00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Secs)
  • Question 1 - A 21-year-old primigravida female presents to the emergency department at 41 weeks gestation.

    She...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old primigravida female presents to the emergency department at 41 weeks gestation.

      She complains of a nine hour history of irregular painful contractions.

      On examination of her pelvis, her cervix is fully effaced, but only 2 - 3 cm dilated. The fetal head is at the level of the ischial spines in a left occipito-posterior (LOP) position. The membranes ruptured an hour ago.

      What would be the best next line of management?

      Your Answer: Hydration drip of 5% dextrose.

      Correct Answer: Oxytocic (Syntocinon4) infusion.

      Explanation:

      The best next line of management is to administer an oxytocic (Syntocinon) infusion.

      This is because the progress of labour is slow, and it necessary to augment it. As the membranes have already ruptured, the next step is to increase the contractions and induce labour using an infusion of oxytocic (Syntocinon) infusion.

      Extra fluid is also required, but this will be administered alongside the Syntocinon infusion.

      A lumbar epidural block is indicated in patients with an occipito-posterior (OP) position. This should not be attempted until more pain relief is required and the progress of labour is reassessed.

      A Caesarean section may be necessary due to obstructed labour or fetal distress, it is not indicated at this stage.

      Taking blood and holding it in case cross-matching is ultimately required is common, but most patients do not have blood cross-matched prophylactically in case there is a need to be delivered by Caesarean section and require a transfusion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      52.2
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 22-year-old primigravid woman present to the emergency department.

    She is at 40 weeks...

    Correct

    • A 22-year-old primigravid woman present to the emergency department.

      She is at 40 weeks gestation and complains of a 24-hour history of no fetal movements.

      On auscultation, fetal heart beats are clearly audible with a measurement of 140/min.

      On diagnostic testing, the cardiotocograph (CTG) is normal and reactive.

      On physical examination, her cervix is 2cm dilated and fully effaced.

      She is reassured and allowed to return home.

      24 hours later, she calls to complain she has still felt no fetal movements, adding up to a 48 hour history.

      What is the best next step in management?

      Your Answer: Admit for induction of labour.

      Explanation:

      Labour induction is indicated as no fetal movements have been felt for 24 hours, with a normal cardiotocograph (CTG) and the pregnancy is at near/full term with a favourable cervix.

      Amniotic fluid volume assessment would have been indicated 24 hours earlier as, if it was low, induction would have been indicated then, despite a normal CTG.

      Ultrasound examination of the foetus is not indicated as it is necessary to expedite delivery.

      Carrying out another CTG, with or without oxytocin challenge, is not indicated, although MG monitoring during induced labour would be mandatory.

      Delivery immediately by Caesarean section is not indicated unless the lack of fetal movements is due to fetal hypoxia. This can result in fetal distress during labour, necessitating an emergency Caesarean section if the cervix is not fully dilated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      101.8
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 23-year-old pregnant woman, in her 19 weeks of pregnancy, presents to your...

    Correct

    • A 23-year-old pregnant woman, in her 19 weeks of pregnancy, presents to your office complaining of increased frequency and urgency along with dysuria.

      Further investigations established the diagnosis of urinary tract infection and the culture results are pending. The patient also mentioned a history of allergic reaction to penicillin which manifest as a rash.

      For treating this patient, which one of the following would be the antibiotic of choice?

      Your Answer: Cephalexin

      Explanation:

      The best antibiotic of choice for empirical treatment of a urinary tract infection (UTI) during pregnancy is cephalexin. Nitrofurantoin and amoxicillin-clavulanate are second and third in-line respectively.
      Patients allergic to penicillin, which is manifested as a rash can also be safely treated with cephalexin. But cephalosporins are not recommended if the presentation of allergic reaction to penicillin was anaphylactic, instead they should be treated with nitrofurantoin.

      NOTE– Asymptomatic bacteriuria, such as >10 to power of 5 colony count in urine culture of an asymptomatic woman in pregnancy, should best be treated with a one week course of antibiotics, followed by confirming the resolution of infection via a urine culture repeated 48 hours after the completion of treatment.

      Amoxicillin without clavulanate is recommended only in cases were the susceptibility of the organism is proven.

      Macrolides like clarithromycin are usually not recommended for the treatment of UTI.

      Aminoglycosides are coming under category D drugs should be avoided during pregnancy, unless there is a severe indication of gram negative sepsis.

      Tetracycline, due to their potential teratogenic effects, are contraindicated in pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      31.1
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Patients with high risk pregnancy should have a: ...

    Correct

    • Patients with high risk pregnancy should have a:

      Your Answer: Fetal biophysical profile

      Explanation:

      The BPP is performed in an effort to identify babies that may be at risk of poor pregnancy outcome, so that additional assessments of wellbeing may be performed, or labour may be induced or a caesarean section performed to expedite birth.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Biophysics
      966.2
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Among the following mentioned drugs, which one has reported the highest rate of...

    Correct

    • Among the following mentioned drugs, which one has reported the highest rate of congenital malformations if used in pregnancy?

      Your Answer: Sodium valproate

      Explanation:

      Among all the antiepileptic drugs sodium valproate carries the highest teratogenicity rate. The potential congenital defects caused by sodium valproate are as below:
      – Neural tube defects like spina bifida, anencephaly
      – Cardiac complications like congenital ventricular septal defect, aortic stenosis, patent ductus arteriosus, aberrant pulmonary artery
      – Limb defects like polydactyly were more than 5 fingers are present, oligodactyly were less than 5 fingers are present, absent fingers, overlapping toes, camptodactyly which is presented as a fixed flexion deformity of one or more proximal interphalangeal joints,split hand, ulnar or tibial hypoplasia.
      – Genitourinary defects like hypospadias, renal hypoplasia, hydronephrosis, duplication of calyceal system.
      – Brain anomalies like hydranencephaly, porencephaly, arachnoid cysts, cerebral atrophy, partial agenesis of corpus callosum, agenesis of septum pellucidum, lissencephaly of  medial sides of occipital lobes, Dandy-Walker anomaly
      – Eye anomalies like bilateral congenital cataract, optic nerve hypoplasia, tear duct anomalies, microphthalmia, bilateral iris defects, corneal opacities.
      – Respiratory tract defects like tracheomalacia, lung hypoplasia,severe laryngeal hypoplasia, abnormal lobulation of the right lung, right oligemic lung which is presented with less blood flow.
      – Abdominal wall defects like omphalocele
      – Skin abnormalities capillary hemangioma, aplasia cutis congenital of the scalp.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      10.1
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 26-year -old woman, who underwent an episiotomy during labour, presented with severe...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year -old woman, who underwent an episiotomy during labour, presented with severe vaginal pain 4 days after the procedure.

