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Question 1
Correct
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Which of the following suggests the presence of mitral regurgitation as well as mitral stenosis?
Your Answer: Displaced apex beat
Explanation:Mitral stenosis on its own does not lead to left ventricular dilatation and hence a displaced apex beat. Thus a displaced apex beat is suggestive of mixed mitral disease. The other options occur in mitral stenosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Medicine
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Question 2
Incorrect
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Regarding taste threshold and intensity discrimination:
Your Answer: 60% change in concentration of substance tasted is necessary before an intensity difference can be detected
Correct Answer: 30% change in concentration of substance tasted is necessary before an intensity difference can be detected
Explanation:The ability of humans to differentiate differences in intensity of taste is poor. A 30% change in the concentration of the substance being tasted is required before an intensity difference is perceived.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Neurology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A case-control study is being designed to look at the relationship between eczema and a new vaccine for yellow fever. What is the usual outcome measure in a case-control study?
Your Answer: Relative risk
Correct Answer: Odds ratio
Explanation:A case–control study (also known as case–referent study) is a type of observational study in which two existing groups differing in outcome are identified and compared on the basis of some supposed causal attribute. Case–control studies are often used to identify factors that may contribute to a medical condition by comparing subjects who have that condition/disease (the cases) with patients who do not have the condition/disease but are otherwise similar (the controls).An odds ratio (OR) is a statistic that quantifies the strength of the association between two events, A and B. The odds ratio is defined as the ratio of the odds of A in the presence of B and the odds of A in the absence of B or vice versa.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Research Skills
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Question 4
Incorrect
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Which of the following do not pass through the cavernous sinus?
Your Answer: CN 3
Correct Answer: CN 2
Explanation:Oculomotor nerve (N3), trochlear nerve (N4), ophthalmic and mandibular divisions of the trigeminal nerve (N5) pass along its lateral border. The abducent nerve (N6) passes through it along with the internal carotid artery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Neurology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 72 year old retired fisherman presents with weakness of shoulders and hips over the last four months. Finger flexion is also weak but the extension is normal. There has been some difficulty swallowing liquids. Past medical history is not significant except for sexually transmitted disease that he caught some 40 years ago in South Pacific and got treated with antibiotics. He smokes and drinks one or two tots of rum at the weekend. Creatine kinase level is 125. Which of the following investigations is most significant in establishing a diagnosis?
Your Answer: Anti Jo 1 antibody titres
Correct Answer: Muscle biopsy with electron microscopy
Explanation:Inclusion body myositis (IBM) is a progressive muscle disorder characterized by muscle inflammation, weakness, and atrophy (wasting). It is a type of inflammatory myopathy. IBM develops in adulthood, usually after age 50. The symptoms and rate of progression vary from person to person. The most common symptoms include progressive weakness of the legs, arms, fingers, and wrists. Some people also have weakness of the facial muscles (especially muscles controlling eye closure), or difficulty swallowing (dysphagia). Muscle cramping and pain are uncommon, but have been reported in some people. The underlying cause of IBM is poorly understood and likely involves the interaction of genetic, immune-related, and environmental factors. Some people may have a genetic predisposition to developing IBM, but the condition itself typically is not inherited. Elevated creatine kinase (CK) levels in the blood (at most ,10 times normal) are typical in IBM. Muscle biopsy may display several common findings including; inflammatory cells invading muscle cells, vacuolar degeneration, inclusions or plaques of abnormal proteins.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Connective Tissue
- Medicine
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Question 6
Incorrect
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Drug-induced lupus erythematosus most often occurs after taking which of the following drugs?
