-
Question 1
Incorrect
-
Which of the following actions will an 8-week-old infant born at full-term be able to do, considering normal development?
Your Answer: Support their own head fully when pulled to sitting
Correct Answer: Smile
Explanation:Among the options provided, an 8-week-old full-term infant with normal developmental milestones will smile in response to appropriate stimuli.Rationale:Smiles in response to appropriate stimuli are seen from around 6 weeks of age. A social smile, where the infant has an awareness that a smile attracts attention, is not observed until around 3 months of age.Other options:- At 6 weeks an infant is able to follow objects in the horizontal plane through 90 deg| fixing and following an object through 180 deg in the horizontal plane is a milestone achieved at 3 months, as is pushing up onto forearms. – Pushing up onto hands occurs by around 5 months.- Infants of 3 months should startle to a 60 dB sound.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Child Development
-
-
Question 2
Incorrect
-
A 3 year old male presents to the genetics clinic with a history of proximal myopathy. He has missed motor milestones and has pseudohypertrophy of the calves. Doctors suspect it might be Duchenne's muscular dystrophy. Which of the following should you advise the parents?
Your Answer: DMD is always inherited and does not occur as a new mutation
Correct Answer: Girl offspring have a less than 10% chance of inheriting the condition
Explanation:Although initially thought to affect only boys, girls with DMD also have an estimated 10% chance of inheriting the condition. In girls, DMD may present with all or some clinical manifestations.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics And Dysmorphology
-
-
Question 3
Correct
-
Which of the following vaccines do not contain live organisms?
Your Answer: Polio (Salk)
Explanation:Live virus vaccines include: Vaccinia (smallpox), Measles, Mumps, Rubella (MMR combined vaccine), Varicella (chickenpox), Influenza (nasal spray), Rotavirus, Zoster (shingles) and Yellow fever. Inactivated vaccines are Polio (IPV), Hepatitis A and Rabies.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
-
-
Question 4
Correct
-
A new-born baby is noted to have low-set ears, rocker-bottom feet and overlapping of her fingers.What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Edward's syndrome
Explanation:The trisomy 18 syndrome, also known as Edwards syndrome, is a common chromosomal disorder due to the presence of an extra chromosome 18, either full, mosaic trisomy, or partial trisomy 18q. The condition is the second most common autosomal trisomy syndrome after trisomy 21.Currently, most cases of trisomy 18 are prenatally diagnosed, based on screening by maternal age, maternal serum marker screening, or detection of sonographic abnormalities (e.g., increased nuchal translucency thickness, growth retardation, choroid plexus cyst, overlapping of fingers, and congenital heart defects ).The main clinical features represent the clues for the diagnosis in the perinatal period and include prenatal growth deficiency, characteristic craniofacial features (dolichocephaly, short palpebral fissures, micrognathia external anomalies of the ears, and redundant skin at the back of the neck), distinctive hand posture (overriding fingers: index finger overlapping the third and 5th finger overlapping the 4th), nail hypoplasia, short hallux, underdeveloped thumbs, short sternum, and club feet and major malformations (particularly involving the heart).
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics And Dysmorphology
-
-
Question 5
Incorrect
-
An 11-year-old boy was brought to the hospital by his mother, who says that occasionally he tilts his head towards his right shoulder. She also remarked that his left eye seemed to move up suddenly when he looked towards his nose. Which of the following extraocular muscles is most likely to be affected in this child?
Your Answer: Superior rectus
Correct Answer: Superior oblique
Explanation:From the given scenario, the extraocular muscle affected in the child is superior oblique muscle. Point to remember:All of the extraocular muscles are supplied by the oculomotor nerve (3rd cranial nerve), except superior oblique (trochlear nerve/4th cranial nerve) and lateral rectus (abducens nerve/6th cranial nerve).The superior oblique muscle causes the eye to move downwards and medially. The unopposed inferior oblique, in this case, causes the eye to deviate upwards and medially. Children tend to tilt their head (torticollis) to the side opposite to the affected eye with their chin down toward the shoulder, and their face turned away from the affected side to decrease the diplopia.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
-
-
Question 6
Incorrect
-
A 14 year-old is brought to the ED after being hit on the head with a cricket ball during a match. His teacher describes that he initially collapsed on the ground and complained of a sore head. Two minutes later, he got up and said he felt OK and continued playing. However, 30 minutes later he suddenly collapsed and lost consciousness. What injury is he most likely to have sustained?
Your Answer: Subdural haematoma
Correct Answer: Extradural haematoma
Explanation:A lucid interval, in which the patient portrays a temporary improvement in condition after a traumatic brain injury, is especially indicative of an epidural haematoma.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
-
-
Question 7
Incorrect
-
Which of the following does not cause upper gastrointestinal bleeding?
Your Answer: Duplication cyst
Correct Answer: Meckel's diverticulum
Explanation:Meckel’s diverticulum is a true diverticulum and is the most common congenital anomaly of the GI tract, occurring in about 2% of people. It is caused by incomplete obliteration of the vitelline duct and consists of a congenital sacculation of the antimesenteric border of the ileum. Symptoms are uncommon but include lower GI bleeding, bowel obstruction, and inflammation (diverticulitis). Causes of upper GI bleeding in neonates:Swallowed maternal bloodCoagulopathies including haemorrhagic disease of the new-bornStress gastritis & stress ulcersDrugs (NSAIDs, heparin, indomethacin used for patent duct closure, dexamethasone)Causes of upper GI bleeding in children 1 month to 1 year:GORDGastritis (with or without Helicobacter pylori infection)Crohn diseaseDrugs (NSAIDs)Zollinger-Ellison syndromeCauses of upper GI bleeding in children 1 -2 years:Peptic ulcer diseaseZollinger-Ellison syndromeBurns (Curling ulcer)Head trauma (Cushing ulcer)SepsisCauses of upper GI bleeding in older than 2 years:Oesophageal varices secondary to portal hypertension (most commonly portal vein thrombosis and biliary atresia)Duodenal ulcersOesophagitisGastritisMallory-Weiss tears
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
-
-
Question 8
Incorrect
-
A 10-year-old boy presents with bilaterally enlarged parotid glands for more than 9 months. On examination, both parotid glands are firm and non-tender and are not warm to touch.What is the most probable infectious cause for chronic parotitis in the given scenario?
Your Answer: Mumps virus
Correct Answer: Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)
Explanation:The most probable cause for chronic parotitis in this patient would be HIV infection.Rationale:Chronic infectious parotitis is relatively uncommon in children. While mycobacterial infection can result in chronic parotitis, HIV is a relatively more common cause. The presentation should always prompt an HIV test. Other options:- While mumps is the most common cause of acute viral parotitis, the chronic nature of the boy’s presentation rules it out. – Acute bacterial parotitis is usually unilateral and is warm and tender to touch.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- HIV
-
-
Question 9
Incorrect
-
Which of the following developmental milestones is expected from a healthy 6-month-old child?
Your Answer: Uses a pincer grasp
Correct Answer: Puts everything to his/her mouth
Explanation:6 month old milestones:Social and Emotional:Knows familiar faces and begins to know if someone is a stranger Likes to play with others, especially parents Responds to other people’s emotions and often seems happy Likes to look at self in a mirror Language/Communication:Responds to sounds by making sounds Strings vowels together when babbling (“ah,” “eh,” “oh”) and likes taking turns with parent while making sounds Responds to own name Makes sounds to show joy and displeasure Begins to say consonant sounds (jabbering with “m,” “b”) Cognitive (learning, thinking, problem-solving):Looks around at things nearby Brings things to mouth Shows curiosity about things and tries to get things that are out of reach Begins to pass things from one hand to the other Movement/Physical Development:Rolls over in both directions (front to back, back to front) Begins to sit without support When standing, supports weight on legs and might bounce Rocks back and forth, sometimes crawling backwards before moving forward
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Child Development
-
-
Question 10
Incorrect
-
A 13-year-old girl has complained of pain in her left arm for 4 months. An X-ray reveals a mass along with erosion of the affected humerus. Histologically, the tumour is found to be formed by small, round, blue cells. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Neuroblastoma
Correct Answer: Ewing’s sarcoma
Explanation:Ewing’s sarcoma is formed by small, round, blue cells, and is common in children. The usually develop in limbs, and clinical findings include pain and inflammation, with lytic destruction showing up on X-rays.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
-
-
Question 11
Correct
-
A 13-year-old boy's mother notices he has a lump in his arm, near his right shoulder. An X-ray reveals a lateral projection in the metaphyseal region of his humerus. The lesion is removed and it is found to be composed of bony cortex, capped by cartilage. What's the most likely diagnosis in this case?
Your Answer: Osteochondroma
Explanation:Osteochondromas, or osteocartilaginous exostoses, are the most common benign bone tumours, and tend to appear near the ends of long bones. The overgrowth can occur in any bone where cartilage forms bone, and they are capped by cartilage. They are most common in people between the ages of 10-20 years old.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
-
-
Question 12
Incorrect
-
A 13-year-old girl is brought by her mother to the A&E with breathlessness, fatigue and palpitations. Anamnesis does not reveal any syncope or chest pain in the past. on the other hand, these symptoms were present intermittently for a year. Clinical examination reveals a pan-systolic murmur associated with giant V waves in the jugular venous pulse. Chest auscultation and resting ECG are normal. 24 hour ECG tape shows a short burst of supraventricular tachycardia. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Pulmonary stenosis
Correct Answer: Ebstein's anomaly
Explanation:Ebstein’s anomaly is characterised by apical displacement and adherence of the septal and posterior leaflets of the tricuspid valve to the underlying myocardium, thereby displacing the functional tricuspid orifice apically and dividing the right ventricle into two portions. The main haemodynamic abnormality leading to symptoms is tricuspid valve incompetence. The clinical spectrum is broad| patients may be asymptomatic or experience right-sided heart failure, cyanosis, arrhythmias and sudden cardiac death (SCD). Many Ebstein’s anomaly patients have an interatrial communication (secundum atrial septal defect (ASD II) or patent foramen ovale). Other structural anomalies may also be present, including a bicuspid aortic valve (BAV), ventricular septal defect (VSD), and pulmonary stenosis. The morphology of the tricuspid valve in Ebstein anomaly, and consequently the clinical presentation, is highly variable. The tricuspid valve leaflets demonstrate variable degrees of failed delamination (separation of the valve tissue from the myocardium) with fibrous attachments to the right ventricular endocardium.The displacement of annular attachments of septal and posterior (inferior) leaflets into the right ventricle toward the apex and right ventricular outflow tract is the hallmark finding of Ebstein anomaly.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
-
-
Question 13
Incorrect
-
Which of the following conditions is rarely associated with hyposplenism?
Your Answer: Systemic lupus erythematosus
Correct Answer: Myxoedema
Explanation:Hyposplenism usually occurs after the surgical removal of the spleen or in pathological processes where the splenic tissue is replaced with abnormal tissue. It is often associated with diseases such as sickle cell disease, Coeliac disease, SLE and Dermatitis Herpetiformis. Myxoedema however bears no known association with hyposplenism. Patients with hyposplenism are at risk of fulminant bacterial infection.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
-
-
Question 14
Correct
-
A young girl injured her arm following a fall down the steps. On examination, it was found that her left proximal radioulnar joint had dislocated and the annular ligament was stretched. This will make which movement extremely painful?