      At the site of the episiotomy, an 8-cm hematoma is noted on examination. Also the woman is found to be hemodynamically stable.

      Among the following, which is considered the most appropriate next step in management?

      Your Answer: Aspirate the mass

      Correct Answer: Explore the hematoma

      Explanation:

      In most cases reported, puerperal hematomas arise due to bleeding lacerations related to operative deliveries or episiotomy, and in rare cases from spontaneous injury to a blood vessel in the absence of any laceration/incision of the surrounding tissue. Vulval, vaginal/paravaginal area and retroperitoneum are considered the most common locations for puerperal hematomas.

      Most puerperal hematomas are diagnosed based on the presence of characteristic symptoms and physical examination findings:
      VuIvar hematoma usually presents as a rapidly developing, severely painful, tense and compressible mass which is covered by skin of purplish discoloration. A vulvar hematoma can also be an extension of a vaginal hematoma which was dissected through a loose subcutaneous tissue into the vulva.
      Vaginal hematomas often present with rectal pressure, were hemodynamic instability caused due to bleeding into the ischiorectal fossa and paravaginal space are the first signs and can result in hypovolemic shock. In these cases a large mass protruding into the vagina is often found on physical examination.
      Retroperitoneal hematomas are asymptomatic initially and extend between the folds of broad ligament. Patients suffering will often present with tachycardia, hypotension or shock due to the significant accumulated of blood in the retroperitoneal space. Unless the hematoma is associated with trauma, patients will not present with pain, only signs will be a palpable abdominal mass or fever.

      Treatment of hematoma depends mostly on the size and location:
      Non-expanding hematomas which are <3cm in size can be managed conservatively with analgesics and application of ice packs. An expanding hematoma or those greater than 3cm is managed effectively with surgical exploration under anesthesia, were an incision is made to evacuate the hematoma. The surgical site should not be sutured and vagina is often packed for 12-24 hours, an indwelling urinary catheter also may be indicated. In the given case, patient presents with a large haematoma (>3cm) which needs surgical excision and evacuation.

      Aspiration of the hematoma is not an appropriate treatment. If surgical intervention is indicated excision and evacuation is the preferred option, followed by vaginal packing for 12-24 hours.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      21
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - With regard to the cell cycle. In what phase do chromatids get cleaved...

    Correct

    • With regard to the cell cycle. In what phase do chromatids get cleaved into chromosomes and pulled apart?

      Your Answer: Anaphase

      Explanation:

      Mitosis is the process during which cell division occurs. It is divided into 4 stages:
      – The first stage is the prophase during which the chromosomes condense, mitotic spindles form and the chromosomes pair which each other.
      – The second stage is the metaphase during which the chromatids align at the equatorial plane.
      – The third stage is the anaphase during which the chromatids are separated into 2 daughter chromosomes.
      – The fourth phase is the telophase during which the chromatids decondense and a new nuclear envelop forms around the each of the daughter chromosomes. Cytokinesis is the process during which the cell cytoplasm divides.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Biochemistry
      11.1
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - What is the anatomical landmark used for gauging the station of the fetal...

    Correct

    • What is the anatomical landmark used for gauging the station of the fetal head during labour?

      Your Answer: Ischial Spine

      Explanation:

      The ischial spines and palpable through the vagina and are used as landmarks to assess the decent of the fetal head from the cervix. It also serves as a landmark for giving the pudendal block.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      3.7
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 46-year-old woman complains of ulceration with bloody discharge around her right nipple...

    Correct

    • A 46-year-old woman complains of ulceration with bloody discharge around her right nipple accompanied by redness, excoriations, and severe itchiness. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Paget’s disease of the breast

      Explanation:

      Paget’s disease of the breast is a type of cancer that outwardly may have the appearance of eczema, with skin changes involving the nipple of the breast. Symptoms may include redness of the nipple skin and crusting may occur around the area. In more advance cases, symptoms may include itching or a burning pain in the nipple.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      14.8
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 38 year old women attends clinic follow up. You note pelvic ultrasound...

    Correct

    • A 38 year old women attends clinic follow up. You note pelvic ultrasound shows a 36mm simple cyst. What is the most appropriate course of action regarding this cyst according to the RCOG green top guidelines?

      Your Answer: Discharge with no follow up

      Explanation:

      As this is a simple cyst less than 50mm in diameter the patient does not require further investigation or routine follow up

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      11.3
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - What kind of epithelium lines the endocervix? ...

    Correct

    • What kind of epithelium lines the endocervix?

      Your Answer: Columnar

      Explanation:

      Its important to note the endo and ectocervix have 2 epithelial types. Where columnar and squamous epithelia meet is the transformation zone (or squamous-columnar junction, SCJ). This is relevant as it is the primary site for dysplasia and is where smears are taken from.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      7.2
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 22-year-old G2P2 who is on her 7th day postpartum called her physician...

    Correct

    • A 22-year-old G2P2 who is on her 7th day postpartum called her physician due to her concern of bleeding from the vagina. Upon interview, she described the bleeding to be light pink to bright red and compared with the first few days post-delivery, the bleeding was less heavy. There was also no fever or cramping pain reported by the patient.
      Upon examination, it was observed that she is afebrile and her uterus is appropriately sized and non-tender. There was also the presence of about 10cc old, dark blood in her vagina and her cervix was closed.

      Which of the following is considered the most appropriate treatment for the patient?

      Your Answer: Reassurance

      Explanation:

      The postpartum period begins soon after the baby’s delivery and usually lasts six to eight weeks and ends when the mother’s body has nearly returned to its pre-pregnant state.