Your Answer: Sulfasalazine
Correct Answer: Procainamide
Explanation:Many drugs are responsible for causing drug induced lupus. However, it is most commonly associated with hydralazine, procainamide and quinidine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Connective Tissue
- Medicine
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Question 7
Incorrect
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Which of the atrial pressure changes represents the a-wave of the JVP
Your Answer: Rise in atrial pressure before tricuspid valve opens
Correct Answer: Atrial systole
Explanation:The a-wave created on the venous pulse curve occurs as a result of atrial systole. Due to the pressure build-up in the atria, it causes a back pressure in the vena cava. This pressure is exerted on the valve and this back pressure is what causes a slight increase in the venous pressure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Medicine
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 30 year old female has been started on azathioprine after she was found to be intolerant of methotrexate. Routine blood monitoring shows the following values:Hb 7.9 g/dlPlt 97*109/l WBC 2.7*109/l Azathioprine toxicity will most likely to occur in the presence of which of the following?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Thiopurine methyltransferase deficiency
Explanation:Azathioprine therapy can cause acute myelosuppression. Toxicity is in part caused by the incorporation of azathioprine-derived 6-thioguanine nucleotides (6-TGN) into deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA). The enzyme thiopurine methyltransferase (TPMT) plays an important role in azathioprine catabolism.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Connective Tissue
- Medicine
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 79-year-old woman has a waddling gait. History reveals enuresis and change in behaviour. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Normal pressure hydrocephalus
Explanation:The waddling gait and behaviour change are attributes of normal pressure hydrocephalus along with loss of bladder control which commonly happens with elder age.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Geriatrics
- Medicine
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Question 10
Incorrect
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In a study, 50 out of 100 smokers developed lung cancers and 50 out of 200 non-smokers developed lung cancers. Which of the following is accurate?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Relative risk=2
Explanation:Relative risk = (Incidence in exposed group)/incidence in unexposed group). So in this case RR = (50/100)/(50/200) = 2.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Research Skills
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Question 11
Incorrect
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In Starling’s law of the heart, the decrease in tension developed by muscle contraction at high degrees of stretch is due to:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Disruption of myocardial fibers
Explanation:Starling law states that the force of contraction is directly proportional to the preload. When the heart muscle is stretched beyond its limit the tension that is developed decreases, this is not due to loss of formation of effective myosin and actin cross bridges. The heart muscles despite being fully stretched is never stretched to this point. The reason for this decreased tension is physical disruption of the myocardial fibers.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Medicine
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Question 12
Incorrect
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A patient who has mild benign prostatic hyperplasia has been advised to take finasteride.The mechanism of action of this drug involves inhibition of the production of which of the following androgens?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Dihydrotestosterone
Explanation:Finasteride inhibits the formation of dihydrotestosterone.Finasteride is a 5α-reductase inhibitor and thus, inhibits the conversion of testosterone to dihydrotestosterone (DHT). DHT is much more active than testosterone and binds more avidly to cytoplasmic receptors. DHT stimulates prostate growth and may be responsible for benign prostatic hyperplasia in the elderly. Thus, finasteride can cause a reduction in prostatic volume and help in managing a patient with benign prostatic hyperplasia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Pharmacology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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Increase Gamma motor neuron activity produces what effect on the muscle spindle sensitivity?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Increase
Explanation:The muscle spindle is supplied by both sensory and motor nerves. Sensory supply is Type Ia fibers whereas motor supply is via gamma motor neurons. These neurons also play a role in adjusting the sensitivity of muscle spindles. Increased neuron activity increases the muscle spindle sensitivity.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Neurology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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Which one of the following nerve fibers has the fastest conduction velocity?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: α fiber
Explanation:α nerve fibers are characterized by being highly myelinated, which confers them with fast conduction properties. They innervate extrafusal skeletal muscle fibers, and their conduction velocity is between 80-120 m/s.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Neurology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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Concerning surface anatomy, where is the aortic valve found?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Situated in the left third intercostal space underneath the sternum
Explanation:The aortic valve is situated in the left 3rd intercostal space just beneath the sternum.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Medicine
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Question 17
Incorrect
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The neurotransmitter utilised by the Purkinje cells is:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: GABA
Explanation:The cerebellar cortex consist of 3 layers: the molecular layer, the granular cell layer and the Purkinje cell layer. Purkinje cells play a fundamental role in controlling motor movement. They release a neurotransmitter called GABA (gamma-aminobutyric acid) which exerts inhibitory actions thereby reducing transmission of impulses. These inhibitory functions enable purkinje cells to regulate and coordinate motor movements.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Neurology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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The following cells replicate without shortening their telomeres because they express telomerase.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Germ cells
Explanation:Telomerase activity is seen in germ cells and is absent in somatic cells. Telomeres prevent the chromosomes from shortening and prevent the coding portion of the DNA from being lost, thus allowing the cell to replicate indefinitely. During replication telomeres may be lost resulting in cell death.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
- Medicine
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Question 19
Incorrect
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Where is the myenteric plexus (Auerbach’s plexus) located in the GIT?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Between the outer longitudinal and middle circular muscle layers.
