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  • Question 1 - The following hormones are secreted from the anterior pituitary gland, EXCEPT: ...

    Incorrect

    • The following hormones are secreted from the anterior pituitary gland, EXCEPT:

      Your Answer: Prolactin

      Correct Answer: HCG

      Explanation:

      The following hormones are excreted from the anterior pituitary gland: TSH, GN, ACTH, LH, FSH, MSH, PRL.
      Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG, or human chorionic gonadotrophin) is a placental hormone secreted by syncitiotrophoblasts during the second week of gestation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      5
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Anna, a 39-year-old medical receptionist presents to your gynaecologic clinic for a refill...

    Incorrect

    • Anna, a 39-year-old medical receptionist presents to your gynaecologic clinic for a refill of her Microgynin 30 (combined oral contraceptive pill). Her history is significant for smoking around 1 pack per day. Her BMI is 37.

      What should be the next management step?

      Your Answer: Nicotine replacement therapy

      Correct Answer: Offer her progestogen-only contraceptive options

      Explanation:

      This patient is above 35 and smokes more than 15 cigarettes per day, which is an absolute contraindication to using a combined oral contraceptive pill. A BMI of greater than 35 is a relative contraindication to the usage of the combined oral contraceptive pill.
      Progestogen-only contraception, such as etonogestrel implant, levonorgestrel intrauterine device, and depot medroxyprogesterone, should be offered to her.
      Without initially attempting lifestyle changes, a referral for weight loss surgery is not required. Also, nicotine replacement therapy may aid in quitting smoking, but it may take time.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      5.9
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - One week after the delivery of her baby at the 38th week of...

    Incorrect

    • One week after the delivery of her baby at the 38th week of pregnancy, a 33-year-old woman developed deep vein thrombosis (DVT). She has been on enoxaparin therapy for DVT. Upon discharge, there is a plan to start her on warfarin. When this was explained, the patient was reluctant to take warfarin since she thinks it might cause problems to the baby because she is planning to breastfeed.

      Which of the following is considered correct regarding warfarin and breastfeeding?

      Your Answer: She can go home without anti-coagulation as breastfeeding of her baby is priority at this stage

      Correct Answer: She should continue to breastfeed her baby while she is on warfarin

      Explanation:

      No adverse reactions in breastfed infants have been reported from maternal warfarin use during lactation, even with a dose of 25 mg daily for 7 days. There is a consensus that maternal warfarin therapy during breastfeeding poses little risk to the breastfed infant.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      6.8
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - The softening of the cervical isthmus that occurs early in gestation is called:...

    Correct

    • The softening of the cervical isthmus that occurs early in gestation is called:

      Your Answer: Hegar's sign

      Explanation:

      Hegar’s sign: softening of womb (uterus) due to its increased blood supply, perceptible on gentle finger pressure on the neck (cervix). This is one of the confirmatory signs of pregnancy and is usually obvious by the 16th week.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      15
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 30-year-old woman living in England had a cervical smear test one month...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman living in England had a cervical smear test one month ago. There were no cervical abnormalities visualised at the time of the smear. She has no symptoms of unusual vaginal bleeding and her previous smear results have always been negative. She received the following report: 'Your recent smear was negative with no evidence of nuclear abnormalities.' When will she be routinely recalled for her next smear?

      Your Answer: 3 years

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Women aged 25-49 years living in England are routinely recalled for screening every three years. Women receive their first invitation for cervical screening at 25 years of age. They are not invited earlier as changes in the young cervix can be normal and result in unnecessary treatment. Provided the smears remain negative and there are no symptoms to suggest cervical cancer, the routine recall is three years for women aged 25-49 years. Women aged 50-64 years old are routinely recalled for a smear every five years. After the age of 65 years, women are only screened if they have not had a smear since the age of 50 years (including those who have never had a smear) or those who have had recent abnormal smears. This is because due to the natural history and progression of cervical cancer, it is highly unlikely that women over 65 years old will go on to develop the disease. 

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      1.6
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - What is the typical volume increase of a non-pregnant uterus to term uterus?...

    Incorrect

    • What is the typical volume increase of a non-pregnant uterus to term uterus?

      Your Answer: 40ml to 1200ml

      Correct Answer: 10ml to 5000ml

      Explanation:

      Uterine blood flow increases 40-fold to approximately 700 mL/min at term. The uterus is 50–60 g with a volume of approximately 10ml prior to pregnancy and 1000 – 1200 g with a volume of 5000ml by term.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      2.9
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - From which germ cell layer does the GI tract initially develop? ...

    Incorrect

    • From which germ cell layer does the GI tract initially develop?

      Your Answer: Ectoderm

      Correct Answer: Endoderm

      Explanation:

      The GI tract forms from the endoderm. The endoderm grows laterally and then ventrally finally folding on its self to form the gut tube.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      2.2
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Regarding blood volume in pregnancy which of the following statements is TRUE? ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding blood volume in pregnancy which of the following statements is TRUE?

      Your Answer: Blood volume remains constant

      Correct Answer: Blood volume slowly increases by 40-50%

      Explanation:

      Maternal blood volume expands during pregnancy to allow adequate perfusion of vital organs, including the placenta and foetus, and to anticipate blood loss associated with delivery. The rapid expansion of blood volume begins at 6–8 weeks gestation and plateaus at 32–34 weeks gestation. While there is some increase in intracellular water, the most marked expansion occurs in extracellular fluid volume, especially circulating plasma volume. This expanded extracellular fluid volume accounts for between 8 and 10 kg of the average maternal weight gain during pregnancy. Overall, total body water increases from 6.5 to 8.5 L by the end of pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      7.5
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 39-year-old woman who is 8 weeks pregnant presented to the medical clinic...

    Incorrect

    • A 39-year-old woman who is 8 weeks pregnant presented to the medical clinic for consultation regarding the chance of her baby having Down syndrome. She mentioned that she has read somewhere that one of the risk factors for Down syndrome is advanced maternal age. She is concerned and asks if there are ways in which she can know whether her baby will be affected.

      Which of the following is considered as both the safest and the most accurate diagnostic tool for the exclusion of Down syndrome?

      Your Answer: Cordocentesis at 18 weeks of gestation

      Correct Answer: Amniocentesis at 16 weeks gestation

      Explanation:

      Amniocentesis is a prenatal procedure performed on a pregnant woman to withdraw a small amount of amniotic fluid from the sac surrounding the foetus.
      The goal of amniocentesis is to examine a small amount of this fluid to obtain information about the baby, including its sex, and to detect physical abnormalities such as Down syndrome or spina bifida.
      Amniocentesis is only performed on women thought to be at higher risk of delivering a child with a birth defect.

      Amniocentesis is performed between 16 and 20 weeks into the pregnancy. By around this time, the developing baby is suspended in about 130ml of amniotic fluid, which the baby constantly swallows and excretes. A thin needle is used to withdraw a small amount of this fluid from the sac surrounding the foetus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      5.8
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - During early pregnancy, a pelvic examination may reveal that one adnexa is slightly...

    Incorrect

    • During early pregnancy, a pelvic examination may reveal that one adnexa is slightly enlarged. This is most likely due to:

      Your Answer: Ovarian neoplasm

      Correct Answer: Corpus luteal cyst

      Explanation:

      Adnexa refer to the anatomical area adjacent to the uterus, and contains the fallopian tube, ovary, and associated vessels, ligaments, and connective tissue. The reported incidence of adnexal masses in pregnancy ranges from 1 in 81 to 1 in 8000 pregnancies. Most of these adnexal masses are diagnosed incidentally at the time of dating or first trimester screening ultrasound (USS). Functional cyst is the most common adnexal mass in pregnancy, similar to the nonpregnant state. A corpus luteum persisting into the second trimester accounts for 13-17% of all cystic adnexal masses. Pain due to rupture, haemorrhage into the cyst, infection, venous congestion, or torsion may be of sudden onset or of a more chronic nature.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      4.6
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Which one of the following factors commonly indicate repetitive late decelerations on cardiography...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following factors commonly indicate repetitive late decelerations on cardiography (CTG)?