Your Answer: Supination
Explanation:Supination is the rotation of the forearm so that the palm of the hand faces anteriorly. This is performed by the biceps brachii and supinator of the extensor muscles of the thumb. The opposite action of moving the palm from an anterior-facing position to a posterior-facing position is called pronation. Pronation is performed by the pronator teres and pronator quadratus.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
-
-
Question 15
Incorrect
-
An 18-year-old female suffering from acne vulgaris has been started on isotretinoin. Regarding this treatment, which of the following statements is the most applicable?
Your Answer: It may cause haemoptysis
Correct Answer: Pregnancy should be avoided during and 1 month after treatment
Explanation:It is recommended that a woman wait one month after stopping isotretinoin before trying to become pregnant. Usually, isotretinoin is no longer found in a woman’s blood 4-5 days after the last dose and most of its by-products should be gone within 10 days after the last dose.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 16
Incorrect
-
What is the primary reason for a written protocol?
Your Answer: Name the investigators
Correct Answer: Document the process of the trial in advance
Explanation:A written protocol is important in clinical research as it helps to decrease bias with early findings as the process of the trial has been documented in advance. To show that the study has been properly undertaken before commencing, the investigators must document their names| they must describe the process, detail the analysis that will be undertaken, and provide a power calculation. The ethics committee does not always need to see the protocol.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology And Statistics
-
-
Question 17
Incorrect
-
A 40-week-old baby presented with a weak cry and failure to thrive. The mother gives a history of prolonged neonatal jaundice and says it is common in her family. On examination, a large tongue was noticed. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Downs syndrome
Correct Answer: Congenital hypothyroidism
Explanation:Congenital hypothyroidism is associated with failure to thrive, macroglossia, prolonged jaundice of a new-born and constipation.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
-
-
Question 18
Correct
-
A 17 year old boy presented with complaints of pain in his right lower limb. The pain tends to occur more at night and is not associated with physical activity. The most likely diagnosis would be?
Your Answer: Osteoid osteoma
Explanation:Osteoid osteoma is a bone forming tumour which affects individuals in the second decade of life. The patient presents with a history of pain in the lower limbs which is mostly at night and responds to NSAIDS. If the pain doesn’t respond to NSAIDS, then other differentials should be considered.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
-
-
Question 19
Incorrect
-
What is the average lifespan of an erythrocyte once it has entered the bloodstream?
Your Answer: 360 days
Correct Answer: 120 days
Explanation:Red blood cells (RBC) have a life span of 120 days in humans.Aging of RBC includes changes in many properties: decreased metabolic activity, morphological alterations, including decreased cell volume and changes in cell shape, and quantitative and qualitative modulations of the surface.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
-
-
Question 20
Incorrect
-
Which of the given bioactive factors is NOT a component of normal human breast milk?
Your Answer: IgA
Correct Answer: Basophil
Explanation:Human breast milk composition is best suited to meet all the growth and development requirements of a baby. It contains numerous biochemicals ranging from macronutrients, micronutrients, minerals, immunoglobulins, inflammatory markers, and growth factors. The major bioactive factors found in human breast milk are: immunoglobulins (IgA, IgG, and IgM), cells (macrophages and stem cells), growth factors (epidermal growth factor, tumour necrosis factor-alpha, transforming growth factor-beta, and vascular endothelial growth factor), cytokines, chemokines, hormones, metabolic hormones, glycans, and mucins.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Nutrition
-
-
Question 21
Incorrect
-
A 10-year-old Japanese boy presents to the hospital with pain in his elbows and knees associated with swelling of his hands and feet. On examination, he is found to be febrile with a temperature of 39°C. He is also tachycardic with a pulse rate of 120bpm and hypotensive with a blood pressure of 100/60 mmHg. Conjunctival congestion and cervical lymphadenopathy with a red tongue were also noted. What is the most probable diagnosis for this patient?
Your Answer: Felty syndrome
Correct Answer: Kawasaki disease
Explanation:The most probable diagnosis for this patient would be Kawasaki disease.Kawasaki disease:It is an acute systemic disorder of childhood that predominantly occurs in Japan (800 cases per million in children under the age of 5 years). The causative factor is not known, but mycoplasma and HIV infection may be associated in some cases. Clinical Features:The principal clinical features are fever persisting for more than five days, bilateral non-purulent conjunctival congestion, cervical lymphadenopathy, polymorphous rash, arthralgia, palmar erythema and strawberry tongue. Other options:- Diffuse cutaneous systemic sclerosis is associated with skin, renal and gut involvement. Arthralgia, morning stiffness and flexor tenosynovitis are common. – Behçet syndrome is a vasculitis of unknown aetiology that characteristically targets venules. – Felty syndrome is the association of splenomegaly and neutropenia with rheumatoid arthritis. Lymphadenopathy is common, and there is a predisposition to recurrent infections.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
-
-
Question 22
Incorrect
-
A 14-day-old baby presented in NICU with the signs and symptoms of hydrocephaly, seizures and chorioretinitis. Which of the following infectious agents is most probably the cause in a case like this?
Your Answer: Cytomegalovirus (CMV)
Correct Answer: Toxoplasmosis
Explanation:Maternal and fetal toxoplasma infection may be avoided by advising pregnant women to wear gloves when gardening or handling cat litter and to cook meat thoroughly. Affected babies are treated with pyrimethamine, sulfadiazine, and folic acid.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
-
-
Question 23
Correct
-
A 3-year-old girl presents to A&E following a few days of being lethargic, having runny nose, sore throat, and fever. She has unceasing stridor and drooling of saliva while her body is inclined forward. What is the most important next step in her management?
Your Answer: Call ENT specialist
Explanation:A consultation with an ENT is required to establish the reason for the child’s drooling and stridor indicating and obstructive process. Enlarged tonsils and adenoids should be checked.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
-
-
Question 24
Incorrect
-
Which of the following can be expected from a 12-month-old child assuming he has achieved normal developmental miles stones so far?
Your Answer: Make a tower three blocks high
Correct Answer: Pick up a raisin between forefinger and thumb
Explanation:In a child with an age of 12 months – pincer grasp should be well developed. It is essential to have a good grasp of important milestones. Most 12-month-old children will be mobile, by standing holding onto a support, lifting one foot and moving it sideways (‘cruising’ around the furniture). They will demonstrate a neat pincer grasp, e.g. picking up a raisin or piece of paper between the tip of the index finger and the thumb. Words (or meaningful word-like utterances) are produced, but words are not usually chosen and put together deliberately by a child until after the second birthday (typically around the age of 30 months). Word combinations used earlier than this are likely to be an echo of a learnt phrase which may be understood by the child to be one single word even though they are a combination of more than one word (e.g. daddy, home). Building a tower of three cubes and following a one-step command such as ‘take off your socks’, is expected at 18 months.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Child Development
-
-
Question 25
Correct
-
An 18 year old, previously well boy was admitted following a generalized tonic-clonic convulsion for 5 minutes with urinary incontinence and eye rolling. On examination, he was drowsy and had bilateral up going plantar reflexes. A short while ago he had been playing rugby and had taken a hit to the head. He was apparently normal for a few minutes before fitting. His blood sugar level was normal. Which of the following is the most probable reason for this presentation?
Your Answer: Post-traumatic seizure
Explanation:The history is suggestive of a post-traumatic seizure which frequently occurs after moderate or severe traumatic brain injury. Although upgoing plantars can be identified in a post-ictal status, an intracranial bleed has to be excluded. A single seizure cannot be considered epilepsy
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
-
-
Question 26
Incorrect
-
A 10 year old boy presents with generalized swelling. This includes puffiness in the face and swollen ankles - these symptoms have been present for 4 days. The swelling began just a few days after he suffered from a mild cold with a runny nose. His only past medical history is that of eczema. His urine analysis showed the following: haematuria| proteinuria (10g/24h)| creat60umol/l| and albumin of 15g/l. From the list of options, what is the single most likely diagnosis for this patient?
Your Answer: Wilson’s disease
Correct Answer: IgA nephropathy
Explanation:A 10 year old child, with a history of URTI and haematuria, presents a picture consistent with a diagnosis of IgA nephropathy. This condition can present with proteinuria and generalized swelling. However, an important differentiating point from rapidly progressive GN is the duration. IgA nephropathy is usually <10 days (commonly 4-5 day history of infection).
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal
-
-
Question 27
Correct
-
Hypercalcemia occurs in association with which of the following diseases?
Your Answer: Hyperparathyroidism
Explanation:Hypercalcemia refers to increased serum calcium levels and is characterized by a number of significant constellations, including polyuria, muscle weakness, abdominal pain, fatigue, and cardiac arrhythmias. The causes of hypercalcemia can be classified as PTH-dependant causes and PTH-independent causes. The causes can be both congenital and acquired. The most common cause of PTH-dependent hypercalcemia is the primary or tertiary hyperparathyroidism, resulting from parathyroid gland tumours. Hyperparathyroidism is also associated with chronic renal failure. PTH-independent hypercalcemia is caused by William’s syndrome, hypervitaminosis (vitamin A and D intoxication), endocrinopathies (hyperthyroidism), various drugs (thiazide diuretics), and some inborn errors of metabolism. One of the congenital causes of PTH-independent hypercalcemia is idiopathic infantile hypercalcemia.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
-
-
Question 28
Incorrect
-
Childhood absence epilepsy is characterized by which of the given facts?
Your Answer: Treatment resistance is common
Correct Answer: 3-Hz spike-and-slow-wave complexes are seen on electroencephalograms (EEGs)
Explanation:Absence epilepsy is the most common type of generalized childhood epilepsies. It is mainly idiopathic, but 10-40% of the cases have a positive family history. It is characterized by frequent absence seizures and periods of unconsciousness. The hallmark of absence epilepsy on EEG is the bilaterally synchronous 2–4 Hz spike and wave discharges (SWDs). The average age of onset is around 4-8 years, being more prevalent among girls. Treatment resistance is not common.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology And Neurodisability
-
-
Question 29
Incorrect
-
Which among the following is a common feature of systemic juvenile idiopathic arthritis (Still's disease)?
Your Answer: Normal C-reactive protein (CRP)
Correct Answer: Negative rheumatoid factor
Explanation:Still’s disease is a rare systemic disorder that accounts for 10% of cases of juvenile idiopathic arthritis (JIA). The aetiology is unknown. It affects boys and girls equally up to the age of five years of age, following which, girls are more commonly affected. Clinical features of this disease include:- Fever- Maculopapular rash- Myalgia- Generalised lymphadenopathy- Hepatosplenomegaly- Pericarditis and pleuritis Laboratory investigations reveal raised ESR and CRP. There can also be coexisting neutrophilia and thrombocytosis. Anti-nuclear autoantibodies and rheumatoid factor are usually negative in patients with Still’s disease.On the rare case that they are present, their titres are generally low.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
-
-
Question 30
Incorrect
-
A 16-year-old boy is being treated with ADH for diabetes insipidus. His blood results show:fasting plasma glucose level: 6 mmol/l (3– 6)sodium 148 mmol/l (137–144)potassium 4.5 mmol/l (3.5–4.9)calcium 2.8 mmol/l (2.2–2.6). However, he still complains of polyuria, polydipsia and nocturia.What could be the most probable cause?