Explanation:A part of the enteric nervous system, the myenteric plexus exists between the longitudinal and circular layers of muscularis externa in the gastrointestinal tract. It is found in the muscles of the oesophagus, stomach, and intestine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal
- Medicine
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Question 20
Incorrect
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Question 21
Incorrect
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Concerning coronary arteries, what is the net effect of B2 stimulation on the heart (e.g. Running athlete)?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Vasodilation via production of metabolites
Explanation:The coronary arterioles contain α-adrenergic receptors, which cause vasoconstriction, and β-adrenergic receptors, which cause vasodilation. Activity in the noradrenergic nerves to the heart and injections of norepinephrine cause coronary vasodilation. However, norepinephrine also increases the heart rate and the force of cardiac contraction, and the vasodilation is due to production of vasodilator metabolites in the myocardium secondary to the increase in its activity. As exercise has the same effect as sympathetic stimulation, it will result in vasodilation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Medicine
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Question 22
Incorrect
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Which statement is incorrect?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Translation begins when the triplet (UGA) encoding for methionine is encountered.
Explanation:Translation being when the codon for methionine is encountered which is AUG not UGA. This process is known as initiation. All the other options are correct.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
- Medicine
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Question 23
Incorrect
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If both the noradrenergic and the cholinergic systems are blocked in the heart, the rate will be approximately:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 100/min
Explanation:The normal heart beat is about 70/min. This is due to a predominant parasympathetic activity. If sympathetic activity was unopposed the heart rate would have been 150/min. When both the noradrenergic and cholinergic systems are blocked the heart rate is 100/min. This is the normal firing rate of the SA node.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Medicine
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Question 24
Incorrect
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Myocardial contractility is improved by:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Caffeine
Explanation:Caffeine and other theophyllines breakdown cAMP and have a positive ionotropic effect on the heart. Drugs like quinidine, procainamide and conditions like hypoxia and hypercapnia decreases the contractility of the heart.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Medicine
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Question 25
Incorrect
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Which of the following is the most common clinical feature of carbon monoxide poisoning?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Headache
Explanation:Carbon monoxide (CO) poisoning:It is considered as the great imitator of other diseases as the patients present with a myriad of symptoms. The carbon monoxide diffuses rapidly across the pulmonary capillary membrane binding to the haem molecule with a very high affinity (240 times that of oxygen) forming carboxy-haemoglobin (COHb). Non-smokers have a baseline COHb of ,3% while smokers have a baseline COHb of 10-15%.Clinical features of carbon monoxide toxicity:Headache: 90% of cases (most common clinical feature)Nausea and vomiting: 50%Vertigo: 50%Confusion: 30%Subjective weakness: 20%Severe toxicity: ‘pink’ skin and mucosa, hyperpyrexia, arrhythmias, extrapyramidal features, coma, deathCherry red skin is a sign of severe toxicity and is usually a post-mortem finding.Management• 100% oxygen• Hyperbaric oxygen therapy (HBOT)The use of Hyperbaric oxygen therapy (HBOT) for treatment mild to moderate CO poisoning is not routine.The selection criteria for HBOT in cases of CO poisoning include:• COHb levels > 20-25%• COHb levels > 20% in pregnant patient • Loss of consciousness• Severe metabolic acidosis (pH <7.1)• Evidence of end-organ ischemia (e.g., ECG changes, chest pain, or altered mental status)
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Pharmacology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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Which of the following acute phase reactants increases the most dramatically in the first hour following injury?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: C-reactive protein
Explanation:Measurement of acute-phase proteins, especially C-reactive protein, is a useful marker of inflammation. It correlates with the erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR), however not always directly. This is due to the ESR being largely dependent on elevation of fibrinogen, an acute phase reactant with a half-life of approximately one week. This protein will therefore remain higher for longer despite removal of the inflammatory stimuli. In contrast, C-reactive protein (with a half-life of 6-8 hours) rises rapidly and can quickly return to within the normal range if treatment is employed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Immunology
- Medicine
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Question 27
Incorrect
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The telomerase is capable of adding several more repeats of telomeres at which end of the guanosine rich region.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 3rd end
Explanation:Telomerase is a reverse transcriptase that uses the RNA template to synthesize DNA in the 5th-3rd direction resulting in extension of the 3rd end and then translocates it to the newly synthesized end. The GT rich strand is thus elongated.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
- Medicine
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Question 28
Incorrect
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The main efferent input of the posterior pituitary gland comes from:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Paracrine hormones secreted from the hypothalamus via axons.