      Bloody vaginal discharge (lochia rubra) is heavy for the first 3-4 days, and slowly it becomes watery in consistency and colour changes to pinkish-brown (lochia serosa). After the next 10-12 days, it changes to yellowish-white (lochia alba). Advise women to seek medical attention if heavy vaginal bleeding persists (soaking a pad or more in less than an hour). Women with heavy, persistent postpartum bleeding should be evaluated for complications such as retained placenta, uterine atony, rarely invasive placenta, or coagulation disorders. Endometritis may also occur, presenting as fever with no source, maybe accompanied by uterine tenderness and vaginal discharge. This usually requires intravenous antibiotics. This also should be explained and advise the mother to seek immediate medical attention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      42.8
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - What is the typical volume increase of a non-pregnant uterus to term uterus?...

    Correct

    • What is the typical volume increase of a non-pregnant uterus to term uterus?

      Your Answer: 10ml to 5000ml

      Explanation:

      Uterine blood flow increases 40-fold to approximately 700 mL/min at term. The uterus is 50–60 g with a volume of approximately 10ml prior to pregnancy and 1000 – 1200 g with a volume of 5000ml by term.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      11
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 28-year-old woman at 35 weeks gestation who is gravida 2 para 1,...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman at 35 weeks gestation who is gravida 2 para 1, presented to the labour and delivery department since she has been having regular, painful contractions over the past 3 hours. Upon interview and history-taking, it was noted that the patient has had no prenatal care during this pregnancy. She also has no chronic medical conditions, and her only surgery was a low transverse caesarean delivery 2 years ago.

      Upon admission, her cervix is 7 cm dilated and 100% effaced with the fetal head at +2 station. Fetal heart rate tracing is category 1.
      Administration of epidural analgesia was performed, and the patient was relieved from pain due to the contractions. There was also rupture of membranes which resulted in bright-red amniotic fluid.

      Further examination was done and her results were:
      Blood pressure is 130/80 mmHg
      Pulse is 112/min

      Which of the following is most likely considered as the cause of the fetal heart rate tracing?

      Your Answer: Umbilical cord compression

      Correct Answer: Fetal blood loss

      Explanation:

      Fetal heart rate tracings (FHR) under category I include all of the following:
      – baseline rate 110– 160 bpm
      – baseline FHR variability moderate
      – accelerations present or absent
      – late or variable decelerations absent
      – early decelerations present or absent

      The onset of fetal bleeding is marked by a tachycardia followed by a bradycardia with intermittent accelerations or decelerations. Small amounts of vaginal bleeding associated with FHR abnormalities should raise the suspicion of fetal haemorrhage. This condition demands prompt delivery and immediate reexpansion of the neonatal blood volume.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      99.1
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Which one of the following statements regarding the fetal head is true? ...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following statements regarding the fetal head is true?

      Your Answer: Considered to be engaged when the biparietal diameter passes the level of the pelvic inlet

      Explanation:

      The fetal head is engaged when the head of the foetus or the presenting part enters the pelvic inlet or pelvic brim. It usually occurs at 38 weeks of gestation.
      The Spalding sign refers to the overlapping of the fetal skull bones caused by collapse of the fetal brain. It appears usually a week or more after fetal death in utero.
      In brow presentation the scalp is deflexed as the foetus is looking upward. Normally the head is inflexed such that the chin is touching the chest.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      35.4
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 35-year-old woman presented to the emergency department with complaints of abdominal pain...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman presented to the emergency department with complaints of abdominal pain and nausea. She noted that her symptoms began 2 days ago but has severely increased over the last 3 hours. It was also noted that the patient has passed several vaginal blood clots in the last hour.
      Upon history taking, it was noted that she has a history of irregular menstrual cycles and is not sure of the date of her last period. Two years ago, she was diagnosed with a bicornuate uterus during an infertility evaluation. Aside from these, the patient has no other medical conditions and has no past surgeries.

      Further examination was done and the following are her results:
      BMI is 28 kg/m2
      Blood pressure is 90/56mmHg
      Pulse is 120/min

      An abdominal examination was performed and revealed guarding with decreased bowel sounds. Speculum examination also revealed moderate bleeding with clots from the cervix. Her urine pregnancy test result turned out positive. A transvaginal ultrasound was performed and revealed a gestational sac at the upper left uterine cornu and free fluid in the posterior cul-de-sac of the pelvis.

      Which of the following is considered the next step in best managing the patient's condition?

      Your Answer: Surgical exploration

      Explanation:

      Ectopic pregnancy is a known complication of pregnancy that can carry a high rate of morbidity and mortality when not recognized and treated promptly. It is essential that providers maintain a high index of suspicion for an ectopic in their pregnant patients as they may present with pain, vaginal bleeding, or more vague complaints such as nausea and vomiting. Ectopic pregnancy, in essence, is the implantation of an embryo outside of the uterine cavity most commonly in the fallopian tube.

      Providers should identify any known risk factors for ectopic pregnancy in their patient’s history, such as if a patient has had a prior confirmed ectopic pregnancy, known fallopian tube damage (history of pelvic inflammatory disease, tubal surgery, known obstruction), or achieved pregnancy through infertility treatment.

      Performance of laparoscopic surgery is safe and effective treatment modalities in hemodynamically stable women with a non-ruptured ectopic pregnancy.

      Patients with relatively low hCG levels would benefit from the single-dose methotrexate protocol. Patients with higher hCG levels may necessitate two-dose regimens. There is literature suggestive that methotrexate treatment does not have adverse effects on ovarian reserve or fertility. hCG levels should be trended until a non-pregnancy level exists post-methotrexate administration.

      Surgical management is necessary when the patients demonstrate any of the following: an indication of intraperitoneal bleeding, symptoms suggestive of ongoing ruptured ectopic mass, or hemodynamically instability. Women who present early in pregnancy and have testing suggestive of an ectopic pregnancy would jeopardize the viability of an intrauterine pregnancy if given Methotrexate. The patient may have a cervical ectopic pregnancy and would thus run the risk of haemorrhage and potential hemodynamic instability if a dilation and curettage are performed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      44.6
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A patient arrives on labour ward she is 38 weeks pregnant. Her last...