Your Answer: Primary polydipsia
Correct Answer: Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus
Explanation:Diabetes insipidus (DI) is defined as the passage of large volumes (>3 L/24 hr) of dilute urine (< 300 mOsm/kg). It has the following 2 major forms:Central (neurogenic, pituitary, or neurohypophyseal) DI, characterized by decreased secretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH| also referred to as arginine vasopressin [AVP])Nephrogenic DI, characterized by decreased ability to concentrate urine because of resistance to ADH action in the kidney.The boy most probably has nephrogenic diabetes insidious (DI) not central DI so he is not responding to the ADH treatment.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
-
-
Question 31
Correct
-
A 4 year old baby was brought in by her mother with complaints of generalized pallor, loss of weight and loose stools. The baby's stools were frothy in nature and difficult to flush. Which investigation can help in diagnosing this patient?
Your Answer: Anti-endomysial antibodies
Explanation:The presence of anti-endomysial antibodies confirms the diagnosis of Celiac disease, which is the primary cause of illness in this patient. The sweat chloride test is performed with cystic fibrosis.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
-
-
Question 32
Correct
-
A 10-month-old girl was diagnosed with a urinary tract infection.Which of the following is NOT a requirement to perform imaging studies in this child?
Your Answer: E.coli UTI
Explanation:E. coli accounts for the majority of UTI’s in children. If this child responds well to treatment and has no recurrence of his symptoms, then no form of imaging is required, as per NICE advice for children aged 6 months to 3 years. Had the child been less than 6 months of age, then a USS at 6 weeks would be necessary.Other options:- Pseudomonas causes atypical UTI. This warrants ultrasonography within the acute illness phase as it may reflect an underlying pathology and DMSA at 4-6 months.- Recurrent UTI is defined as two or more episodes of pyelonephritis OR 1 pyelonephritis and one cystitis OR 3 or more cystitis. It requires USS at six weeks and DMSA at 4-6 months.- Septicaemia is a sign of an atypical UTI. This requires USS within the acute illness as it may reflect an underlying pathology and DMSA at 4-6 months.- Unwell 48hrs post antibiotics is a sign of an atypical UTI. This requires USS within the acute illness as may reflect underlying pathology and DMSA at 4-6 months.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephro-urology
-
-
Question 33
Incorrect
-
A 15-year-old girl is referred to the paediatric unit with reduced urine output and lethargy. She has been passing bloody diarrhoea for the past four days. On admission she appears dehydrated. Bloods show the following:Na+ 142 mmol/lK+ 4.8 mmol/lBicarbonate 22 mmol/lUrea 10.1 mmol/lCreatinine 176 µmol/lHb 10.4 g/dlMCV 90 flPlt 91 * 109/lWBC 14.4 * 109/lGiven the likely diagnosis, which one of the following organisms is the most likely cause?
Your Answer: Salmonella
Correct Answer: E. coli
Explanation:The likely diagnosis in this case is Haemolytic Uremic Syndrome (HUS), which is generally seen in young children presenting with a triad of symptoms, namely: acute renal failure, microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia, and thrombocytopenia. The typical cause of HUS is ingestion of a strain of Escherichia coli.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal
-
-
Question 34
Incorrect
-
A 14 year old girl suffers from haemophilia A and chronic knee pain with progressive swelling and deformity over the last 4 years. Test results reveal a significantly reduced factor VIII activity. Which of the following is seen in the knee joint space after an acute painful episode?
Your Answer: Neutrophils
Correct Answer: Cholesterol crystals
Explanation:Due to breakdown of the red blood cell membrane in haemophilic patients, cholesterol crystals are formed by the lipids. On the other hand lipofuscin deposition does not occur in haemolysis or haemorrhage. Neutrophil accumulation suggests acute inflammation. Anthracotic pigment is an exogenous carbon pigment that deposits in the lung from dust. Russell bodies are intracellular accumulations of immunoglobins in plasma cells. Curschmann’s spirals and Charcot Leyden crystals are pathognomonic of asthma.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
-
-
Question 35
Incorrect
-
A 16-year-old female presents to the clinic with complaints of unilateral facial weakness, ipsilateral arm weakness, and slurring of speech. She also has a history of migraine and is currently using contraception. The physician makes a diagnosis of transient ischemic attack. Which method of contraception most likely contributed to her TIA?
Your Answer: Mirena coil
Correct Answer: Combined oral contraceptive pill
Explanation:The risk of ischemic stroke in patients using combined oral contraceptives is increased in patients with additional stroke risk factors, including smoking, hypertension, and migraine with aura.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Adolescent Health
-
-
Question 36
Incorrect
-
An infant, 5 weeks and 6 days old born with a large sub-aortic ventricular septal defect, is prepared for pulmonary artery banding through a left thoracotomy (the child is not fit for a surgical closure). The surgeon initially passes his index finger immediately behind two great arteries in the pericardial sac to mobilise the great arteries in order to pass the tape around the pulmonary artery. Into which space is the surgeon's finger inserted?
Your Answer: Cardiac notch
Correct Answer: Transverse pericardial sinus
Explanation:Cardiac notch: is an indentation on the left lung of the heart.
Coronary sinus: a venous sinus on the surface of the heart (the posterior aspect) that receives blood from the smaller veins that drain the heart.
Coronary sulcus: a groove on the heart between the atria and ventricles.
Transverse pericardial sinus: located behind the aorta and pulmonary trunk and anterior to the superior vena cava.
Oblique pericardial sinus: located behind the left atrium. Accessed from the inferior side (or the apex) of the heart upwards.
Horizontal pericardial sinus: this is a made-up term. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatric Surgery
-
-
Question 37
Correct
-
Which of the following findings is associated with genu valgus?
Your Answer: Out-toeing
Explanation:Gait variations in children are usually physiologically normal and only become a cause of concern when they persist or are associated with pain or other medical symptoms. Genu varus, also known as knock knees causes an outward rotation of the leg, leading the toes pointing outwards. The condition usually resolves by the age of 18 months. In comparison, in- toeing occurs with genu varus. Metatarsus adductus is also associated with an inward pointing of the toes.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
-
-
Question 38
Incorrect
-
Which of the following immune responses occurs in Coeliac disease?
Your Answer: None of the above
Correct Answer: Type IV hypersensitivity
Explanation:Celiac disease is classified as a Type IV hypersensitivity mediated by T-cell response. Negatively charged gliadin has been shown to induce interleukin 15 in the enteric epithelial cells, stimulating the proliferation of the natural killer cells and intraepithelial lymphocytes to express NK-G2D, a marker for natural killer T lymphocytes.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
-
-
Question 39
Incorrect
-
A 6-months-old boy develops QT interval prolongation. Which of the following is NOT a cause of QT prolongation in this boy?
Your Answer: Brugada syndrome
Correct Answer: Lown-Ganong-Levine syndrome
Explanation:Normal QT interval in a 6 months old baby is < 0.44 seconds. A duration exceeding this value is referred to as QT interval prolongation, which is associated with some important congenital syndromes that include Brugada syndrome which is characterized by vasovagal syncope and sudden cardiac death, Jervell and Lange-Nielsen syndrome which is associated with congenital deafness, Andersen syndrome which is marked by bone deformities, and Timothy syndrome with associated heart disease and immunodeficiency. Romano-Ward syndrome is the commonest cause of congenital QT prolongation with no associated extra-cardiac manifestations. Lown-Ganong-Levine syndrome is characterized by a shortened PR interval and a normal QRS duration.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
-
-
Question 40
Incorrect
-
A 15-year-old girl arrives at the hospital complaining of resting tremors in both arms. Ataxia and dysarthria are also observed along with occasional involuntary grimacing of the face. The patient is most likely suffering from which of the following?
Your Answer: Alzheimer’s disease
Correct Answer: Wilson’s disease
Explanation:Common neurological symptoms of Wilson disease that may appear and progress with time include tremor, involuntary movements, difficulty swallowing (dysphagia), difficulty speaking and poor articulation (dysarthria), lack of coordination, spasticity, dystonic postures, and muscle rigidity.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology And Neurodisability
-
-
Question 41
Incorrect
-
Which is true regarding the histopathology of psoriasis?
Your Answer: The stratum granulosum is thickened in patients with psoriasis
Correct Answer: Histological features seen in psoriasis include acanthosis and parakeratosis
Explanation:Histology of psoriasis is characterised by parakeratosis (cell nuclei within stratum corneum) and thickened projections of the prickle cell layer of keratinocytes (psoriasiform hyperplasia or acanthosis). Orthokeratosis refers to the formation of a pathological anuclear keratin layer in the skin.The stratum granulosum is actually thinned or absent in patients with psoriasis.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 42
Incorrect
-
A woman gives birth to a baby at 36 weeks of gestation through spontaneous, vaginal delivery. She had rupture of membranes 30 hours before birth, however looked healthy and did not receive antibiotics. On admission, doctors obtained a vaginal swab. Which of the following is the most appropriate management for the baby?
Your Answer: Perform an infection screen and treat with intravenous antibiotics if results suggestive of sepsis
Correct Answer: Perform an infection screen and treat with intravenous antibiotics for at least 48 hours pending results
Explanation:Doctors must perform an infection screen and treat with intravenous antibiotics for at least 48 hours pending results to prevent neonatal sepsis. Risk factors for neonatal sepsis include rupture of the membranes. Risk factors for neonatal sepsis include rupture of membranes greater than 12–24 hours, intrapartum maternal pyrexia (> 38°C), fetal tachycardia, chorioamnionitis, pre-term birth and maternal colonisation with group B Streptococcus. In this case there are two risk factors: prolonged rupture of membranes, and pre-term birth.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
-
-
Question 43
Incorrect
-
A 6 year old child presents with a history of recurrent, intense nausea and vomiting. His mum reveals he hasn’t passed urine the whole day. Upon inspection, he looks lethargic and his eyes are sunken. What would be the most appropriate management?
Your Answer: IV maintenance fluids
Correct Answer: IV fluid bolus then IV maintenance fluids
Explanation:The clinical picture suggests that the child is severely dehydrated. IV fluid bolus then IV maintenance fluids is the correct option.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
-
-
Question 44
Incorrect
-
During the fetal stage, the mesonephric tubules gives rise to the?
