated with REM are generated by the pontine nucleus with projections to the superior colliculus and are associated with PGO (pons, geniculate, occipital) waves.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      22
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Physiology (1/3) 33%
Respiratory (1/1) 100%
Gastroenterology (0/1) 0%
Abdomen (1/1) 100%
Anatomy (2/5) 40%
Haematology (1/1) 100%
Pathology (2/2) 100%
Thorax (1/2) 50%
Upper Limb (0/1) 0%
Fluids & Electrolytes (1/1) 100%
Pelvis (0/1) 0%
Neurology (0/1) 0%
Passmed