Explanation:The posterior pituitary or neurohypophysis consists of a collection of axonal projections emerging from the hypothalamus. It releases hormones directly from these axonal endings into circulation; these hormones are oxytocin and vasopressin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
- Medicine
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Question 29
Incorrect
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Which statement regarding fever is correct:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Body temperature is regulated is by a centre in the floor of the third ventricle
Explanation:The hypothalamus is located on the floor of the third ventricle and is the centre of regulation of body temperature. It uses a set point to regulate other body systems as well. Diurnal variation of temperature is not seen in humans. the principal mediator of fever is interleukin I, although interferon alfa also plays a role. Fever can cause rhabdomyolysis or muscle breakdown
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
- Medicine
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 56 year old obese female presents due to moderate pain in her finger joints which occurs mostly at the end of the day which gets better with rest. There is also some associated swelling. On examination, there is enlargement of her distal interphalangeal joints and tenderness to palpation. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Osteoarthritis
Explanation:Osteoarthritis (OA) is a disabling joint disease characterized by a noninflammatory degeneration of the joint complex (articular cartilage, subchondral bone, and synovium) that occurs with old age or from overuse. It mainly affects the weight-bearing and high-use joints, such as the hip, knee, hands, and vertebrae. Despite the widespread view that OA is a condition caused exclusively by degenerative “wear and tear” of the joints, newer research indicates a significant heterogeneity of causation, including pre-existing peculiarities of joint anatomy, genetics, local inflammation, mechanical forces, and biochemical processes that are affected by proinflammatory mediators and proteases. Major risk factors include advanced age, obesity, previous injuries, and asymmetrically stressed joints. In early-stage osteoarthritis, patients may complain of reduced range of motion, joint-stiffness, and pain that is aggravated with heavy use. As the disease advances, nagging pain may also occur during the night or at rest. Diagnosis is predominantly based on clinical and radiological findings. Classic radiographic features of OA do not necessarily correlate with clinical symptoms and appearance. RA involves proximal interphalangeal joints not distal. Gout occurs as a result of overproduction or underexcretion of uric acid and frequently involves first toe. Fibromyalgia is a disorder characterized by widespread musculoskeletal pain accompanied by fatigue, sleep, memory and mood issues.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Connective Tissue
- Medicine
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Question 31
Incorrect
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The T-tubular system in cardiac muscle is:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Transmits action potential from sarcolemma to the SR to allow for Ca2+ release into the cytoplasm
Explanation:Action potentials are transmitted to the fibrils of a fiber through the T tubule system. It triggers the release of Ca 2+ from the terminal cisterns. Depolarization of the T tubules activates the sarcoplasmic reticulum through the dihydropyridine receptors, which are voltage gated calcium channels.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Medicine
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Question 32
Incorrect
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Regarding oxidative deamination of amino acids, which of the following is true?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Occurs in the kidney & liver
Explanation:Oxidative deamination is a form of deamination that generates α-keto acids and other oxidized products from amine-containing compounds, and occurs largely in the liver and kidney. Oxidative deamination is an important step in the catabolism of amino acids, generating a more metabolizable form of the amino acid, and also generating ammonia as a toxic by-product. The addition of ubiquitin to a substrate protein is called ubiquitination.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cell Biology
- Medicine
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Question 33
Incorrect
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The pathogen in variant Creutzfeldt Jacobs disease is an example of a:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prion
Explanation:Types of Creutzfeldt Jacobs Disease (CJD) include:1. variant – This is thought to be caused by the consumption of food contaminated with prions, which also cause BSE.2. sporadic – This accounts for 85% of cases of CJD. 3. familial – This accounts for the majority of the other 15% cases of CJD.4. iatrogenic – This form of CJD arises from contamination with tissue from an infected person, usually as the result of a medical procedure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
- Medicine
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Question 34
Incorrect
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Colipase is secreted in an inactive form. Its activation in the intestinal lumen is by
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Trypsin
Explanation:The enzyme trypsin exists in pancreatic juice in the inactive form trypsinogen, it is activated by the intestinal enterokinase in intestinal juice. Trypsin can then activate other protease enzymes and catalyse the reaction pro-colipase → colipase. Colipase is necessary, along with bile salts, to enable lipase function.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal
- Medicine
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Question 35
Incorrect
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What is the most abundant cell type in the central nervous system called?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Astrocyte
Explanation:Astrocytes are the supporting cells of the central nervous system. There are two types; the fibrous type is found in the white matter and the protoplasmic type in the grey matter. They are the most abundant cell type in the CNS.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Neurology
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Question 36
Incorrect
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The process in which tissue thromboplastin activates factor VII is best known as:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The extrinsic pathway
Explanation:In the tissue factor pathway (extrinsic), following damage to the blood vessel, FVII leaves the circulation and comes into contact with tissue factor (TF) expressed on tissue-factor-bearing cells (stromal fibroblasts and leukocytes), forming an activated complex (TF-FVIIa).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
- Medicine
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Question 37
Incorrect
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Which of the following components regulate cardiac output?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: All of the above
Explanation:Cardiac output is regulated by the autonomic nervous system with sympathetic nerves having a positive chronotropic and inotropic effect and parasympathetic nerves having the opposite effect. An increase in preload will increase cardiac output likewise an afterload increase will also increase cardiac output.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Medicine
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Question 38
Incorrect
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All of the following constitute small intestinal brush border enzymes except:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Alpha-amylase
Explanation:The final step in digestion of carbohydrates, which is conversion of disaccharides to absorbable monosaccharides occurs on the small intestinal epithelial cells. The enzymes responsible for this final stage of digestion are not freely found in the intestinal lumen, but they are found as integral membrane proteins in the plasma membrane of the epithelial cell. The apical plasma membrane of the intestinal epithelial cell has numerous microvilli which extend from the cell known as the brush border. Thus, the enzymes embedded in those microvilli are referred to as brush border enzymes. All these enzymes except alfa amylase are brush border enzymes. Alfa amylase is secreted by pancreatic acinar cells.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal
- Medicine
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Question 39
Incorrect
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The Plateau phase in myocyte action potentials does all of the following except:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It allows early reactivation of the myocytes
Explanation:The presence of the plateau in the action potential causes ventricular contraction to last as much as 15 times longer in cardiac muscle as in skeletal muscle. The plateau phase which follows is unique to myocytes and results from a small, but sustained inward calcium current through L-type calcium channels lasting 200-400 ms. This calcium influx is caused by a combined increase in permeability of the cell and especially the sarcolemmal membranes to calcium. This plateau (refractory) phase prevents early reactivation of the myocytes and directly determines the strength of contraction.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Medicine
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Question 40
Incorrect
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Which of the following cancers is responsible in producing osteoblastic bone metastases instead of osteolytic?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prostate adenocarcinoma
Explanation:Osteoblastic (or sclerotic) bone metastases, characterized by deposition of new bone, present in prostate cancer, carcinoid, small cell lung cancer, Hodgkin lymphoma or medulloblastoma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Connective Tissue
- Medicine
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Question 41
Incorrect
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Which of the following conditions has no effect on cardiac output?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sleep
Explanation:Sleep has no effect on the cardiac output. Anxiety, excitement and pregnancy will increase the cardiac output. Standing from a lying position will decrease the cardiac output transiently.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Medicine
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Question 42
Incorrect
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Coronary flow is reduced during
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tachycardia
Explanation:Maximum amount of blood flow in the coronary arteries occur during diastole. When the heart rate increases which is also called tachycardia the duration of diastole decreases. Hence the amount of blood flow to the cardiac muscle also decreases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Medicine
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Question 43
Incorrect
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In both innate and humoral immunity, receptors involved recognize:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The shape of the antigen
Explanation:Antigen receptors recognize the shape of the antigen. They identify specific epitopes and are found on T cells.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Immunology
- Medicine