    Correct

    • A patient arrives on labour ward she is 38 weeks pregnant. Her last and only pregnancy ended with delivery via uncomplicated lower segment C-Section 3 years ago. Contractions are 6 minutes apart and on examination and the cervix is 6cm dilated. She wants to know the chances of a successful vaginal delivery if she proceeds with a vaginal delivery after C-section(VBAC). What is the chance of successful delivery with VBAC?

      Your Answer: 75%

      Explanation:

      There is 70% chance that a women who has had a C-section can deliver via spontaneous vaginal delivery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology
      34.7
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - The median umbilical ligament is a remnant of what structure? ...

    Correct

    • The median umbilical ligament is a remnant of what structure?

      Your Answer: Urachus

      Explanation:

      The median umbilical ligament is the remnant of the Urachus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      6.9
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 27-year-old primigravida female presents to the emergency department at full term.

    6 hours...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old primigravida female presents to the emergency department at full term.

      6 hours ago, she spontaneously began labour. The membranes ruptured two hours ago and the liquor was stained with meconium.

      On cardiotocography (CTG) was conducted and it showed some intermittent late decelerations, from 140 to 110 beats/min.

      On vaginal examination, her cervix id 5 cm dilated. The foetus is in cephalic presentation, in the left occipitotransverse (LOT) position, with the bony head at the level of the ischial spines (IS).

      Due to the deceleration pattern, a fetal scalp pH estimation was performed and the pH was measured at 7.32.

      An hour later, the CTG showed the following pattern over a period of 30 minutes:

      Baseline 140/min
      Baseline variability 1/min
      Accelerations None evident
      Decelerations Two decelerations were evident, with the heart rate falling to 80/min, and with each lasting 4 minutes

      Another vaginal examination is conducted and her cervix is now 8cm dilated, but otherwise unchanged from one hour previously.

      What would be the next best line management?

      Your Answer: Immediate delivery by Caesarean section.

      Explanation:

      The next best line of management is immediate delivery via Caesarean section ( C section).

      This is because of the change in cardiotocography (CTG). The pattern became much more severe with a virtual lack of short-term variability and prolonged decelerations. These changes indicate the necessity for an immediate C section as the cervix is not fully dilated.

      As immediate delivery is indicated, another pH assessment is unnecessary as it would delay delivery and increase the likelihood of fetal hypoxia.

      Delivery by ventose, in a primigravida where the cervix is only 8cm dilated is not indicated as it would allow the labour to proceed or augmenting with Syntocinon.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      85.2
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A mother brought her 3-year-old daughter to the doctor with a complaint of...

    Correct

    • A mother brought her 3-year-old daughter to the doctor with a complaint of vulval pruritus. On examination, the vulval region has a well-defined white plaque with a wrinkled surface and scattered telangiectasia. The diagnosis of lichen sclerosis was confirmed by histopathology.

      Which of the following treatments is the most appropriate?

      Your Answer: Potent topical steroids

      Explanation:

      Lichen sclerosis (LS) is a benign, chronic, progressive dermatologic condition characterized by marked inflammation, epithelial thinning, and distinctive dermal changes accompanied by symptoms of pruritus and pain.

      Topical corticosteroids are the mainstay of therapy. Intralesional corticosteroid therapy is an additional option that is useful for the treatment of thick hypertrophic plaques that topical corticosteroids may not penetrate adequately.

      Antibiotics or antifungals have no role in the treatment of LS since it’s not an infection.
      Since histological diagnosis has already been made, there is no need to refer to dermatologist.
      Surgical intervention is indicated for treatment of complications like adhesion and scarring.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      12.9
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - What is the normal maximum endometrial thickness on ultrasound assessment of a post...

    Correct

    • What is the normal maximum endometrial thickness on ultrasound assessment of a post menopausal uterus?

      Your Answer: 4mm

      Explanation:

      In post menopausal women the thickness of the endometrium should be 4mm or less or women on tamoxifen is should be less than 5mm. If it is more than this the patient should be worked up for endometrial carcinoma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Biophysics
      3.8
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 25 year-old lady presented with complaints of generalised pruritis during the 3rd...

    Incorrect

    • A 25 year-old lady presented with complaints of generalised pruritis during the 3rd trimester of her pregnancy. She was diagnosed as a case of intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy. Which one of the following factors carries the greatest risk to the foetus in this disease?

      Your Answer: Teratogenicity in utero causing learning disability

      Correct Answer: Perinatal mortality

      Explanation:

      Intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy can affect both mother and foetus, however it is more harmful for the foetus. Amongst foetuses, there is an increased risk of perinatal mortality, meconium aspiration, premature delivery and post partum haemorrhage. Exact cause of fetal death cannot be predicted accurately but it is not related to intra uterine growth retardation or placental insufficiency. The liver can be affected in the mother leading to generalized pruritis but no evidence of fetal hepatic dysfunction has been found.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      28.8
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 36 year old patient is diagnosed with cervical cancer and staging investigations...

    Incorrect

    • A 36 year old patient is diagnosed with cervical cancer and staging investigations show there is parametrial involvement but it is confined within the pelvic wall and does not involve the lower 1/3 vagina. There is no evidence of hydronephrosis. What FIGO stage is this?

      Your Answer: 2A

      Correct Answer: 2B

      Explanation:

      It is stage 2B. Stage I: is strictly confined to the cervix; extension to the uterine corpus should be disregarded. The diagnosis of both Stages IA1 and IA2 should be based on microscopic examination of removed tissue, preferably a cone, which must include the entire lesion.
      2010 FIGO classification of cervical carcinoma:
      Stage IA: Invasive cancer identified only microscopically. Invasion is limited to measured stromal invasion with a maximum depth of 5 mm and no wider than 7 mm.
      Stage IA1: Measured invasion of the stroma no greater than 3 mm in depth and no wider than 7 mm diameter.
      Stage IA2: Measured invasion of stroma greater than 3 mm but no greater than 5 mm in depth and no wider than 7 mm in diameter.

      Stage IB: Clinical lesions confined to the cervix or preclinical lesions greater than Stage IA. All gross lesions even with superficial invasion are Stage IB cancers.
      Stage IB1: Clinical lesions no greater than 4 cm in size.
      Stage IB2: Clinical lesions greater than 4 cm in size.