      Your Answer: Rapid cervical dilation

      Correct Answer: Fetal hypoxia

      Explanation:

      Repetitive late decelerations can be caused by fetal hypoxia which results in constriction of the vessels to circulate blood from the peripheries to more important organs of the body like the brain and heart etc.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      2.8
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Which of the following is suggestive of ovulation: ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is suggestive of ovulation:

      Your Answer: Regular cycle with dysmenorrhea

      Explanation:

      Ovulation in the menstrual cycle usually occurs over 4 days. There is an increase in basal body temperature at the time of ovulation due to the effect of progesterone.

      A high Day 21 progesterone level indicates ovulation and the release of an egg.

      Dysmenorrhea is described as painful menstruation. The symptoms start at the time of ovulation and persist till menstruation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      3.6
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - DEXA scans measure bone density by ...

    Incorrect

    • DEXA scans measure bone density by

      Your Answer: Uses a computer to analyse absorption from multiple XRAYs aimed at bone from different angles

      Correct Answer: Measuring absorption from two different XRAY beams with different energy peaks at the same site

      Explanation:

      DEXA works by passing two low dose XRAY beams with different energy peaks at the patient’s bone. Some of the XRAY radiation will be absorbed (the greater the density the greater the absorption) whilst some will pass through to a detector. Soft tissue absorption is subtracted out and the BMD can be determined from the absorption of each beam. It is important to realise that two beams are used at each site when measuring bone density (hence ‘dual’). Although two sites are typically used (spine and femoral neck) when measuring bone density this is not why the term dual is used Computer analysis of multiple X-ray beams taken from different angles and geographical digital processing are features of CT scanning

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Biophysics
      2.1
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - The round ligament develops from which structure? ...

    Incorrect

    • The round ligament develops from which structure?

      Your Answer: Allantois

      Correct Answer: Gubernaculum

      Explanation:

      The round ligament is a remnant of the gubernaculum in females. In males it persists as the scrotal ligament.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      4.3
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Which nerves innervate the internal anal sphincter? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which nerves innervate the internal anal sphincter?

      Your Answer: Superior rectal

      Correct Answer: Pelvic Splanchnic

      Explanation:

      The anal sphincters are responsible for closing the anal canal to the passage of faeces and flatus. The smooth muscle or involuntary internal sphincter sustains contraction to prevent the leakage of faeces between bowel movements and is innervated by the pelvic splanchnic nerves, which are a branch of the spinal segment 4. The external sphincter is made up of skeletal muscle and can therefore contract and relax voluntarily. Its innervation comes from the inferior rectal branch of the pudendal nerve, and the perineal branch of S4 nerve roots.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      4
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 30-year-old woman with a 10-year history of schizophrenia, accompanied by her husband,...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman with a 10-year history of schizophrenia, accompanied by her husband, presents to your hospital with amenorrhea lasting two months. She is currently taking clozapine with appropriate control of her symptoms.

      Which of the following is the most crucial step in management?

      Your Answer: Full blood count (FBC)

      Correct Answer: Urine pregnancy test

      Explanation:

      Pregnancy is the most common cause of secondary amenorrhea worldwide. As a result, the first thing to check in every woman of reproductive age who has amenorrhea is a urine pregnancy test.
      Once pregnancy has been ruled out, an ultrasound or measuring FSH and LH may be done to assess the condition (if required).
      FBC is used to track clozapine side effects such as neutropenia and agranulocytosis. It is not recommended for the assessment of amenorrhea.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      3.6
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - The main support of the uterus is provided by: ...

    Correct

    • The main support of the uterus is provided by:

      Your Answer: The cardinal ligament

      Explanation:

      The cardinal ligament (or Mackenrodt’s ligament, lateral or transverse cervical ligament) is a major ligament of the uterus. It is located at the base of the broad ligament of the uterus. It attaches the cervix to the lateral pelvic wall by its attachment to the Obturator fascia of the Obturator internus muscle, and is continuous externally with the fibrous tissue that surrounds the pelvic blood vessels. It thus provides support to the uterus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      6.8
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - In normal pregnancy, levels of all of the following hormones increases, EXCEPT: ...