Your Answer: Seminiferous tubules
Correct Answer: Wolffian duct
Explanation:The development of the kidney proceeds through a series of successive phases, each marked by the development of a more advanced kidney: the pronephros, mesonephros, and metanephros. The development of the pronephric duct proceeds in a cranial-to-caudal direction. As it elongates caudally, the pronephric duct induces nearby intermediate mesoderm in the thoracolumbar area to become epithelial tubules called mesonephric tubules. Each mesonephric tubule receives a blood supply from a branch of the aorta, ending in a capillary tuft analogous to the glomerulus of the definitive nephron. The mesonephric tubule forms a capsule around the capillary tuft, allowing for filtration of blood. This filtrate flows through the mesonephric tubule and is drained into the continuation of the pronephric duct, now called the mesonephric duct or Wolffian duct. The nephrotomes of the pronephros degenerate while the mesonephric duct extends towards the most caudal end of the embryo, ultimately attaching to the cloaca.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Embryology
-
-
Question 45
Correct
-
A 16 year old girl presents with excess hair and amenorrhoea. She is normotensive. Her prolactin levels are normal. She has a raised 17 α-hydroxyprogesterone level.What is her diagnosis?
Your Answer: Partial 21-hydroxylase deficiency
Explanation:Deficiency of 21-hydroxylase, resulting from mutations or deletions of CYP21A, is the most common form of Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia, accounting for more than 90% of cases.Females with mild 21-hydroxylase deficiency are identified later in childhood because of precocious pubic hair, clitoromegaly, or both, often accompanied by accelerated growth and skeletal maturation (simple virilizing adrenal hyperplasia)Diagnosis of 21-hydroxylase deficiency: High serum concentration of 17-hydroxyprogesterone (usually >1000 ng/dL) and urinary pregnanetriol (metabolite of 17-hydroxyprogesterone) in the presence of clinical features suggestive of the disease| 24-hour urinary 17-ketosteroid levels are elevated
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
-
-
Question 46
Correct
-
A 1 year old baby is taken to the A&E with colicky abdominal pain and an ileo-ileal intussusception is found on investigation. What is the most appropriate course of action?
Your Answer: Undertake a laparotomy
Explanation:Answer: Undertake a laparotomyIntussusception, which is defined as the telescoping or invagination of a proximal portion of intestine (intussusceptum) into a more distal portion (intussuscipiens), is one of the most common causes of bowel obstruction in infants and toddlers.Intussusception may be ileoileal, colocolic, ileoileocolic, or ileocolic (the most common type).Most infants with intussusception have a history of intermittent severe cramping or colicky abdominal pain, occurring every 5-30 minutes. During these attacks, the infant screams and flexes at the waist, draws the legs up to the abdomen, and may appear pale. These episodes may last for only a few seconds and are separated by periods of calm normal appearance and activity. However, some infants become quite lethargic and somnolent between attacks.Infants with intussusception require surgical correction. Prompt laparotomy following diagnosis is crucial for achieving better outcomes. Primary anastomosis can be performed successfully, and stomas can be created in the critically ill patients or those with late detection and septicaemia.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatric Surgery
-
-
Question 47
Incorrect
-
A 19-year-old boy presents to his family physician complaining of a 'flu-like illness.' He has been fasting for the last 48hours. On examination, besides mild jaundice, everything else seems to be normal. Labs reveal an elevated serum bilirubin level (60 ?mol/l), but the other liver function tests are normal. CBC, U&E, and haptoglobins are normal. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Cholecystitis
Correct Answer: Gilbert’s disease
Explanation:People with Gilbert syndrome have a build-up of unconjugated bilirubin in their blood (unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia). In affected individuals, bilirubin levels fluctuate and very rarely increase to levels that cause jaundice. Gilbert syndrome is usually recognized in adolescence. If people with this condition have episodes of hyperbilirubinemia, these episodes are generally mild and typically occur when the body is under stress, for instance because of dehydration, prolonged periods without food (fasting), illness, vigorous exercise, or menstruation. Some people with Gilbert syndrome also experience abdominal discomfort or tiredness. However, approximately 30 percent of people with Gilbert syndrome have no signs or symptoms of the condition and are discovered only when routine blood tests reveal elevated unconjugated bilirubin levels.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
-
-
Question 48
Incorrect
-
A 6 year old male presented in the OPD with the complaint of nasal bleeding which started 3 days before. Now on examination, there is no bleeding and only slight redness of the anterior mucosa is present. Which of the following steps is the most suitable now?
Your Answer: Cautery
Correct Answer: Reassurance
Explanation:Epistaxis is common in younger children usually due to nose picking. After the episode is over no active management is required and reassurance should be given to the patient and his attendants.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
-
-
Question 49
Correct
-
Children with eczema herpeticum exhibit which of the following features?
Your Answer: Atopic children have reduced immunity to the herpes simplex virus
Explanation:Eczema herpeticum is a form of Kaposi varicelliform eruption, characterized by extensive vesicular skin eruptions that arise from a pre-existing skin condition, usually atopic dermatitis. The most common pathogen is the herpes simplex virus type 1, which has a higher propensity of attacking the epidermis already damaged by atopic dermatitis. The incubation period of the illness is 5-14 days. The eruption is initially small, monomorphic, dome-shaped papulovesicles that rupture to form tiny punched-out ulcers. It is diagnosed by taking viral swabs for culture.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 50
Incorrect
-
Which of the following statements is correct for distal renal tubular acidosis?
Your Answer: Most patients manifest this dysfunction as part of Fanconi’s syndrome
Correct Answer: Children can present with nephrocalcinosis
Explanation:Distal renal tubular acidosis (dRTA) is characterised by a decreased hydrogen ion excretion from the alpha intercalated cells of the collecting duct of the distal nephron. The resultant acidosis causes Ca and phosphates to be released from bones to buffer the acidosis causing hypercalciuria, thus precipitating calcium compounds in the kidney. Other consequences of the dRTA in children include rickets, hypokalaemia, and polyuria. While dRTA can occur as a result of various pathologies including autoimmune disease, proximal renal tubular acidosis often presents as part of Fanconi’s syndrome. One way to differentiate between the two conditions is with an acid challenge test. In proximal RTA offering the child an acid load will decrease the urinary ph whereas in distal disease the pH will be unaffected due to impairment in hydrogen ion secretion.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephro-urology
-
-
Question 51
Incorrect
-
A 6 year old boy presents with severe gastroenteritis and dehydration. He is receiving IV fluids and a routine blood test is done to evaluate kidney function and look for signs of acute kidney injury. All of the following are being used to evaluate for kidney injury, except:
Your Answer: Rise in creatinine of >25micromol/l in 48 hours
Correct Answer: Potassium >6mmol/l
Explanation:Hyperkalaemia is not to evaluate or detect AKI but rather the result of it. If one of the rest of the options is present, then AKI would be suspected.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephro-urology
-
-
Question 52
Incorrect
-
A 12 year old boy presents with a sharp pain on the left side of his lower back. His parents both have a similar history of the condition. His urine tests positive for blood. A radio dense stone is seen in the region of the mid ureter when a KUB style x-ray is done. Which of the following is most likely the composition of the stone?
Your Answer: Calcium oxalate stone
Correct Answer: Cystine stone
Explanation:Answer: Cystine stoneCystinuria is a genetic cause of kidney stones with an average prevalence of 1 in 7000 births. Cystine stones are found in 1 to 2 percent of stone formers, although they represent a higher percentage of stones in children (approximately 5 percent). Cystinuria is an inherited disorder. Inherited means it is passed down from parents to children through a defect in a specific gene. In order to have cystinuria, a person must inherit the gene from both parents. Cystine is a homodimer of the amino acid cysteine. Patients with cystinuria have impairment of renal cystine transport, with decreased proximal tubular reabsorption of filtered cystine resulting in increased urinary cystine excretion and cystine nephrolithiasis. The cystine transporter also promotes the reabsorption of dibasic amino acids, including ornithine, arginine, and lysine, but these compounds are soluble so that an increase in their urinary excretion does not lead to stones. Intestinal cystine transport is also diminished, but the result is of uncertain clinical significance.Cystinuria only causes symptoms if you have a stone. Kidney stones can be as small as a grain of sand. Others can become as large as a pebble or even a golf ball. Symptoms may include:Pain while urinatingBlood in the urineSharp pain in the side or the back (almost always on one side)Pain near the groin, pelvis, or abdomenNausea and vomitingStruvite stones are a type of hard mineral deposit that can form in your kidneys. Stones form when minerals like calcium and phosphate crystallize inside your kidneys and stick together. Struvite is a mineral that’s produced by bacteria in your urinary tract. Bacteria in your urinary tract produce struvite when they break down the waste product urea into ammonia. For struvite to be produced, your urine needs to be alkaline. Having a urinary tract infection can make your urine alkaline. Struvite stones often form in women who have a urinary tract infection.Calcium oxalate stones are the most common type of kidney stone. Kidney stones are solid masses that form in the kidney when there are high levels of calcium, oxalate, cystine, or phosphate and too little liquid. There are different types of kidney stones. Your healthcare provider can test your stones to find what type you have. Calcium oxalate stones are caused by too much oxalate in the urine.What is oxalate and how does it form stones?Oxalate is a natural substance found in many foods. Your body uses food for energy. After your body uses what it needs, waste products travel through the bloodstream to the kidneys and are removed through urine. Urine has various wastes in it. If there is too much waste in too little liquid, crystals can begin to form. These crystals may stick together and form a solid mass (a kidney stone). Oxalate is one type of substance that can form crystals in the urine. This can happen if there is too much oxalate, too little liquid, and the oxalate “sticks” to calcium while urine is being made by the kidneys.Uric acid stones are the most common cause of radiolucent kidney stones in children. Several products of purine metabolism are relatively insoluble and can precipitate when urinary pH is low. These include 2- or 8-dihydroxyadenine, adenine, xanthine, and uric acid. The crystals of uric acid may initiate calcium oxalate precipitation in metastable urine concentrates.Uric acid stones form when the levels of uric acid in the urine is too high, and/or the urine is too acidic (pH level below 5.5) on a regular basis. High acidity in urine is linked to the following causes:Uric acid can result from a diet high in purines, which are found especially in animal proteins such as beef, poultry, pork, eggs, and fish. The highest levels of purines are found in organ meats, such as liver and fish. Eating large amounts of animal proteins can cause uric acid to build up in the urine. The uric acid can settle and form a stone by itself or in combination with calcium. It is important to note that a person’s diet alone is not the cause of uric acid stones. Other people might eat the same diet and not have any problems because they are not prone to developing uric acid stones.There is an increased risk of uric acid stones in those who are obese or diabetic.Patients on chemotherapy are prone to developing uric acid stones.Only cystine stone is inherited.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Genitourinary
-
-
Question 53
Incorrect
-
Which of the given statements is characteristic of meningomyeloceles?
Your Answer: It is associated with microcephaly
Correct Answer: A cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leak is common
Explanation:Myelomeningocele is the most common type of open neural tube defect and a serious central nervous system disorder associated with significant morbidity. It is also called open spina bifida since the dura, and arachnoid matter herniates through the defect in the vertebral column. The commonest association is the decreased folate levels during early pregnancy. The alpha-fetoprotein levels are raised in the amniotic fluid. CSF leak is a common presentation with associated macrocephaly and hydrocephaly. Prenatal surgical repair is linked to a better prognosis.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology And Neurodisability
-
-
Question 54
Incorrect
-
A clinical trial is conducted to study the benefits of a new oral medication to improve the symptoms of patients with asthma. In the trial 400 patients with asthma, half were given the new medication and half a placebo. Three months later they are asked to rate their symptoms using the following scale: much improved, slight improvement, no change, slight worsening, significantly worse. What is the most appropriate statistical test to see whether the new medication is beneficial?
Your Answer: Chi-squared test
Correct Answer: Mann-Whitney U test
Explanation:The type of significance test used depends on whether the data is parametric (can be measured, usually normally distributed) or non-parametric.
Parametric tests:
Student’s t-test – paired or unpaired*
Pearson’s product-moment coefficient – correlationNon-parametric tests:
Mann-Whitney U test – unpaired data
Wilcoxon signed-rank test – compares two sets of observations on a single sample
chi-squared test – used to compare proportions or percentages
Spearman, Kendall rank – correlation.The outcome measured is not normally distributed, i.e. it is non-parametric. This excludes the Student’s t-tests. We are not comparing percentages/proportions so the chi-squared test is excluded. The Mann–Whitney U test is a nonparametric test of the null hypothesis that it is equally likely that a randomly selected value from one sample will be less than or greater than a randomly selected value from a second sample.
This test can be used to investigate whether two independent samples were selected from populations having the same distribution. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology And Statistics
-
-
Question 55
Incorrect
-
Regarding crossover trials, which of the following statements is true?
Your Answer: Should be used in preference to parallel trials
Correct Answer: Are best for assessing the efficacy of different treatments in giving short-term relief of chronic conditions
Explanation:Crossover trials are characterized by the switching of study participants throughout the treatment groups, keeping a random order of switching. This randomization is important to determine any carry-over effect of different treatment modalities. The benefit of this study is the evaluation of the efficacy of various short-term treatment options for the relief of chronic conditions. The washout period is small in this type of study. Crossover studies are more efficient than the parallel studies, but they should be used according to the treatment options and outcomes.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology And Statistics
-
-
Question 56
Incorrect
-
Which of the following signs suggests an absence seizure instead of a partial complex seizure?
Your Answer: Postictal confusion
Correct Answer: Induction by hyperventilation
Explanation:Absence seizures are induced by over breathing or hyperventilation, while the other features suggest partial seizures.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
-
-
Question 57
Correct
-
A family of five members presents to the genetics clinic for further evaluation. The father, one boy and one girl present with a short stature, large heads, short digits, and trident hands. Genetic evaluation reveals they are all heterozygotes for a specific mutation. The rest of the family, the mother and the other daughter, do not carry this mutation. What is the pattern of inheritance?
Your Answer: Autosomal dominant with complete penetrance
Explanation:In this case, the affected individuals are all heterozygotes. Therefore, the mutation is autosomal dominant. Also, the mother does not carry the mutation, further confirming the autosomal dominant nature of the disease, which is most probably achondroplasia.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics And Dysmorphology
-
-
Question 58
Incorrect
-
An 11-year-old boy is undergoing a wedge excision of his great toenail. As the surgeon passes a needle into the area to administer a local anaesthetic, the patient experiences a sharp pain.Which of the following pathways conveys pain sensations to the central nervous system?
Your Answer: Posterior spinocerebellar tract
Correct Answer: Spinothalamic tract
Explanation:The lateral spinothalamic tracts carry pain and temperature sensations from the peripheries to the central nervous system.Note:The spinothalamic tract transmits impulses from receptors which measure crude touch, pain and temperature. The spinothalamic tract comprises the lateral and anterior spinothalamic tracts.The former typically transmits pain and temperature while the latter transmits crude touch and pressure. Neurones transmitting these signals will usually ascend by one or two vertebral levels in the Lissauer tract before decussating in the spinal cord itself. Neurones then pass rostrally in the cord to connect at the thalamus.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology And Neurodisability
-
-
Question 59
Incorrect
-
A 1-day-old baby started having pallor and jaundice. The mother's first child did not have jaundice at birth. On clinical investigations, direct Coombs test is positive. Mother's blood group is A negative. Baby's blood group is O positive. What is the most probable cause of the condition of this new-born?
Your Answer: Formula feed
Correct Answer: Rhesus incompatibility
Explanation:Jaundice in a new-born on the day of delivery is most likely due to Rh incompatibility. This occurs when the mother is Rh-negative and the baby is Rh-positive. Antibodies in the mother against the Rh factor in the baby will destroy the red blood cells in the baby, increasing the bilirubin in the blood. Breast milk jaundice and Galactosemia do not occur immediately after birth, and congenital rubella syndrome and formula feeding does not cause jaundice in babies.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
-
-
Question 60
Incorrect
-
A term baby with a birth weight of 3.6 kg with hypoxic ischaemic encephalopathy is intubated and ventilated. Cooling treatment has started. The baby is sedated and paralysed and is being ventilated on the mode continuous mandatory ventilation (CMV). Settings are: targeted tidal volume 14 ml, maximum PIP 25, PEEP 5, rate 60/min, FiO2 0.21. Baby’s oxygen saturations are 100%. Blood gas shows pH 7.47, CO2 2.8 kPa, BE –6.What is the first change that should be made to the ventilation?
Your Answer: Increase targeted tidal volume
Correct Answer: Decrease rate
Explanation:Ventilatory rates of 40-60 breaths/min should be provided initially, with proportionally fewer assisted breaths provided if the infant’s spontaneous respiratory efforts increase. Although this practice has not been extensively studied, initial inflation of the new-born’s lungs with either slow-rise or square-wave inflation to a pressure of 30-40 cm H2 O for approximately 5 seconds has been reported to result in more rapid formation of Functional Residual Capacity (FRC).At the moment of delivery and first breath, the neonatal lung is converting from a fetal non-aerated status to a neonatal status. The neonatal lung requires gas exchange, and this necessitates the development of FRC with the resorption of lung fluid and the resolution of most of the atelectasis. Therefore, initial slow ventilation with more prolonged inspiratory times may be useful to assist in this task, balanced against the need to avoid inappropriate inspiratory pressures.Flow-controlled, pressure-limited mechanical devices are acceptable for delivering PPV. These mechanical devices control flow and limit pressure and be more consistent than bags. Self-inflating and flow-inflating bags remain a standard of care. Laryngeal mask airways are effective for assisted ventilation when bag-mask ventilation and intubation are unsuccessful.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
-
-
Question 61
Incorrect
-
A 16-month-old girl with eczema is on the following treatment regimen: Oilatum in baths| Baby' shampoo and soap and E45 cream to affected areas four times daily. Additionally, the mother uses 'non-biological' washing powder.The child often scratches the affected areas, sometimes even in her sleep. On examination, her skin is erythematous, excoriated, and lichenified over the knees, thighs, and flexor surfaces of the elbows.Which of the following would be the most appropriate next step in the management of this child?
Your Answer: Use emollient wet wraps at night for 1 week then continue current treatment
Correct Answer: Use E45 cream instead of soap| advise using a greasier emollient and try an antihistamine at night
Explanation:The most appropriate next step in the management of this patient would be to use E45 cream instead of soap. Using a greasier emollient and an antihistamine at night can also be trialled..Management of eczema:Treatment of eczema can be problematic, and thus, parents should be advised regarding simple, everyday measures that can relieve the symptoms. These include:- Using non-biological washing powder- Wearing cotton clothes as opposed to artificial fibres- Avoiding the use of soaps or shampoos and using E45 Cream as an alternative.- Additional use of bath oil (e.g. Oilatum) is found to be beneficial.- Regular emollient use is recommended and essential. The aim is to keep the skin from feeling dry at any time of day. Sedating with older types of antihistamines at night does not help to reduce itching, but when used in large doses, they occasionally provide a sedative effect which may improve sleep. If all these measures are in use, but the eczema is still not controlled, the escalation of treatment would be appropriate. Note: There is no evidence for the benefit of topical antibiotics.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 62
Incorrect
-
Which of the following organs is an ectoderm derivative?
Your Answer: Gonads
Correct Answer: Adrenal medulla
Explanation:Ectoderm derivatives include the adrenal medulla, posterior pituitary, the epidermis of the skin, nails, hair, sweat glands, mammary glands, sebaceous glands, the central nervous system, the peripheral nervous system, the retina and lens of eye, the pupillary muscle of the iris, melanocytes, Schwann cells and odontoblasts.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Embryology
-
-
Question 63
Incorrect
-
A 17-year-old presents to the physician with 2-week history of fever, chest pan, generalized stiffness, swollen wrists and fingers and lower extremity oedema bilaterally. There is a facial rash over her cheeks and palms. She complains that while combing her hair, she has started to notice hair loss. Based on these clinical findings, which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Autoimmune haemolytic anaemia
Correct Answer: Low serum complement levels
Explanation:Complement activation plays a key role in the pathophysiology of SLE and it is recommended to continue monitoring serum levels of C3 and C4 to assess for disease activity. However, it is important to note that decreased serum complement is not consistently associated with disease flares.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
-
-
Question 64
Incorrect
-
A 9-year-old child presents with fever, hypertension and haematuria, two weeks after an episode of infective diarrhoea.Which of the following is a possible diagnosis?
Your Answer: Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis
Correct Answer: Haemolytic uraemic syndrome
Explanation:Haemolytic-uremic syndrome (HUS) is a clinical syndrome characterized by progressive renal failure that is associated with microangiopathic (nonimmune, Coombs-negative) haemolytic anaemia and thrombocytopenia. HUS is the most common cause of acute kidney injury in children. It predominantly occurs in infants and children after prodromal diarrhoea. In summer epidemics, the disease may be related to infectious causes.Bacterial infections may include the following:S dysenteriaeE ColiSalmonella typhiCampylobacter jejuniYersinia pseudotuberculosisNeisseria meningitidisS pneumoniaLegionella pneumophilaMycoplasma speciesRickettsial infections may include Rocky Mountain spotted fever and microtatobiotesViral infections may include the following:Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)CoxsackievirusEchovirusInfluenza virusEpstein-Barr virusHerpes simplex virusFungal infections can include Aspergillus fumigatus.Vaccinations may include the following:Influenza triple-antigen vaccineTyphoid-paratyphoid A and B (TAB) vaccinePolio vaccinePregnancy-associated HUS occasionally develops as a complication of preeclampsia. Patients may progress to full-blown haemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, and low platelets (HELLP) syndrome. Postpartum HUS usually occurs within 3 months of delivery. The prognosis is poor, with a 50-60% mortality rate, and residual renal dysfunction and hypertension occur in most patients.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephro-urology
-
-
Question 65
Incorrect
-
A 15 year old girl is diagnosed with familial adenomatous polyposis. Which of the following is the most appropriate recommended step in management?
Your Answer: Surveillance colonoscopy every 1–2 years from the age of 16 years onwards
Correct Answer: Surveillance annual flexible sigmoidoscopy from age 13 years until age 30 years
Explanation:Answer: Surveillance annual flexible sigmoidoscopy from age 13 years until age 30 years. Familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP) is the most common adenomatous polyposis syndrome. It is an autosomal dominant inherited disorder characterized by the early onset of hundreds to thousands of adenomatous polyps throughout the colon. If left untreated, all patients with this syndrome will develop colon cancer by age 35-40 years. In addition, an increased risk exists for the development of other malignancies.Most patients with FAP are asymptomatic until they develop cancer. As a result, diagnosing presymptomatic patients is essential.Of patients with FAP, 75%-80% have a family history of polyps and/or colorectal cancer at age 40 years or younger.Nonspecific symptoms, such as unexplained rectal bleeding (haematochezia), diarrhoea, or abdominal pain, in young patients may be suggestive of FAP.In a minority of FAP families a mutation cannot be identified and so annual flexible sigmoidoscopy should be offered to at risk family members from age 13–15 years until age 30, and at three to five year intervals thereafter until age 60 years.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
-
-
Question 66
Correct
-
A 12-year-old boy presents with increasing unsteadiness on his feet. He also complains that he is unable to see the board at school. His mother notices that he sleeps with his light on these days and stumbles a lot in low light. Which of the following symptoms would suggest that the boy has a peroxisomal disorder?
Your Answer: Anosmia, hearing problems and itchy skin
Explanation:From the given clinical scenario, the peroxisomal disorder in question is Refsum’s disease.It is characterised by anosmia, early-onset retinitis pigmentosa (night blindness), chronic ataxia, variable neuropathy, deafness and ichthyosis. It is an inherited disorder of fatty acid oxidation with phytanic acid accumulation in the blood and tissues. This leads to the motor and sensory neuropathy. Other options:- Loss of sensation in extremities, dysarthria and diabetes is suggestive of Friedrich’s Ataxia. It is the most common autosomal recessive cause of ataxia. Associated features include dysarthria, scoliosis, diabetes and hypertrophic cardiomyopathy. – Numbness of the limbs, seizures and developmental delay suggests mitochondrial cytopathy such as NARP (Neuropathy, Ataxia and Retinitis Pigmentosa). Learning difficulties, developmental delays and convulsions are not uncommon, as with many mitochondrial disorders. – Rapid, chaotic eye movements, behaviour change and irritability, suggest opsoclonus-myoclonus syndrome. It is thought to be a Para infectious or paraneoplastic condition (secondary to neuroblastoma) linked to an abnormal immune response. Children present unwell with altered behaviour, irritability, ataxia, random chaotic eye movements and later myoclonus. – Sweet-smelling urine, lethargy and seizures suggest Maple Syrup Urine Disease (MSUD). It is an autosomal recessive organic acidaemia. There is a distinct sweet odour to the urine of affected individuals, particularly at times of acute illness. Without treatment, MSUD can lead to seizures, brain damage, coma and death. The most common and classic form affects babies shortly after birth, but variant forms may not be evident until later childhood.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Child Development
-
-
Question 67
Incorrect
-
What percentage of infants born with meconium Ileus have cystic fibrosis?
Your Answer: 60-90%
Correct Answer: >90%
Explanation:90% of patients with meconium ileus have cystic fibrosis (CF). Indeed, in 10 – 15% of cases of CF, the patient presents with meconium ileus.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatric Surgery
-
-
Question 68
Incorrect
-
Which of the following does not occur in a 15-year-old girl who presents following amitriptyline overdose?
Your Answer: Elevated body temperature
Correct Answer: Pin point pupils
Explanation:Pupils are dilated in patients with amitriptyline overdose.Tricyclic antidepressants have a narrow therapeutic index, and thus, small doses can be fatal in children. Deaths from tricyclics are more common than other antidepressants. Bimodal incidence with toddlers (accidental) and teenagers (deliberate) most commonly affected.Symptoms: They occur within 6 hours of ingestion.- Nausea, vomiting, and headache- Elevated body temperature- Agitation, sleepiness, confusion, coma- Dry mouth, blurred vision, urinary retention (anticholinergic)- Dilated pupils- Seizures- Hypotension, tachycardia, conduction disorders, and cardiac arrest- Respiratory depressionManagement:Treatment focuses on supportive care. This includes airway protection, ventilation and oxygenation, intravenous fluids, and cardiac monitoring.Other measures include:- Activated charcoal within 2 hours- Hypotension is treated with IV fluids and adrenaline- Cardiac monitoring- Sodium bicarbonate in acidosis or if there are wide QRS complex (> 100 ms)- Convulsions may require diazepam or lorazepam.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
-
-
Question 69
Incorrect
-
A 16 year old previously well male presents with a 4 day history of fever, lethargy and a generalized macular rash. There is no significant previous medical history and the patient has not travelled abroad either. Vitals are as follows: Temp: 38.5BP: 125/75mmHgPulse: 100/min On auscultation the chest was clear and no heart murmur was heard. Examination also reveals a non blanching widespread macular rash over the chest and abdomen. There is swelling of interphalangeal joints of both hands and feet associated with mild tenderness. Lymph nodes are palpable over the supraclavicular, axillary and inguinal areas. Abdominal examination reveals palpable mass on both right and left hypochondrium. Lab results are given below:Haemoglobin (Hb) 13.5 g/dlWhite cell count (WCC) 14.0 × 109/lPlatelets 380 × 109/lSodium 145 mmol/lPotassium 4.8 mmol/lCreatinine 89 μmol/lRheumatoid factor NegativeAntinuclear antibody NegativeAnti-dsDNA NegativeASO titre Not detectedElectrocardiogram (ECG) Sinus rhythmWhat is the most likely underlying diagnosis?
Your Answer: Reiter’s syndrome
Correct Answer: Systemic Still’s disease
Explanation:People with Systemic Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis (also known as Stills disease) can have recurrent fevers, a macular rash, joint pain, joint deformities, an enlarged liver and/or spleen, and can occasionally have polyserositis, lung involvement or pericardial effusions. Rheumatoid factor and antinuclear antibodies are usually negative. Treatment is with non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) and the prognosis is better than for adult rheumatoid arthritis.In pauciarticular Still’s disease, antinuclear antibodies are present. Large joints are affected and most patients develop classic features of seronegative spondylarthritis.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
-
-
Question 70
Incorrect
-
A 15-year-old boy is brought to the clinic with recurrent episodes of diarrhoea and loose stools. He looks shorter than his age and does not seem to have undergone a growth spurt. After a series of investigations, he is diagnosed with Crohn's disease. Which of the following treatment strategies should initially be employed?
Your Answer: Mesalazine
Correct Answer: Elemental diet for 6 weeks
Explanation:The elemental diet is a medically supervised, sole nutrition dietary management given to individuals with moderate to severe impaired gastrointestinal function for 14-21 days.The diet consists of macronutrients broken down into their elemental form requiring little to no digestive functionality allowing time for the gut to rest. Elemental formulations are believed to be entirely absorbed within the first few feet of small intestine.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
-
-
Question 71
Incorrect
-
Which of the following findings is not commonly associated with Marfan's syndrome?
Your Answer: Pes planus
Correct Answer: Hypoplastic dental enamel
Explanation:Marfan syndrome (MFS) is a spectrum of disorders caused by a heritable genetic defect of connective tissue that has an autosomal dominant mode of transmission. The defect itself has been isolated to the FBN1 gene on chromosome 15, which codes for the connective tissue protein fibrillin. Abnormalities in this protein cause a myriad of distinct clinical problems, of which the musculoskeletal, cardiac, and ocular system problems predominate.The most severe of these clinical problems include aortic root dilatation and dissection, which have historically been the causative factors in early patient demise. Skeletal deformities such as thoracolumbar scoliosis, thoracic lordosis, and pectus excavatum, may lead to pulmonary difficulties that include restrictive airway disease and cor pulmonale if the deformities are progressive and untreated. Finally, blindness may result from unrecognized and untreated glaucoma, retinal detachment, and cataracts.The skeleton of patients with MFS typically displays multiple deformities including arachnodactyly (i.e., abnormally long and thin digits), dolichostenomelia (i.e., long limbs relative to trunk length), pectus deformities (i.e., pectus excavatum and pectus carinatum), and thoracolumbar scoliosis. In the cardiovascular system, aortic dilatation, aortic regurgitation, and aneurysms are the most worrisome clinical findings. Mitral valve prolapse that requires valve replacement can occur as well. Ocular findings include myopia, cataracts, retinal detachment, and superior dislocation of the lens.Other features:General tall staturePectus excavatum or carinatumDisproportionately long, slender armsDisproportionately long digitsArachnodactylyFinger contracturesReduced extension of elbows (< 170 degrees)Protrusio acetabuli (intrapelvic displacement of the acetabulum)Pes planus (flat feet)HypermobilityArthralgiaJoint instabilityScoliosisKyphosisDolichocephalia (elongated face)High arched palateDental crowdingDental malocclusion
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
-
-
Question 72
Incorrect
-
Which one of the following factors is the most likely etiological factor for abnormally short stature amongst children?
Your Answer: Maternal deprivation
Correct Answer: Familial short stature
Explanation:Familial/inherited short stature is the most likely and commonest factor resulting in short stature among the children. Klinefelter syndrome is characterised by tall stature, widely spaces nipples and infertility. Other factors include congenital heart disease, maternal deprivation and diabetes mellitus but these are the rare causes.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics And Dysmorphology
-
-
Question 73
Incorrect
-
A 15-year-old girl has been diagnosed with Chlamydia. She is sexually active with a boy her age. Which of the following advice should be given to her?
Your Answer: They both need immediate treatment and re-treatment in 2 weeks. A test of cure is needed for both partners.
Correct Answer: They both need immediate treatment without further testing. A test of cure is not necessary.
Explanation:Treating persons infected with C. trachomatis prevents adverse reproductive health complications and continued sexual transmission, and treating their sex partners can prevent reinfection and infection of other partners. Treating pregnant women usually prevents transmission of C. trachomatis to neonates during birth. Chlamydia treatment should be provided promptly for all persons testing positive for infection. Treatment delays have been associated with complications (e.g. PID) in a limited proportion of women. To minimise disease transmission to sex partners, persons treated for chlamydia should be instructed to abstain from sexual intercourse for 7 days after single-dose therapy or until completion of a 7-day regimen and resolution of symptoms if present. To minimise risk for reinfection, patients also should be instructed to abstain from sexual intercourse until all of their sex partners are treated. Persons who receive a diagnosis of chlamydia should be tested for HIV, GC, and syphilis.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Adolescent Health
-
-
Question 74
Correct
-
Regarding neonatal meningitis, which of the following statements is true?
Your Answer: Has an above average incidence in babies with a meningomyelocele
Explanation:The commonest time for bacterial meningitis is in the 1st month of life and group B Streptococcus is the commonest organism. The anterior fontanelle is full, but does not bulge with normal flexion. Neurological manifestations include seizures, irritability, poor tone, lethargy and tremors, however no findings of sensorineural deafness have been noted. One of the risk factors for introduction of meningeal infection is Meningomyelocele.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
-
-
Question 75
Incorrect
-
A 14 year old boy is taken to the emergency room after complaining of sudden onset of pain in the left hemiscrotum despite not having any other urinary symptoms. The superior pole of the testis is tender on examination and the cremasteric reflex is particularly marked. What would be the underlying diagnosis?