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Question 44
Incorrect
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Which of the following treatments would you advise for a young, 21 year old student who has ankylosing spondylitis and complains of worsening back pain and morning stiffness?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oral NSAIDs
Explanation:NSAIDs are considered as the first line of treatment for managing pain and stiffness associated with ankylosing spondylitis. Other useful medications include TNF-alpha inhibitors. Other drugs like paracetamol, colchicine, and steroids are not routinely used. Bilateral total hip replacement might be indicated in advanced disease contrary to complicated spinal surgery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Connective Tissue
- Medicine
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Question 45
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old female has been recently diagnosed with hypertension. She's sexually active and is not using any birth control other than barrier method. Which among the following antihypertensives is contraindicated in this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lisinopril
Explanation:Among the following hypertensives, lisinopril (an ACE inhibitor) is contraindicated in patients who are planning for pregnancy.Per the NICE guidelines, when treating the woman in question, she should be treated as if she were pregnant given the absence of effective contraception. ACE inhibitors such as lisinopril are known teratogens and most be avoided.Drugs contraindicated in pregnancy:AntibioticsTetracyclinesAminoglycosidesSulphonamides and trimethoprimQuinolonesOther drugs:ACE inhibitors, angiotensin II receptor antagonistsStatinsWarfarinSulfonylureasRetinoids (including topical)Cytotoxic agentsThe majority of antiepileptics including valproate, carbamazepine, and phenytoin are known to be potentially harmful.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Pharmacology
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Question 46
Incorrect
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Osteopetrosis occurs as a result of a defect in:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Osteoclast function
Explanation:It is a metabolic bone disease caused by defective osteoclastic resorption of immature bone. Osteopetrosis is also known as marble bone disease. Osteoclasts are unable to adequately acidify bone matrix. Impaired bone resorption leads to overly dense bone that is more likely to fracture. It is usually treated with bone marrow transplant and high dose calcitriol.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Connective Tissue
- Medicine
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Question 47
Incorrect
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A 33-year-old electrical technician presents following an overdose. Anticholinergic syndrome is suspected. Which of the following is true?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mydriasis occurs
Explanation:Anticholinergic syndrome occurs following overdose with drugs that have prominent anticholinergic activity including tricyclic antidepressants, antihistamines and atropine. Features include dry, warm, flushed skin, urinary retention, tachycardia, mydriasis (dilated pupils) and agitation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Pharmacology
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Question 48
Incorrect
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Calcium is transported over the brush border in the gut, via which transporter / channel?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: TRPV 6
Explanation:Transient Receptor Potential Vanilloid 6 or TRPV 6 is a calcium channel located in the cell membrane which is present in a variety of organs, including small intestine, oesophagus, stomach, colon, placenta, kidney, and uterus. In the intestine, it is located in the apical brush-border membrane of the enterocyte, regulating the entry of calcium into the cell.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
- Medicine
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Question 49
Incorrect
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Select the correct statement about the microanatomy of the thyroid gland.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The capillaries adjacent to thyroid cells have a fenestrated endothelium.
Explanation:Fenestrated capillaries have a very thin endothelium, which is perforated by numerous fenestrations or pores. Hormones are usually released into these capillaries, reaching their target cells through the circulatory system.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
- Medicine
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Question 50
Incorrect
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A 34 year old woman presents to the emergency department due to right sided weakness. Past history reveals a DVT following the birth of her daughter, and two miscarriages. Head CT confirms an ischaemic stroke in the territory of left middle cerebral artery. What would be the most likely finding on echocardiography?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Normal
Explanation:The patient most likely suffers from antiphospholipid syndrome. The clinical criteria consist of vascular thrombosis and pregnancy morbidity. Vascular thrombosis is defined as one or more clinical episodes of arterial, venous, or small-vessel thrombosis in any tissue or organ confirmed by findings from imaging studies, Doppler studies, or histopathology. ASD, VSDs would cause paradoxical emboli and stroke, however the recurrent pregnancy loss in this case is strongly suggestive of antiphospholipid syndrome. The ECG would be normal in most cases associated with anti phospholipid syndrome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Connective Tissue
- Medicine
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY
