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  • Question 1 - Activation of the cool receptor (CMR-1), causes: ...

    Incorrect

    • Activation of the cool receptor (CMR-1), causes:

      Your Answer: Inhibition of Na+ channels

      Correct Answer: Influx of Ca++ & Na+

      Explanation:

      Cold and Menthol receptor 1 (CMR1) is a protein that in humans is encoded by TRPM8 gene. It is an ion channel which upon activation causes the influx of Na+ and Ca++ ions into the cell that leads to the depolarization and generation of an action potential.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      13.5
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Which of the following is true regarding platelets? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is true regarding platelets?

      Your Answer: They exhibit chemo taxis

      Correct Answer: Normally have a half-life of about 8 days

      Explanation:

      Platelets have no cell nucleus: they are fragments of cytoplasm that are derived from the megakaryocytes of the bone marrow, and then enter the circulation. They have a half life of 5-9 days.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Medicine
      11.7
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Which of the following statements is most suitable to describe necrosis? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following statements is most suitable to describe necrosis?

      Your Answer: Significant inflammatory response

      Explanation:

      Necrosis is the death of most or all of the cells in an organ or tissue due to disease, injury, or failure of the blood supply. Cellular death due to necrosis does not follow the (regulated) apoptotic signal transduction pathway, but rather various receptors are activated, and result in the loss of cell membrane integrity and an uncontrolled release of products of cell death into the extracellular space. This initiates in the surrounding tissue an inflammatory response which attracts leukocytes and nearby phagocytes which eliminate the dead cells by phagocytosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Biology
      • Medicine
      20.7
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - During which stage of sleep is muscle tone in the limbs most reduced?...

    Correct

    • During which stage of sleep is muscle tone in the limbs most reduced?

      Your Answer: REM

      Explanation:

      Rapid eye movement (REM) stage is marked by extensive physiological changes in the body, such as accelerated respiration, increased brain activity and muscle relaxation. People dream during REM sleep, perhaps as a result of excited brain activity and the paralysis of major voluntary muscles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      3.1
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 62 year old female complains of pain and stiffness in her shoulders....

    Incorrect

    • A 62 year old female complains of pain and stiffness in her shoulders. She also finds it difficult to get out of her chair. From the list of symptoms below, choose the one most likely to support the diagnosis of polymyalgia rheumatica.

      Your Answer: Proximal muscle weakness

      Correct Answer: Low grade fever

      Explanation:

      Polymyalgia rheumatica is an inflammatory disease which usually causes stiffness and pain in the shoulder – this can also occur in the pelvic girdle muscles. Its onset can either be subacute or acute and is associated with a systemic inflammatory response. This, therefore, causes symptoms such as fever, weight loss, anorexia, and malaise. Polymyalgia rheumatica is unpredictable in its course and it is known that 30 per cent of patients also present with giant cell arteritis. The cause of this disease is unknown but studies have shown it have infectious origins. Diagnosis of polymyalgia rheumatica can be difficult and other inflammatory diseases have to be excluded first. Patients with this disease are usually over 60 years of age (it is very rarely seen in those under 50). Muscle weakness does not present, although this can be hard to assess when the patient is in pain. Low-grade fever and weight loss are typical of this disease due to chronic inflammation. As such, weight gain is very rare and peripheral joints are usually not affected (they can be affected but it is very rare). Also, muscle tenderness is not a specific symptom of the disease – it is therefore not a classical finding of polymyalgia rheumatica. Although patients usually complain of stiffness and pain, the muscles are usually not significantly tender – this is usually more associated with fibromyalgia or myositis. When investigated, a normochromic/normocytic anaemia; a raised erythrocyte sedimentation rate often over 50 mm/hr., and raised C reactive protein are usually revealed. Symptoms of giant cell arteritis should also be sought, such as headaches, visual disturbances, TIAs (transient ischemic attacks), jaw claudication, and thickened temporal arteries. The patient response to a moderate dose of steroids is useful when confirming a diagnosis of polymyalgia rheumatica. The maximum dose of prednisolone should not exceed 20mg once a day. After treatment, patients should show a 70 per cent improvement in symptoms within a month (between 3-4 weeks). Inflammatory markers should also fall back to their normal levels. Non-steroidal anti-inflammatories are of little use and are associated with morbidity. There is also little evidence for the use of steroidal-sparing agents.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Geriatrics
      • Medicine
      24.6
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Which of the following acute phase reactants increases the most dramatically in the...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following acute phase reactants increases the most dramatically in the first hour following injury?

      Your Answer: C3

      Correct Answer: C-reactive protein

      Explanation:

      Measurement of acute-phase proteins, especially C-reactive protein, is a useful marker of inflammation. It correlates with the erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR), however not always directly. This is due to the ESR being largely dependent on elevation of fibrinogen, an acute phase reactant with a half-life of approximately one week. This protein will therefore remain higher for longer despite removal of the inflammatory stimuli. In contrast, C-reactive protein (with a half-life of 6-8 hours) rises rapidly and can quickly return to within the normal range if treatment is employed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology
      • Medicine
      13
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Which of the following statements is true regarding chromosomes? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following statements is true regarding chromosomes?

      Your Answer: All are true

      Explanation:

      All of the above mentioned statements are true regarding chromosomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      27.5
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Digoxin causes: ...

    Incorrect

    • Digoxin causes:

      Your Answer: Na/k ATPase stimulation

      Correct Answer: Increase in cytosolic calcium concentration

      Explanation:

      Digoxin is a positive inotrope which inhibits NA/K ATPase, increases cardiac contractility and can cause hypokalaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      6.1
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Which of the following statements is true regarding pulsus alternans? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is true regarding pulsus alternans?

      Your Answer: It is diagnosed electrocardiographically

      Correct Answer: It is found in association with a third heart sound

      Explanation:

      Pulsus alternans is a physical finding with arterial pulse waveform showing alternating strong and weak beats. It is almost always indicative of left ventricular systolic impairment, and carries a poor prognosis. A pathological third heart sound is usually associated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      24.2
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Neutrophils are attracted to an infected area by: ...

    Incorrect

    • Neutrophils are attracted to an infected area by:

      Your Answer: Cytokines

      Correct Answer: Chemokines

      Explanation:

      The major role of chemokines is to act as a chemoattractant to guide the migration of cells like neutrophils to the site of infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology
      • Medicine
      5.6
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Hyperkalaemia [K+ =7meq/l] can lead to the following ECG changes [Ca++ normal] ...

    Correct

    • Hyperkalaemia [K+ =7meq/l] can lead to the following ECG changes [Ca++ normal]

      Your Answer: Peaked T waves

      Explanation:

      Hyperkalaemia causes the formation of tall tented T waves due to altered repolarization.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      2.7
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Myocardial oxygen consumption is increased by: ...

    Incorrect

    • Myocardial oxygen consumption is increased by:

      Your Answer: B[ an increase in preload

      Correct Answer: An increase in after load

      Explanation:

      Cardiac oxygen consumption is directly related to the amount of tension that develops in the ventricles. It is increased by an increased size of heart, increased afterload, increased contractility and increased heart rate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      33.2
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Which of the following is a form of synaptic plasticity? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is a form of synaptic plasticity?

      Your Answer: Neurogenesis

      Correct Answer: Working memory

      Explanation:

      Synaptic plasticity is an important neurochemical foundation of working memory and generation of memory. Synaptic plasticity is the ability of synapses to strengthen or weaken over time in response to increases or decreases in their activity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      7.8
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - What is a characteristic findings on ECG in hyperkalaemia? ...

    Correct

    • What is a characteristic findings on ECG in hyperkalaemia?

      Your Answer: Tall, tented T waves

      Explanation:

      Hyperkalaemia leads to:

      – Prolonged PR interval

      – Small P waves

      – Tall, tented T waves

      – Widened QRS complexes and eventually asystole.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      3.7
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - In response to tissue injury, which of these cannot sensitize and activate nociceptors?...

    Correct

    • In response to tissue injury, which of these cannot sensitize and activate nociceptors?

      Your Answer: Calcium

      Explanation:

      Histamine, serotonin, bradykinin and prostaglandin are all chemical mediators of inflammation with different distinct functions however all activate nociceptors. Calcium on the other hand cannot sensitize or activate nociceptors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      14.2
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Coronary flow is reduced during ...