      Stage II: carcinoma that extends beyond the cervix, but does not extend into the pelvic wall. The carcinoma involves the vagina, but not as far as the lower third.
      Stage IIA: No obvious parametrial involvement. Involvement of up to the upper two-thirds of the vagina.
      Stage IIB: Obvious parametrial involvement, but not into the pelvic sidewall.

      Stage III: carcinoma that has extended into the pelvic sidewall. On rectal examination, there is no cancer-free space between the tumour and the pelvic sidewall. The tumour involves the lower third of the vagina. All cases with hydronephrosis or a non-functioning kidney are Stage III cancers.
      Stage IIIA: No extension into the pelvic sidewall but involvement of the lower third of the vagina.
      Stage IIIB: Extension into the pelvic sidewall or hydronephrosis or non-functioning kidney.

      Stage IV: carcinoma that has extended beyond the true pelvis or has clinically involved the mucosa of the bladder and/or rectum.
      Stage IVA: Spread of the tumour into adjacent pelvic organs.
      Stage IVB: Spread to distant organs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      11.3
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - The femoral triangle is bounded medially by which of the following structures? ...

    Incorrect

    • The femoral triangle is bounded medially by which of the following structures?

      Your Answer: Sartorius

      Correct Answer: Adductor longus

      Explanation:

      The femoral triangle is bounded superiorly by the inguinal ligament which forms the base of the triangle, medially by the lateral border of the adductor longus and laterally by the sartorius muscle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      12.8
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - The testis receive innervation from which spinal segment ...

    Incorrect

    • The testis receive innervation from which spinal segment

      Your Answer: T12

      Correct Answer: T10

      Explanation:

      The T10 spinal segment provides the sympathetic nerve fibres that innervate the testes

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      6.7
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A patient who has been seen in fertility clinic phones regarding the timing...

    Correct

    • A patient who has been seen in fertility clinic phones regarding the timing of her progesterone blood test. She has regular 35 day menstrual cycles. When testing for ovulation what day of her cycle should she have the test on?

      Your Answer: 28

      Explanation:

      When testing for ovulation the best test is to check the progesterone level. The mid luteal progesterone levels should be checked 7 days prior to the next period. That will be the 28th day in a 35 day cycle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Data Interpretation
      33.8
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 30-year-old pregnant woman presents to the emergency department.

    She is at 38 weeks...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old pregnant woman presents to the emergency department.

      She is at 38 weeks gestation and has gone into labour.

      On examination, her cervix is 7cm dilated.

      Which of the following would be indicative of obstructed labour and the need for delivery by Caesarean section?

      Your Answer: The fetal head is still just above the ischial spines,

      Correct Answer: A brow presentation in a nulliparous woman.

      Explanation:

      A brow presentation in a nulliparous woman is associated with high risk of obstructed labour and the need for delivery by Caesarean section.

      Brow presentation occurs when the presenting part of the fetal head is the part between the orbital ridge and anterior fontanelle.

      In multiparous women, the indications differ as vaginal manipulation or spontaneous flexion to a vertex presentation or extension to a face presentation can occur after full cervical dilatation.

      Early fetal heart decelerations are indicative of a mild abnormality on cardiotocograph (CTG). It does not indicate obstructive labour or need for delivery by Caesarean section.

      The slow descent of the fetal head can be controlled subsequently by good uterine contractions and allow for vaginal birth.

      Prolonged labour can cause maternal fever, but that in isolation is not an indication for Caesarean section.

      Caput and head moulding are associated with a ‘tight fit’ of the fetal head in the pelvis, but does not contraindicate vaginal birth.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      22.8
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - In normal pregnancy, the value of β-hCG doubles every: ...

    Correct

    • In normal pregnancy, the value of β-hCG doubles every:

      Your Answer: 2 days

      Explanation:

      During early pregnancy, hCG can be detected in the maternal serum as early as 6 to 8 days after fertilization. hCG levels are dynamically increased and doubled every 48 h in most normal pregnancies, and this pattern is similar in both in vivo or in vitro (IVF) conceptions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      2.9
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 32-year-old female at 28 weeks of pregnancy presented with heavy vaginal bleeding....

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old female at 28 weeks of pregnancy presented with heavy vaginal bleeding. On examination, she was tachycardic, hypotensive and her uterus was tender. She was resuscitated. Which of following is the most important investigation to arrive at a diagnosis?

      Your Answer: US

      Explanation:

      The presentation is antepartum haemorrhage. Ultrasound should be performed to find the reason for bleeding and assess the fetal well being.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      14
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A low APGAR score at one minute: ...

    Correct

    • A low APGAR score at one minute:

      Your Answer: Indicates the need for immediate resuscitation

      Explanation:

      The treatment of asphyxia starts with the correct perinatal management of high-risk pregnancies. The management of the hypoxic-ischemic new-borns in the delivery room is the second fundamental step of the treatment. Low Apgar scores and need for cardiopulmonary resuscitation at birth are common but nonspecific findings. Most new-borns respond rapidly to resuscitation and make a full recovery. The outcomes for new-borns who do not respond to resuscitation by 10 minutes of age are very poor, with a very low probability of surviving without severe disability. Resuscitation in room air is advised for term new-borns, since the use of 100% oxygen is associated with worse outcomes compared to the use of room air.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      19.4
      Seconds
  • Question 31 - A 31 year old is being seen in EPU and you are asked...

    Correct

    • A 31 year old is being seen in EPU and you are asked to review her ultrasound. There is a solid collection of echoes with numerous small (3-10 mm) anechoic spaces. What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Molar Pregnancy

      Explanation:

      Gestational trophoblastic disorder is characterized by an abnormal trophoblastic proliferation and include a complete and partial mole. It is characterized by persistently elevated BHCG levels after pregnancy and on ultrasound a snow storm appearance. These appear as anechoic areas on ultrasound.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Data Interpretation
      21.5
      Seconds
  • Question 32 - Spinnbarkheit is a term which means: ...

    Incorrect

    • Spinnbarkheit is a term which means:

      Your Answer: Thinning of the cervical mucous

      Correct Answer: Threading of the cervical mucous

      Explanation:

      Spinnability (or Spinnbarkeit), which measures the capacity of fluids to be drawn into threads, represents an indirect measurement of the adhesive and elastic properties of mucus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      8.7
      Seconds
  • Question 33 - At term, what is the rate of uterine blood flow per minute? ...

    Correct

    • At term, what is the rate of uterine blood flow per minute?

      Your Answer: 500 to 750 ml/min

      Explanation:

      The average volume of uterine blood flow at term is 500-750 ml/min.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      3
      Seconds
  • Question 34 - Which of the following drugs is most appropriate to use to stimulate lactation?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following drugs is most appropriate to use to stimulate lactation?

      Your Answer: Bromocriptine

      Correct Answer: Domperidone

      Explanation:

      Domperidone and metoclopramide are D2 dopamine receptor antagonists. They are primarily used to promote gastric motility. They are also known as galactagogues and they promote the production of milk. Cabergoline and bromocriptine are prolactin inhibitors and they reduce milk production.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      8.9
      Seconds
  • Question 35 - You are called to see a 24 year old patient in A&E. She...

    Incorrect

    • You are called to see a 24 year old patient in A&E. She is 34 weeks gestation and her blood pressure is 149/98. Urine dip shows protein 3+. You send a for a protein:creatinine ratio. What level would be diagnostic of significant proteinuria?

      Your Answer: >300 mg/mmol

      Correct Answer: >30 mg/mmol

      Explanation:

      Significant proteinuria = urinary protein:creatinine ratio >30 mg/mmol or 24-hour urine collection result shows greater than 300 mg protein

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      16.6
      Seconds
  • Question 36 - Among the following which is incorrect regarding hypothyroidism in pregnancy? ...

    Correct

    • Among the following which is incorrect regarding hypothyroidism in pregnancy?

      Your Answer: Thyroxine requirement does not increase in pregnancy and maintenance dose must be continued

      Explanation:

      Thyroxine requirement during pregnancy will increases by 25 to 30 percent, which is seen as early as fifth week of pregnancy.

      Children born to those women whose hypothyroidism was inadequately treated during pregnancy, are at higher risk for developing neuropsychiatric impairments.

      When a woman who is on thyroxine is planning to conceive, they are advised to increase their thyroxine dose by 30 percent at the time of confirmation of pregnancy.

      During pregnancy TSH also should be monitored at every 8 to 10 weeks, with necessary dose adjustments.

      Dose requirements of thyroxine will return to pre-pregnancy level soon after delivery and it will not change according to whether the mother is breastfeeding or not.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      27.1
      Seconds
  • Question 37 - According to the NICE guidelines on intrapartum care a multiparous women with intact...

    Incorrect

    • According to the NICE guidelines on intrapartum care a multiparous women with intact membranes should be offered amniotomy if there is inadequate progress of the active second stage of labour (in terms of rotation and/or descent of the presenting part) after how long?

      Your Answer: 1 hour

      Correct Answer: 30 minutes

      Explanation:

      Multiparous women active 2nd stage labour: Suspect delay if progress inadequate after 30 minutes Diagnose delay if progress inadequate after 1 hour If delay is suspected amniotomy should be offered if membranes are intact If delay diagnosed then preparations should be made for C-section Nulliparous women active 2nd stage labour: Suspect delay if progress inadequate after 1 hour Diagnose delay if progress inadequate after 2 hours If delay is suspected amniotomy should be offered if membranes are intact If delay diagnosed then preparations should be made for C-section

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      16.4
      Seconds
  • Question 38 - A patient undergoes oophorectomy and the ovarian veins are ligated. Which vein does...

    Correct

    • A patient undergoes oophorectomy and the ovarian veins are ligated. Which vein does the right ovary drain into?

      Your Answer: Inferior vena cava

      Explanation:

      The right ovarian vein travels through the suspensory ligament of the ovary and generally joins the inferior vena cava whereas the left ovarian vein drains into the left renal vein.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      11.3
      Seconds
  • Question 39 - A 25-year-old lady is somewhat jaundiced, has black urine, and has pruritus of...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old lady is somewhat jaundiced, has black urine, and has pruritus of her abdomen skin at 30 weeks of pregnancy in her first pregnancy. Her blood pressure is 130/80 mmHg, her fundal height is 29 cm above the pubic symphysis, and her liquid volume is a little lower than expected. Laboratory investigations reveal:
      Serum bilirubin (unconjugated): 5 mmol/L (0-10)
      Serum bilirubin (conjugated): 12 mmol/L (0-5)
      Serum alkaline phosphatase (ALP): 450U/L (30--350)
      Serum alanine aminotransferase (ALT) 45U/L (<55)
      Serum bile acids: 100 mmol/L (1-26)
      The most likely cause for her presentation is?

      Your Answer: Obstetric cholestasis.

      Explanation:

      The correct answer is Obstetric Cholestasis.
      The characteristics (elevated bile acids, conjugated bilirubin, and alkaline phosphatase (ALP) levels) are typical with obstetric cholestasis, which affects roughly 3-4 percent of pregnant women in Australia. Obstetric cholestasis is diagnosed when otherwise unexplained pruritus occurs in pregnancy and abnormal liver function tests (LFTs) and/or raised bile acids occur in the pregnant woman and both resolve after delivery. Pruritus that involves the palms and soles of the feet is particularly suggestive.
      Liver function tests and bile acid levels measurements are used to validate this diagnosis.
      All of the other diagnoses are theoretically possible, but unlikely.
      On liver function tests, hepatitis A and acute fatty liver of pregnancy (which is frequently associated with severe vomiting in late pregnancy) usually show substantially worse hepatocellular damage.
      Pre-eclampsia is connected with hypertension and proteinuria (along with changes in renal function and, in certain cases, thrombocytopenia), while cholelithiasis is associated with obstructive jaundice and pale stools due to a stone in the CBD.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      25.2
      Seconds
  • Question 40 - A 26-year-old woman developed nausea and vomiting since 5th week of gestation, her...

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old woman developed nausea and vomiting since 5th week of gestation, her symptoms started getting worsening over the last two weeks.