    Incorrect

    • In normal pregnancy, levels of all of the following hormones increases, EXCEPT:

      Your Answer: Parathyroid hormone (PTH)

      Correct Answer: FSH

      Explanation:

      Hormones that increase during pregnancy and their roles:

      1. Human Chorionic Gonadotropin (hCG): Peaks between the eighth to tenth weeks of gestation and supports the corpus luteum to maintain progesterone production.
      2. Progesterone: Initially produced by the corpus luteum and later by the placenta, it rises steadily throughout pregnancy, suppressing the maternal immune response to fetal antigens and preparing the endometrium for implantation.
      3. Estrogen: Produced by the placenta from fetal and maternal precursors, estrogen levels increase to promote uterine growth and blood flow.
      4. Human Placental Lactogen (hPL): Rises significantly during pregnancy, influencing maternal metabolism by increasing insulin resistance and promoting lipolysis.
      5. Relaxin: Increases early in pregnancy to relax the uterine muscles, inhibit contractions, and prepare the cervix and pelvis for childbirth.
      6. Prolactin: Levels increase to prepare the breasts for lactation.
      7. Corticotropin-Releasing Hormone (CRH): Increases towards the end of pregnancy and is involved in the timing of labor.
      8. Adrenocorticotropic Hormone (ACTH): Levels increase, contributing to elevated cortisol levels during pregnancy.
      9. Total Thyroxine (T4): Levels increase due to elevated thyroid-binding globulin (TBG) production stimulated by increased estrogen levels, meeting the increased metabolic demands of pregnancy.
      10. Parathyroid Hormone (PTH): Levels increase to regulate calcium metabolism, ensuring adequate calcium for fetal bone development.
      11. Cortisol: Levels increase due to higher production by the adrenal glands and increased binding to cortisol-binding globulin (CBG), supporting glucose metabolism, managing stress, and aiding fetal development, particularly lung maturation.

      During pregnancy, some hormones either remain stable or do not increase significantly. These include:

      1. Follicle-Stimulating Hormone (FSH): Levels decrease due to the negative feedback from high levels of estrogen and progesterone.
      2. Luteinizing Hormone (LH): Levels also decrease due to negative feedback from elevated estrogen and progesterone.
      3. Growth Hormone (GH): Although a variant of growth hormone (hGH-V) is produced by the placenta and increases, the maternal pituitary GH levels may not significantly increase.
      4. Melatonin: Generally remains stable during pregnancy, though some studies suggest there may be slight fluctuations.
      5. Insulin: While insulin resistance increases due to hPL and other factors, the actual levels of insulin may not increase proportionally; instead, pancreatic beta-cell function adapts to meet the increased demand.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      6.4
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 30 year old patient is due for delivery in about two weeks....

    Incorrect

    • A 30 year old patient is due for delivery in about two weeks. She has some concerns after a family member recently gave birth to a baby with profound hearing loss due to an infection. Which of the following would you describe to her as the most common infective cause of congenital hearing loss?

      Your Answer: Zika

      Correct Answer: Cytomegalovirus

      Explanation:

      Congenital cytomegalovirus infections are the most common cause of sensorineural hearing loss in babies. Cytomegalovirus infection during the perinatal period can be transferred to the foetus especially if the primary infection is during pregnancy. Babies born with congenital CMV are either symptomatic or develop symptoms later in life. Some of the features of CMV infection include sensorineural hearing loss, visual impairment, cerebral palsy, microcephaly and seizures. Other causes of infective congenital sensorineural hearing loss include: Rubella, HIV, Herpes Simplex Virus, Measles, Varicella Zoster virus, Mumps and West Nile Virus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      3
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Regarding ovarian cancer, which factors are thought to lower the risk? ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding ovarian cancer, which factors are thought to lower the risk?

      Your Answer: Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome

      Correct Answer: Taking statins

      Explanation:

      Ovarian cancer is a gynaecological cancer that commonly affects women over 40 years. Risk factors for ovarian cancer include: infertility, a family history of ovarian, breast or colorectal cancer. There are some protective factors, which include: high parity and breastfeeding, early age at menarche and late age at menopause, and combined oral contraceptives, and statins.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology
      2
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - Which of the following is a DNA virus? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is a DNA virus?

      Your Answer: Hepatitis A

      Correct Answer: Hepatitis B

      Explanation:

      Hepatitis B is a DNA virus. All the others are RNA viruses

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      4.7
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - Urinary incontinence has brought a 69-year-old woman to your clinic. When she laughs,...

    Incorrect

    • Urinary incontinence has brought a 69-year-old woman to your clinic. When she laughs, sneezes, or coughs, as well as during activity, she experiences minor quantities of urine incontinence.

      Which of the following is the most appropriate management next step?

      Your Answer: Vaginal weighted cones

      Correct Answer: Pelvic floor muscles exercise

      Explanation:

      Pelvic floor muscle exercises are the mainstay of behavioural therapy for stress incontinence. Up to 38 percent of patients with stress incontinence alone who follow a pelvic floor muscle exercise regimen for at least three months experience a cure.

      Weighted cones or topical steroids can be used as adjuvants but are not sufficient when used alone.

      Tension free vaginal tape and Burch’s colposuspension are considered for patients who fail to respond to conservative management strategies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      3.6
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - Ovarian cancer is associated with which type of metastasis? ...

    Incorrect

    • Ovarian cancer is associated with which type of metastasis?

      Your Answer: Transplantation

      Correct Answer: Transcoelomic

      Explanation:

      The common route of metastases of the ovarian cancer is transcoelomic route.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      5.2
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - You are called to see a 24 year old patient who is currently...

    Incorrect

    • You are called to see a 24 year old patient who is currently in labour but is failing to progress. A fetal blood sample is sent for analysis. pH is 7.22. Which of the following is the appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: No action required

      Correct Answer: Consider delivery

      Explanation:

      A normal pH value is above 7.25. A pH below 7.20 is confirmation of fetal compromise. Values between 7.20 and 7.25 are ‘borderline’.

      The base deficit can also be useful in interpretation of the fetal scalp pH. A base excess of more than -10 demonstrates a significant metabolic acidosis, with increasing risk of fetal neurological injury beyond this level. Delivery should be considered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Data Interpretation
      4.6
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 23-year-old woman complains of a tender lump that is smooth and mobile...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old woman complains of a tender lump that is smooth and mobile in her left breast measuring 1-2 cm. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Breast cyst

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Fibroadenoma usually occurs in younger women. These non-tender masses can be removed for aesthetic purposes. Breast cysts are common shifting masses inside the breast tissue more common in women over the age of 35.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      10.7
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 22-year-old woman presented to the medical clinic for her first-trimester pregnancy counselling....

    Incorrect

    • A 22-year-old woman presented to the medical clinic for her first-trimester pregnancy counselling. Upon interview and history-taking, it was noted that she was previously an intravenous drug abuser. There were unremarkable first-trimester investigations, except for her chronic Hepatitis B infection.

      All of the following statements is considered true regarding Hepatitis B infection during pregnancy, except:

      Your Answer: Caesarean section does not reduce the risk of hepatitis B transmission

      Correct Answer: A Screening for HBV is not recommended for a pregnant woman with previous vaccination

      Explanation:

      The principal screening test for detecting maternal HBV infection is the serologic identification of HBsAg. Screening should be performed in each pregnancy, regardless of previous HBV vaccination or previous negative HBsAg test results.

      A test for HBsAg should be ordered at the first prenatal visit. Women with unknown HBsAg status or with new or continuing risk factors for HBV infection (e.g., injection drug use or a sexually transmitted infection) should be screened at the time of admission to a hospital or other delivery setting.