    Correct

    • Coronary flow is reduced during

      Your Answer: Tachycardia

      Explanation:

      Maximum amount of blood flow in the coronary arteries occur during diastole. When the heart rate increases which is also called tachycardia the duration of diastole decreases. Hence the amount of blood flow to the cardiac muscle also decreases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      10.2
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Where is the melanocortin system located? ...

    Incorrect

    • Where is the melanocortin system located?

      Your Answer: Pituitary

      Correct Answer: Hypothalamus

      Explanation:

      The melanocortin system is a group of hormones which include hormones from the pro-opiomelanocortin (POMC)-expressing neurons, the neuropeptide Y (NPY) and agouti-related peptide (AgRP)-co-expressing neurons. This system is located in the hypothalamic arcuate nucleus; it also includes the hypothalamic arcuate nucleus and the melanocortin 4 receptor (MC4R)-expressing neurons located in the hypothalamic paraventricular nucleus. The system regulates energy expenditure and food intake.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      8.9
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - The predominant receptors in the hearts conduction system are? ...

    Incorrect

    • The predominant receptors in the hearts conduction system are?

      Your Answer: Α1

      Correct Answer: Î’1

      Explanation:

      All of the components of the intrinsic conduction system contain autorhythmic cells that spontaneously depolarize. In the absence of extrinsic neural or hormonal influences, the SA node pacing rate would be about 100 beats per minute (bpm). The heart rate and cardiac output, however, must vary in response to the needs of the body’s cells for oxygen and nutrients under varying conditions. In order to respond rapidly to changing requirements of the body’s tissues, the heart rate and contractility are regulated by the autonomic nervous system (ANS), hormones, and other factors. The ANS has two interacting systems: the sympathetic and parasympathetic systems.

      Sympathetic receptors: There are two types of adrenergic receptors: β and α. In the cardiovascular system there are β1, β2, α1, and α2 adrenergic receptors. β1 adrenergic receptors are expressed in the heart conduction system (in the SA node, AV node, and on atrial and ventricular cardiomyocytes). The activation of β1 receptors increases heart rate (via the SA node), and contractility.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      13.6
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - The pontine tegmentum as part of the midbrain, contains which cranial nerve nuclei?...

    Incorrect

    • The pontine tegmentum as part of the midbrain, contains which cranial nerve nuclei?

      Your Answer: CN 3 to 5

      Correct Answer: CN 5 to 8

      Explanation:

      The pontine tegmentum also known as dorsal pons is located within the brain stem. Several cranial nerve nuclei are located in the pontine tegmentum. The nuclei of CN V, CN VI, CN VII and CNVIII are located in the pontine tegmentum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      11
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - The right border of the heart corresponds to which line on the surface...

    Incorrect

    • The right border of the heart corresponds to which line on the surface of the chest?

      Your Answer: Line drawn from the 4th right costal cartilage to the 5th left intercostal space

      Correct Answer: Line drawn from the 3rd right costal cartilage to the 6th right costal cartilage

      Explanation:

      The right border corresponds to a line drawn from the 3rd right costal cartilage to the 6th right costal cartilage; this border is slightly convex to the right.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      41.2
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - Microtubule subunits include: ...

    Incorrect

    • Microtubule subunits include:

      Your Answer: Alpha and gamma tubulin only

      Correct Answer: Alpha and beta tubulin

      Explanation:

      Microtubules are long, hollow cylinders made up of polymerised α- and β-tubulin dimers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Biology
      • Medicine
      9.8
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - Why is the sub-endocardial portion of the left ventricle the most common site...

    Incorrect

    • Why is the sub-endocardial portion of the left ventricle the most common site for ischaemic damage and myocardial infarction?

      Your Answer: None of the above

      Correct Answer: No blood flow occurs during systole

      Explanation:

      The subendocardium receives the least amount of blood from the coronary arteries. During systole the coronary arteries collapse as a result of the pressure due to contraction that is exerted on them. During diastole the heart muscle relaxes and the pressure on the coronary vessels is relieved allowing blood to flow through them to the subendocardium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      32.4
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - Endolymph in the inner ear is rich in: ...

    Incorrect

    • Endolymph in the inner ear is rich in:

      Your Answer: Chloride

      Correct Answer: K

      Explanation:

      Cochlear fluids namely endolymph and perilymph have different compositions. Perilymph is a typical extracellular fluid, with ionic composition comparable to plasma or cerebrospinal fluid. The main cation is sodium. Endolymph is a totally unique extracellular fluid, with an ion composition unlike that which is found anywhere else in the body. The major cation in the endolymph is potassium and there is virtually no sodium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      4.1
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - Transport of Ca2+ into the reticulum to initiate cardiac muscle relaxation in via:...

    Incorrect

    • Transport of Ca2+ into the reticulum to initiate cardiac muscle relaxation in via:

      Your Answer: Voltage-gated Ca2+ channels

      Correct Answer: Serca (sarcoplasmic or endoplasmic reticulum Ca2+ ATPase)

      Explanation:

      Phosphorylation of phospholamban, which increases calcium ATPase activity and sequestration of calcium in the sarcoplasmic reticulum. An increased rate of relaxation is explained because cAMP also activates the protein phospholamban, situated on the membrane of the SR, that controls the rate of uptake of calcium into the SR. The latter effect explains enhanced relaxation (lusitropic effect).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      12.7
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - Which of the following concerning PR interval is INCORRECT? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following concerning PR interval is INCORRECT?

      Your Answer: PR interval shorten during exercise

      Correct Answer: Always measured from the beginning of p wave to the beginning of r wave

      Explanation:

      The PR interval measures the time from the start of atrial depolarization to the start of ventricular depolarization. The PR interval is only measured from the beginning of P wave to beginning of R wave if the Q wave is absent.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      29.6
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - The SA and AV nodes are usually supplied by which artery? ...

    Correct

    • The SA and AV nodes are usually supplied by which artery?

      Your Answer: Right coronary artery

      Explanation:

      The right coronary artery supplies the right atrium, right ventricle, SA and AV nodes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      8.3
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - Where is intrinsic factor secreted? ...

    Correct

    • Where is intrinsic factor secreted?

      Your Answer: Gastric parietal cells

      Explanation:

      Intrinsic factor (IF), also known as gastric intrinsic factor (GIF), is a glycoprotein produced by the parietal cells of the stomach. It is necessary for the absorption of vitamin B12 (cobalamin) later on in the small intestine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Medicine
      6.5
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - The process by which depolarization of the muscle fiber initiates contraction is called?...

    Correct

    • The process by which depolarization of the muscle fiber initiates contraction is called?

      Your Answer: Action potential

      Explanation:

      This process is known as an action potential. Upon generation of an action potential when depolarization reaches threshold, it spreads throughout the muscle fiber, resulting in generation of an excitation-contraction coupling leading to contraction of the muscle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      7.7
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - Embryologically the anterior pituitary is formed from? ...

    Incorrect

    • Embryologically the anterior pituitary is formed from?

      Your Answer: Endoderm

      Correct Answer: Rathkes pouch

      Explanation:

      The ectoderm, located in the roof of the pharynx, forms Rathke’s pouch, which comes into contact with the ectoderm of the developing brain. The pouch eventually separates from the pharynx, becoming the anterior pituitary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      3.3
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - Which of the following substances inhibits pancreatic secretion? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following substances inhibits pancreatic secretion?

      Your Answer: Cholecystokinin

      Correct Answer: Pancreatic polypeptide

      Explanation:

      Number of hormones and neurotransmitters can stimulate and inhibit pancreatic exocrine secretion. Cholecystokinin, secretin, vasoactive intestinal peptide and substance P stimulate pancreatic secretion. Pancreatic polypeptide, somatostatin inhibit pancreatic secretion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      6.6
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Medicine (10/30) 33%
Neurology (2/6) 33%
Haematology (1/2) 50%
Cell Biology (1/2) 50%
Geriatrics (0/1) 0%
Immunology (0/2) 0%
Genetics (1/1) 100%
Cardiovascular (5/13) 38%
Endocrinology (0/2) 0%
Gastrointestinal (0/1) 0%
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