Your Answer: Testicular malignancy
Correct Answer: Torsion of a testicular hydatid
Explanation:Answer: Torsion of a testicular hydatidThe appendix testis (or hydatid of Morgagni) is a vestigial remnant of the Müllerian duct, present on the upper pole of the testis and attached to the tunica vaginalis. It is present about 90% of the time. The appendix of testis can, occasionally, undergo torsion (i.e. become twisted), causing acute one-sided testicular pain and may require surgical excision to achieve relief. One third of patients present with a palpable blue dot discoloration on the scrotum. This is nearly diagnostic of this condition. If clinical suspicion is high for the serious differential diagnosis of testicular torsion, a surgical exploration of the scrotum is warranted. Torsion of the appendix of testis occurs at ages 0-15 years, with a mean at 10 years, which is similar to that of testicular torsion.Occasionally a torsion of the hydatid of Morgagni can produce symptoms mimicking those created by a testicular torsion| a torsion of the hydatid, however, does not lead to any impairment of testicular function.Absence of the cremasteric reflex is a sign of testicular torsion. This therefore confirms that the diagnosis is Torsion of a testicular hydatid.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Genitourinary
-
-
Question 76
Incorrect
-
A randomised controlled trial of a new treatment for hypertension yields a P-value of 0.00036.Which one of the following gives the best interpretation of this information?
Your Answer: The new treatment is good for hypertension
Correct Answer: To understand the clinical importance of the treatment we should also consider the confidence interval for the difference
Explanation:The level of statistical significance is often expressed as a p-value between 0 and 1. The smaller the p-value, the stronger the evidence that you should reject the null hypothesis.A p-value less than 0.05 (typically ≤ 0.05) is statistically significant. It indicates strong evidence against the null hypothesis, as there is less than a 5% probability the null is correct (and the results are random). Therefore, we reject the null hypothesis, and accept the alternative hypothesis.However, this does not mean that there is a 95% probability that the research hypothesis is true. The p-value is conditional upon the null hypothesis being true is unrelated to the truth or falsity of the research hypothesis.A lower p-value is sometimes interpreted as meaning there is a stronger relationship between two variables. However, statistical significance means that it is unlikely that the null hypothesis is true (less than 5%).To understand the strength of the difference between two groups (control vs. experimental) a researcher needs to calculate the effect size.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology And Statistics
-
-
Question 77
Incorrect
-
A 5-year-old girl was admitted for fever, anaemia, thrombocytopenia and signs of pulmonary infection. She now presents a few days later with signs of meningism. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Acute Myeloid Leukaemia (AML)
Correct Answer: Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL)
Explanation:Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL) is a cancer of the lymphoid line of blood cells characterized by the development of large numbers of immature lymphocytes. Symptoms may include feeling tired, frequent infections with fever as well as anaemia with thrombocytopenia. As an acute leukaemia, ALL progresses rapidly and is typically fatal within weeks or months if left untreated. The patient’s age also favours the diagnosis of ALL as it occurs most commonly in children, particularly those between the ages of two and five.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
-
-
Question 78
Incorrect
-
When sampling patients for a clinical trial the most important thing is that:
Your Answer: The most seriously ill patients are selected
Correct Answer: They are a random and representative sample
Explanation:The selection process is based on five requirements and essentially aims to select a random representative cohort through:1.Isolating a group for which there is a greater or lesser chance of detecting a possible difference between the treatments compared|2.Establishing a homogeneous group in order to reduce the variability of response, thus making statistical comparison more sensitive and decreasing the risk of bias due to the constitution of non-homogeneous groups|3.Obtaining representative samples of the affection studied|4.Defining the rules corresponding to realistic recruitment|5.Respecting ethical obligations.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology And Statistics
-
-
Question 79
Correct
-
A 10-year-old girl with type-1 diabetes mellitus presents with vomiting and rapid breathing. A diagnosis of acute diabetic ketoacidosis was made. Which of the following regarding management is incorrect?
Your Answer: Bolus of insulin recommended
Explanation:The following methods are adopted for the treatment of DKA:
– Fluids: Bolus of 10 ml/kg of normal saline. Stop at three boluses to avoid precipitating cerebral oedema. The remaining deficit has to be corrected over 48 hours. Strict input/output, U&E, and pH monitoring is necessary in such patients.
– Insulin: Insulin infusion can be initiated at 0.05-0.1 unit/kg/hour. It is essential to monitor blood glucose closely, and the aim is to decrease by 2 mmol/hour.
– Potassium: Initially, it will be high, but following insulin administration, the levels drop quickly as K+ enters cells with glucose, and thus, replacement is almost always necessary.
– Acidosis: Bicarbonate is avoided unless pH is less than 7. Acidosis will get corrected with the correction of fluid and insulin deficits. The definitive treatment is directed towards correcting the underlying precipitants of DKA, e.g. sepsis, infections.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
-
-
Question 80
Incorrect
-
A child presents with hypothyroidism. Which of the following features is characteristic of hypothyroidism?
Your Answer: Cleft soft palate
Correct Answer: Prolonged neonatal jaundice
Explanation:Congenital hypothyroidism is one of the most important diseases of the new-born, which may lead to mental and physical retardation when treatment is delayed or an appropriate dosage of thyroxine is not administered. The most alarming and earliest sign is jaundice, especially when it is prolonged, during the neonatal period.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
-
-
Question 81
Incorrect
-
A 1-year old girl with a history of febrile convulsions presents to the community clinic with constipation. During the examination, she goes into a seizure. The physician carries her to the treatment room and administers oxygen. After 5 minutes, the fits continue, and there is lack of buccal midazolam. Which of the following would be the best strategy in this case?
Your Answer: Give 2.5 mg rectal diazepam + rectal paracetamol 1g
Correct Answer: Give 5 mg rectal diazepam
Explanation:Diazepam given rectally may be helpful in treating prolonged convulsions outside and within hospital when intravenous injection is not possible. A rectal dose of 0.5 mg/kg (maximum 10 mg) of injectable diazepam, undiluted or diluted with a 50% propylene glycol solution, can stop seizures in up to 80% of children. There are few adverse reactions. Seizures in children usually cease spontaneously within 5-10 minutes and are rarely associated with significant sequelae. The chance of a seizure stopping spontaneously decreases significantly after 10-15 minutes. Similarly, the efficacy of anticonvulsant medication decreases after 10-15 minutes of fitting and the risk of adverse effects increases. Convulsive seizures lasting longer than 30 minutes constitute status epilepticus and may be complicated by cardio respiratory depression and brain injury. Diazepam or clonazepam, given intravenously, is generally the drug of choice for the emergency treatment of convulsive status epilepticus. Intravenous diazepam may be difficult to administer to the young convulsing child and, because of the need for intravenous access, is not ideal for rapid treatment in the community by non-medical carers.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
-
-
Question 82
Correct
-
A 10-month-old infant is brought to the hospital with a 3-day history of frequent watery stools and vomiting. On examination, she is found to be dehydrated and is refusing to drink in the emergency department.What would be the most appropriate course of action for this child?
Your Answer: Admit for enteral rehydration via a nasogastric tube
Explanation:The most appropriate step in this patient would be to admit the patient for enteral rehydration via a nasogastric tube.Enteral rehydration:Oral rehydration is the most preferred way of rehydrating children. If a child is not tolerating small-frequent-feeds, then nasogastric rehydration is an underused next best step. The fluid can be run through a continuous pump so that it is better tolerated. Note:Intravenous fluids are effective but can have profound effects on the serum electrolyte balance if not monitored closely. Most children will tolerate fluids in an emergency department, but failure to take fluids orally is not an indication for intravenous therapy.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
-
-
Question 83
Incorrect
-
A severe asthma exacerbation according to the British Thoracic Society suggests an oxygen saturation that is less than:
Your Answer: 95%
Correct Answer: 0.92
Explanation:In an acute and severe asthma attack the child cannot complete sentences in one breath because they are too breathless. The O2 saturation is less than 92% and PEF is between 33-50% best or predicted. In children that are 2-5 years old, HR is more than 140 bpm and more than 125 bpm in those older than 5 years old. The RR in children between 2-5 years old is more than 40/min, and more than 30/min in those older than 5 years old.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
-
-
Question 84
Incorrect
-
Which of the following is true regarding group B beta-haemolytic Streptococcus?
Your Answer: Approximately half of all women have vaginal colonisation with group B beta-haemolytic Streptococcus
Correct Answer: Group B beta-haemolytic Streptococcus (GBS) and Escherichia coli are the most common cause of early sepsis
Explanation:Group B beta-haemolytic Streptococcus (GBS) and Escherichia coli are the most common cause of early sepsis. Group B Streptococcus (GBS), also known as Streptococcus agalactiae, is best known as a cause of postpartum infection and as the most common cause of neonatal sepsis. The GBS organism colonizes the vagina, GI tract, and the upper respiratory tract of healthy humans. GBS infection is almost always associated with underlying abnormalities. In elderly persons aged 70 years or older, GBS infection is strongly linked with congestive heart failure and being bedridden.Penicillin remains the drug of choice for group B streptococcal infection but resistance may occur.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
-
-
Question 85
Incorrect
-
A well 2-week-old baby born at term is referred to hospital with a discharging umbilicus. The cord separated at 10 days and there is no peri-umbilical swelling or erythema. There is a small red mass at the site of cord separation, which is discharging a small amount of yellow fluid. The GP had taken a swab of this which grew Staphylococcus epidermidis.The MOST appropriate course of action is which of the following?
Your Answer: Arrange an abdominal ultrasound scan
Correct Answer: Reassure parents and review in 1–2 weeks
Explanation:The baby most likely has umbilical granuloma – granulation tissue may persist at the base of the umbilicus after cord separation| the tissue is composed of fibroblasts and capillaries and can grow to more than 1 cm.Medical therapy is indicated only when an infection is present.Silver nitrate application to umbilical granulomas is usually successful. One or more applications may be needed. Care must be taken to avoid contact with the skin. Silver nitrate can cause painful burns. Small umbilical granulomas with a narrow base may be safely excised in the office setting. Large granulomas and those growing in response to an umbilical fistula or sinus do not resolve with silver nitrate and must be surgically excised in the operating room setting.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
-
-
Question 86
Incorrect
-
A 1-week-old baby presents with a large blue bruise-like mark on his back. His mother noticed the mark that same morning and she is concerned about its severity. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: ITP
Correct Answer: Mongolian spot
Explanation:Mongolian spots, otherwise called congenital dermal melanocytosis, are pigmented birthmarks. They are usually located on the buttocks or back and although they’re usually present at birth, they may appear soon after. They are flat and have a blue-grey colour (bruise-like). They are benign and present no health risk.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 87
Incorrect
-
What IQ is the cut off for profound learning disability?
Your Answer: <10
Correct Answer:
Explanation:Mild learning disabilities indicates an IQ = 50-70, or mental age of 9-12 years
Moderate learning disabilities indicates an IQ = 35-49, or mental age of 6-9 years
Severe learning disabilities indicates an IQ = 20-34, or mental age of 3-6 years
Profound learning disabilities indicates an IQ = 20, or mental age of less than 3 years
Average IQ is 100. The arbitrary cut-off to indicate learning disabilities is 70. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology And Neurodisability
-
-
Question 88
Incorrect
-
Which of the following causes macrocephaly?