      On examination, she presents with signs of moderate degree of dehydration, along with a weight loss of approximately 10%.
      Urine dipstick examination is negative for both leukocytes and nitrites but is positive for ketones. Serum ketone level is elevated and other electrolytes including blood glucose levels are within normal range.

      Which of the below mentioned treatment options is not appropriate in this situation?

      Your Answer: Encourage oral intake and discharge home

      Explanation:

      Patient mentioned in the case has developed severe nausea and vomiting at the initial weeks of pregnancy. If the following clinical features are present, it confirms the diagnosis of hyperemesis gravidarum:
      – Weight loss of more than 5% of pre-pregnancy weight
      – Moderate to severe dehydration.
      – Ketosis
      – Electrolyte abnormalities.

      Management of hyperemesis gravidarum include:
      – Temporary suspension of oral intake, followed by gradual resumption.
      – Intravenous fluid resuscitation, beginning with 2 L of Ringer’s lactate infused over 3 hours to maintain a urine output of more than 100 mL/h.
      – Use of Antiemetics like metoclopramide, if needed.
      – Oral administration of Vitamin B6.
      – Replacement of electrolytes if required in the case.

      Encouraging oral intake and sending this patient home without any intravenous hydration, is not considered the correct treatment option in this case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      18.3
      Seconds
  • Question 41 - Regarding feto-maternal blood circulation, which of the following statements is false? ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding feto-maternal blood circulation, which of the following statements is false?

      Your Answer: There is no direct mixing of fetal and maternal blood at the placenta

      Correct Answer: At term the placenta receives 70% of uterine blood flow

      Explanation:

      The placenta is important for regulating feto-maternal blood circulation, ensuring that the two circulatory systems do not come into direct contact. The placenta receives 70-80% of the uterine blood flow into the decidual spiral arteries where nutrient, waste and gaseous exchange with fetal blood takes place via the villous core fetal vessels. Deoxygenated blood arrives at the placenta via two uterine arteries while oxygenated, nutrient-rich blood is circulated back to the foetus via a single umbilical vein. The pressure in the umbilical vein is about 20 mmHg.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      28.5
      Seconds
  • Question 42 - A patient in a high-risk pregnancy clinic has a past obstetrical history of...

    Correct

    • A patient in a high-risk pregnancy clinic has a past obstetrical history of placenta previa and caesarean section has a breech presentation at 36 weeks gestation.

      Which of the following is considered a risk factor in increasing the chance of term breech presentation?

      Your Answer: All of the above

      Explanation:

      Breech presentation refers to the foetus in the longitudinal lie with the buttocks or lower extremity entering the pelvis first.

      Clinical conditions associated with breech presentation include those that may increase or decrease fetal motility, or affect the vertical polarity of the uterine cavity. Prematurity, multiple gestations, aneuploidies, congenital anomalies, Mullerian anomalies, uterine leiomyoma, and placental polarity as in placenta previa are most commonly associated with a breech presentation. Also, a previous history of breech presentation at term increases the risk of repeat breech presentation at term in subsequent pregnancies.

      Conditions that change the vertical polarity or the uterine cavity, or affect the ease or ability of the foetus to turn into the vertex presentation in the third trimester include:
      – Mullerian anomalies
      – Placentation
      – Uterine leiomyoma
      – Prematurity
      – Aneuploidies and fetal neuromuscular disorders
      – Congenital anomalies
      – Polyhydramnios and oligohydramnios
      – Laxity of the maternal abdominal wall.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      27.7
      Seconds
  • Question 43 - During her first month on OCPs, a patient had minimal bleeding at mid...

    Incorrect

    • During her first month on OCPs, a patient had minimal bleeding at mid cycle. What is the most appropriate management?

      Your Answer: Continue pills and use an additional form of contraception.

      Correct Answer: Continue pills as usual.

      Explanation:

      Breakthrough bleeding, or spotting, refers to when vaginal bleeding occurs between menstrual cycles. It may look like light bleeding or brown discharge.

      Spotting is the most common side effect of birth control pills. It happens because the body is adjusting to changing levels of hormones, and the uterus is adjusting to having a thinner lining.

      Taking the pill as prescribed, usually every day and at the same time each day, can help prevent bleeding between periods.

      All other options are incorrect as this is a common side effect and will resolve on its own.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      7.5
      Seconds
  • Question 44 - A 29-year-old gravida 6, para 5 woman at 36 weeks of gestation arrives...

    Correct

    • A 29-year-old gravida 6, para 5 woman at 36 weeks of gestation arrives in the ED via ambulance and precipitously delivers a male child. The child coughs and has a strong cry. He is very active. Acrocyanosis is noted. Heart rate is 98 bpm and breathing is strong. What is this child’s Apgar score?

      Your Answer: 5

      Explanation:

      The Apgar test scores appearance, pulse, grimace, activity, and respiration and is generally done at 1 and 5 minutes after birth but may be repeated if the child continues to score low (Table). This child’s score is as follows: Appearance, 1; Pulse, 1; Grimace, 2; Activity, 2; Respiration, 2 (APGAR score = 8). A score of 3 or less is generally regarded as critically low, 4 to 6 is fairly low, and 7 to 10 is generally normal. Contrary to common belief, the Apgar score is not used to decide if a neonate requires resuscitation. Decisions about resuscitation are based on emergency assessment of airway, breathing, and circulation.5,6

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      9.4
      Seconds
  • Question 45 - A 40-year-old nulligravid woman comes to the office due to persistent abnormal uterine...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old nulligravid woman comes to the office due to persistent abnormal uterine bleeding. Patient’s menstrual periods previously occurred monthly, which lasts of 4 days with moderate bleeding and light cramping. However, for the past 8 months, she has had intermenstrual spotting and bleeding which have occurred at varying intervals and last for 3-7 days. 
      Patient had started combination oral contraceptives 4 months ago, which has not improved the bleeding pattern. 

      On examination her temperature is 37.2 C (99 F), blood pressure is 126/76 mm Hg, pulse is 86/min and BMI is 29 kg/m2. 
      Speculum examination shows dark red blood in the posterior vaginal vault but no cervical or vaginal lesions. Remainder of the pelvic examination was normal. 
      Her laboratory results are as follows:
      - Hemoglobin: 12.2 g/dL
      - Prolactin: 5 ng/mL
      - TSH: 1.8 µU/mL
      - Urine pregnancy test is negative. 
      Pelvic ultrasound shows an anteverted uterus without any adnexal masses. 