      Interventions to prevent perinatal transmission of HBV infection include screening all pregnant women for HBV, vaccinating infants born to HBV-negative mothers within 24 hours of birth, and completing the HBV vaccination series in infants by age 18 months.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      11.4
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 40 year old women who is 13 weeks pregnant is found to...

    Incorrect

    • A 40 year old women who is 13 weeks pregnant is found to have be high risk for Downs following the combined screening test. What is the most appropriate further test to see if the foetus is affected?

      Your Answer: Quadruple test

      Correct Answer: Chorionic Villous Sampling

      Explanation:

      Chorion villus sampling is an invasive procedure which aims to collect the rapidly dividing cells in the placenta. It is used for numerous reasons including detection of early pregnancy, viability of the foetus, singleton pregnancy, confirm gestation age and for prenatal diagnosis of the fetal chromosomal abnormalities including diagnosis of Down’s syndrome. However it hold a 2% chance of miscarriage during the procedure. Nuchal thickness and imaging are part of the combined test that must have been performed before.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      3.4
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - Lymph drainage from the bladder is via which nodes? ...

    Incorrect

    • Lymph drainage from the bladder is via which nodes?

      Your Answer: Mesenteric nodes

      Correct Answer: External, Internal and Common iliac nodes

      Explanation:

      Lymphatic drainage of the bladder is to the common iliac nodes via the internal iliac nodes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      4.3
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 32-year-old white female comes to your office complaining of dysuria. She denies...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old white female comes to your office complaining of dysuria. She denies fever, back pain, and urinary frequency. She appears to be well otherwise and has a normal abdominal examination. A clean-catch urinalysis shows 15-20 WBC/hpf and a dipstick test for leukocyte esterase is positive. You send a urine sample for culture and start the patient on nitrofurantoin (Macrodantin), as she is allergic to sulpha.

      Three days later, the patient returns with persistent dysuria despite taking the medication as prescribed. Her urine culture has returned with no growth. A pelvic examination is normal and the rest of the physical examination is unchanged. A wet prep is normal and tests for sexually transmitted diseases are pending. Which one of the following antibiotics is most appropriate for this patient now?

      Your Answer: Doxycycline

      Explanation:

      Urethral syndrome is characterized by dysuria and pyuria in the presence of a negative culture for uropathogens. Frequency and urgency are often absent. The infecting organism is typically Chlamydia trachomatis although other organisms such as Urea plasma urealyticum and Mycoplasma species may be involve- Effective medication choices include doxycycline, ofloxacin, levofloxacin, and macrolides such as erythromycin and azithromycin.

      -Amoxicillin
      lavulanate  and cephalexin  are incorrect. These would cover gram-positive bacteria but it would not cover gram-negative bacteria nor bacteria without a cell wall, which are the most common causes of this condition.
      – Metronidazole is best for treating anaerobic infections and protozoa such as trichomonas vaginalis, it would not be the best for treating this condition, given the most likely causes.
      -Pyridium is a phenazopyridine often used to alleviate the pain, irritation, discomfort, or urgency caused by urinary tract infections. While it would be beneficial for symptomatic relief, it is unlikely to completely resolve this patient’s condition, given her recent history.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      3
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - Regarding uterine fibroids, which of the following statements is false? ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding uterine fibroids, which of the following statements is false?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The risk of fibroids is increased by pregnancy

      Explanation:

      Fibroids are a common gynaecological condition found in many women above the age of 35. They are however uncommon before puberty. They are most common in black women vs white women, and its prevalence increases from puberty to menopause. Risk factors for fibroids include increasing age, obesity and infertility. Protective factors, on the other hand, include pregnancy, as the risk of fibroids decreases with increasing numbers of pregnancies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Gynaecology (4/6) 67%
Obstetrics (5/6) 83%
Physiology (3/3) 100%
Embryology (1/1) 100%
Biophysics (1/1) 100%
Anatomy (4/4) 100%
Endocrinology (1/1) 100%
Microbiology (2/2) 100%
Epidemiology (1/1) 100%
Clinical Management (2/2) 100%
Data Interpretation (1/1) 100%
Genetics (1/1) 100%
Passmed