Your Answer: Maternal hypothyroidism
Correct Answer: Tuberous sclerosis
Explanation:The aetiology of macrocephaly is diverse.The most common cause is benign familial macrocephaly characterized by enlargement of the subarachnoid spaces and accounts for almost 50% of cases.Other causes are:- Enlargement of skull bones – Hyperostosis cranii – associated with disorders such as osteogenesis imperfecta, achondroplasia, and osteopetrosis- Secondary enlargement due to bone marrow expansion – as seen in thalassemia major- Increase in volume of cerebrospinal fluid- Hydrocephalus, Choroid plexus papilloma, Benign familial macrocephaly- Megalencephaly – Leukodystrophies – Canavan disease, Alexander disease, megalencephalic leukoencephalopathy with subcortical cysts- Lysosomal storage disorders – Tay-Sachs, mucopolysaccharidosis, gangliosidosis- Neurocutaneous disorders – Tuberous sclerosis, Sturge-weber syndrome, neurofibromatosis, Gorlin syndrome- Autism spectrum disorder- Other syndromes – Fragile X syndrome, Cowden syndrome, Sotos syndrome- Increased intracranial pressure (ICP)- CNS infections, Pseudotumor cerebriSubdural collections including hygromas- Mass lesions and an increase in the volume of bloodTumourIntraventricular haemorrhage, subdural hematoma, arteriovenous malformation
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology And Neurodisability
-
-
Question 89
Incorrect
-
A 16 year-old boy was stabbed in the right supraclavicular fossa. The sharp object punctured the portion of the parietal pleura that extends above the first rib. What is the name of this portion of the parietal pleura?
Your Answer: Costodiaphragmatic recess
Correct Answer: Cupola
Explanation:Endothoracic fascia: the connective tissue (fascia) that is between the costal parietal pleura and the inner wall of the chest wall.
Costomediastinal recess: the point where the costal pleura becomes mediastinal pleura.
Costodiaphragmatic recess: is the lowest point of the pleural sac where the costal pleura becomes diaphragmatic pleura.
Cupola: the part of the parietal pleura that extends above the first rib level into the root of the neck.
Costocervical recess: this is a made-up term.
Peritracheal fascia: a layer of connective tissue that invests the trachea. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
-
-
Question 90
Correct
-
A new-born baby develops vomiting 9 hours after birth. He has tolerated two prior feeds. His mother tells you that the mid-wives were concerned that there was lots of fluid around the baby in the uterus. What is the most likely genetic disorder associated with this presentation?
Your Answer: Trisomy 21
Explanation:The baby has duodenal atresia.Presenting symptoms and signs are results of high intestinal obstruction. Duodenal atresia is typically characterized by the onset of vomiting within hours of birth. While vomitus is most often bilious, it may be nonbilious because 15% of defects occur proximal to the ampulla of Vater. Occasionally, infants with duodenal stenosis escape detection of an abnormality and proceed into childhood or, rarely, into adulthood before a partial obstruction is noted. Nevertheless, one should assume any child with bilious vomiting has a proximal GI obstruction until proven otherwise, and further workup should be begun expeditiously.congenital duodenal atresia is one of the more common intestinal anomalies treated by paediatric surgeons, occurring 1 in 2500-5000 live births. In 25-40% of cases, the anomaly is encountered in an infant with trisomy 21 (Down syndrome).
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
-
-
Question 91
Correct
-
A young child is successfully treated for meningitis. Two months later his parents take him to their GP, worried that he isn't communicating with them like he used to.What is the most likely complication of meningitis that he developed?
Your Answer: Sensorineural deafness
Explanation:Possible complications include:- Hearing loss (which may be partial or total)- problems with memory and concentration- problems with coordination and balance- learning difficulties (which may be temporary or permanent)- epilepsy (Seizures)- cerebral palsy- speech problems- vision loss (which may be partial or total)As hearing loss is the most common complication of meningitis people recovering from the condition are usually given a hearing test to assess their hearing.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
-
-
Question 92
Correct
-
Which is a sign of subacute bacterial endocarditis (SBE)?
Your Answer: Splinter haemorrhages
Explanation:Infective endocarditis (IE) is defined as an infection of the endocardial surface of the heart.Fever, possibly low-grade and intermittent, is present in 90% of patients with IE. Heart murmurs are heard in approximately 85% of patients.One or more classic signs of IE are found in as many as 50% of patients. They include the following:- Petechiae: Common, but nonspecific, finding- Subungual (splinter) haemorrhages: Dark-red, linear lesions in the nail beds -Osler nodes: Tender subcutaneous nodules usually found on the distal pads of the digits- Janeway lesions: Nontender maculae on the palms and soles- Roth spots: Retinal haemorrhages with small, clear centres| rareSigns of neurologic disease, which occur in as many as 40% of patients, include the following:- Embolic stroke with focal neurologic deficits: The most common neurologic sign- Intracerebral haemorrhage- Multiple microabscessesOther signs of IE include the following:- Splenomegaly- Stiff neck- Delirium- Paralysis, hemiparesis, aphasia- Conjunctival haemorrhage- Pallor- Gallops- Rales- Cardiac arrhythmia- Pericardial rub- Pleural friction rub
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
-
-
Question 93
Incorrect
-
A 3-year-old girl presented with rhinorrhoea, barking cough and inspiratory stridor. She was diagnosed with laryngotracheobronchitis. If untreated at this stage which of the following would be the most probable outcome?
Your Answer: Bronchiectasis
Correct Answer: Complete resolution
Explanation:The prognosis for croup is excellent, and recovery is almost always complete with complications being quite rare. The possible complications are pneumonia, bacterial tracheitis, pulmonary oedema, pneumothorax, pneumomediastinum, lymphadenitis or otitis media. Bacterial tracheitis is a life-threatening infection that can arise after the onset of an acute viral respiratory infection.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
-
-
Question 94
Correct
-
Which of the given electrolyte imbalances is a clinical feature of adrenal insufficiency?
Your Answer: Hyponatraemia
Explanation:Adrenal insufficiency is a serious medical condition that leads to inadequate secretion of corticosteroids. The consequences of this deficiency are numerous electrolyte and acid-base imbalances, which include hyponatremia, hyperkalaemia, hypercalcemia, hypoglycaemia, metabolic alkalosis, and dehydration.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
-
-
Question 95
Correct
-
A 16-year-old boy is scheduled for a repair of an inguinal hernia. Which of the following structures must be divided to gain access to the inguinal canal?
Your Answer: External oblique aponeurosis
Explanation:External oblique forms the outermost muscle of the three muscles comprising the anterolateral aspect of the abdominal wall. Its aponeurosis comprises the anterior wall of the inguinal canal.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 96
Correct
-
A 16 year old boy was admitted with severe pain and swelling of his scrotum following a kick to the groin. What is the most appropriate management that can be done at this stage?
Your Answer: Exploratory surgery
Explanation:The most worrying condition is testicular torsion and to exclude it exploratory surgery is required.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatric Surgery
-
-
Question 97
Incorrect
-
Retinopathy of prematurity (ROP) is a potentially blinding disease if not managed adequately. Which of the following is a complication of ROP in an infant?
Your Answer: Vascular occlusion
Correct Answer: Retinal detachment
Explanation:Retinopathy of prematurity affects infants born early, and is due to the abnormal growth of retinal vasculature as opposed to vascular occlusion often see in adults. Though most babies with ROP can see normally, the most significant complication of ROP Is retinal detachment which can lead to blindness. Other structures in the eye such as the optic nerve or the fovea however, are not affected. Children may develop nystagmus as a result of poor sight in the affected eye(s).
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
-
-
Question 98
Incorrect
-
During the excision of the submandibular salivary gland, which one of the following nerves is at risk of injury as the duct is mobilised?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lingual nerve
Explanation:The lingual nerve wraps around Wharton’s duct, and thus, is at risk of injury as the submandibular gland is mobilised. The lingual nerve provides sensory supply to the anterior 2/3 of the tongue.Note:- Submandibular duct (Wharton’s duct): It opens lateral to the lingual frenulum on the anterior floor of the mouth. It is around 5 cm in length.- Lingual nerve wraps around Wharton’s duct. As the duct passes forwards, it crosses medial to the nerve, above it and then crosses back, lateral to it, to reach a position below the nerve.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
-
-
Question 99
Incorrect
-
A 15-year-old girl presents with polyuria, polydipsia and weight loss. Further investigations lead to a diagnosis of type 1 diabetes mellitus.Which of the following does she have an increased risk of developing?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Addison's disease, Grave's disease, coeliac disease
Explanation:The patient has features of type 1 diabetes mellitus, a disease of autoimmune aetiology. This also puts the patient at risk of developing other autoimmune disorders like Addison’s disease, Grave’s disease, and coeliac disease.All of the other options are non-autoimmune disorders.Diabetes mellitus is an increasing problem in both developing and developed countries alike.Some of the risk factors include:ObesityFamily historyFemale sex Asian and African racesPresence of acanthosis nigricans is seen with type 2 but not type 1 diabetesThe diagnosis is mostly incidental or subacute.The treatment aims are good blood sugar control, maintenance of normal BMI, and reduction of complications. The treatment modality also includes lifestyle modifications and cessation of smoking.Even after all this, diabetic ketoacidosis can still occur.Management of diabetes mellitus – NICE guidelines (Updated, 2015): – Standard release metformin should be offered from the moment of diagnosis.- HBA1c should be measured every three months. The target HBA1c level of 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) or lower is ideal for minimising the risk of long term complications.- Children should undergo an eye examination by an optician every two years.- Annual immunisation against influenza and pneumococcal infections are essential.- There is an increased risk of psychological and psychosocial difficulties if the child with type 1 diabetes is on insulin or oral hypoglycaemic medications. These include anxiety disorder, depression, behavioural and conduct disorders and family conflict.- Annual monitoring to be done for:Hypertension starting at diagnosis.Dyslipidaemia starting at diagnosis.Screening for microalbuminuria starting at diagnosis.Diabetic retinopathy from 12 years of age.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
-
-
Question 100
Incorrect
-
Which of following statements with regards to the developmental problems found in Fragile X syndrome is the most accurate?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Around one third of children with FXS meet diagnostic criteria for autistic spectrum disorder
Explanation:Fragile X syndrome is a genetic syndrome associated with neuro-developmental problems such as learning disabilities and cognitive impairment, with many affected children having mild to moderate intellectual disability. About a third of children have features of autism spectrum disorder and ADHD which affects their communication skills and social interactions. As such, affected individuals usually have delayed speech development and poor nonverbal skills such as gaze aversion. Symptoms tend to worsen with age into adolescence as the demands on their intellect becomes greater. Pre-mutation carriers, who posses smaller genetic repeat expansions, have been found to be associated with some neurodevelopment and other medical problems.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology And Neurodisability
-
00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00
:
00
:
00
Session Time
00
:
00
Average Question Time (
Secs)