      Which of the following is considered the best next step in management of this patient?

      Your Answer: Progesterone withdrawal test

      Correct Answer: Endometrial biopsy

      Explanation:

      Uncontrolled endometrial proliferation due to excess and unregulated estrogen is the reason for intermenstrual bleeding and irregular menses along with abnormal uterine bleeding (AUB) in this patient. The condition is mostly associated with an increased risk of endometrial hyperplasia
      ancer.
      The absolute risk of endometrial hyperplasia
      ancer is very low in women aged <45, therefore they can be started on combination medication with estrogen/progestin contraception (ie, medical management) without the evaluation of endometrium.  The estrogen component of medication regulates the menstrual cycle by build up the endometrium; whereas the progestin component helps in shedding of the endometrium.
      However, patients who have continued irregular menstrual bleeding even while on combination contraceptives require further evaluation as they have failed to improve with medical management. In such patients, the endometrial lining will be too thick for the progestin to completely shed during menstruation and this unshed endometrium continues to undergo dysregulated proliferation, leading to an increased risk of endometrial hyperplasia
      ancer. Therefore, patients age below 45 with AUB who have failed medical management require an endometrial biopsy.
      AUB persistent above 6 months, obesity, and/or tamoxifen therapy are the other indications for endometrial biopsy in women age <45, as all of these will increase the amount of unopposed endometrial estrogen exposure. In patients with heavy menstrual bleeding and anemia, coagulation studies are performed to evaluate for bleeding disorders like von Willebrand disease. It is not necessary in this patient as she have a normal hemoglobin level. In patients with heavy, but regular (ovulatory) bleeding an endometrial ablation, which is a procedure used to remove the excess endometrium, can be considered as the treatment option. Endometrial ablation is contraindicated in undiagnosed cases of AUB as it prevents evaluation of the endometrium in patients with possible endometrial hyperplasia
      ancer.

      To check for abnormalities of the uterus like didelphys or of the Fallopian tube like scarring, a hysterosalpingogram is used but it is not useful to evaluate AUB. In addition, as the procedure could spread cancerous endometrial cells into the abdominal cavity, hysterosalpingogram is contraindicated in cases of undiagnosed AUB.

      To evaluate secondary amenorrhea, ie. absence of menses for >6 months in a patient with previously irregular menses, a progesterone withdrawal test is used to determine whether amenorrhea is from low estrogen level, in negative cases there will be no bleeding after progesterone. This test is not indicated or relevant in this case as patient had continued bleeding while on oral contraceptives suggestive of high estrogen levels.

      Evaluation for endometrial hyperplasia
      ancer with an endometrial biopsy is required for those women age <45 with abnormal uterine bleeding who have failed medical management with oral contraceptives.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      43.7
      Seconds
  • Question 46 - What is the most common Type II congenital thrombophilia? ...

    Correct

    • What is the most common Type II congenital thrombophilia?

      Your Answer: Factor V Leiden mutation

      Explanation:

      Factor V Leiden is the most common congenital thrombophilia. Named after the Dutch city Leiden where it was first discovered. Protein C and S deficiencies are type 1 (Not type 2) thrombophilias Antiphospholipid syndrome is an acquired (NOT congenital) thrombophilia

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      4.1
      Seconds
  • Question 47 - Which of the following would normally be expected to increase during pregnancy: ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following would normally be expected to increase during pregnancy:

      Your Answer: Thyroxin-binding globulin

      Explanation:

      Thyroid function in pregnancy is altered in two ways; the circulating levels of the thyroid binding proteins are increased, resulting in an increase in the total circulating levels of thyroid hormones (but a slight fall in the free component).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      8.6
      Seconds
  • Question 48 - A 27-year-old woman admitted with per vaginal bleeding and left sided pelvic pain...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old woman admitted with per vaginal bleeding and left sided pelvic pain for 2 days. There was no history of fever. She gave a history of absent periods for past 8 weeks. Abdominal examination revealed guarding and rebound tenderness in left iliac region. There was left sided cervical excitation on vaginal examination. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Ectopic Pregnancy

      Explanation:

      History of amenorrhoea, abdominal and vaginal examination are more favour of ectopic pregnancy. Endometriosis usually has a chronic cause and dysmenorrhoea. Salpingitis usually presents with fever. Ovarian torsion and ovarian tumours have different clinical presentations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      18.2
      Seconds
  • Question 49 - You are called to assist in an initially midwife led delivery. Upon delivering...

    Incorrect

    • You are called to assist in an initially midwife led delivery. Upon delivering a female baby you notice the baby has partial fusion of the labioscrotal folds. You suspect congenital adrenal hyperplasia. Which of the following is the most common enzyme deficiency?

      Your Answer: 17a-hydroxylase

      Correct Answer: 21-hydroxylase

      Explanation:

      Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia leads to the virilization of the foetus. It occurs due to an enzyme deficiency in the corticosteroid production pathway i.e. 21-hydroxylase which converts progesterone to deoxycorticosterone. The reduced levels of corticosteroids results in the negative feedback loop that leads to adrenal hyperplasia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      10
      Seconds
  • Question 50 - The superficial inguinal ring is an aperture in which structure? ...

    Correct

    • The superficial inguinal ring is an aperture in which structure?

      Your Answer: Aponeurosis external oblique

      Explanation:

      The superficial ring is the exit to the inguinal canal. It is a triangular aperture in the aponeurosis of external oblique. The conjoint tendon reinforces the ring posteriorly

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      12.7
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Obstetrics (12/18) 67%
Biophysics (2/2) 100%
Biochemistry (1/1) 100%
Anatomy (5/7) 71%
Gynaecology (3/4) 75%
Clinical Management (2/5) 40%
Pathology (1/1) 100%
Physiology (5/6) 83%
Epidemiology (1/1) 100%
Data Interpretation (2/2) 100%
Endocrinology (0/1) 0%
Embryology (0/1) 0%
Genetics (0/1) 0%
Passmed