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  • Question 1 - The external carotid artery develops from which pharyngeal arch? ...

    Correct

    • The external carotid artery develops from which pharyngeal arch?

      Your Answer: 1st

      Explanation:

      The external carotid develops from the 1st arch. The common and internal carotid develop from the 3rd arch.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      7.2
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 40-year-old woman arrives at the hospital at eight weeks of her first...

    Correct

    • A 40-year-old woman arrives at the hospital at eight weeks of her first pregnancy, anxious that her kid may have Down syndrome. Which of the following best reflects the risk of spontaneous abortion after an amniocentesis performed at 16 weeks?

      Your Answer: 18%

      Explanation:

      This question assesses critical clinical knowledge, as this information must be presented to a patient prior to an amniocentesis to ensure that she has given her informed permission for the treatment.
      Amniocentesis is most typically used for genetic counselling in the second trimester of pregnancy. Another option is to do a chorion-villus biopsy (CVB) between 10 and 11 weeks of pregnancy.
      The chances of miscarriage after both operations are roughly 1 in 200 for amniocentesis and 1 in 100 for CVB, according to most experts.
      The significance of this question is that professionals must be able to weigh the procedure’s danger against the risk of the sickness they are trying to identify.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      10.3
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - During pregnancy, which among these is NOT counted as physiological change? ...

    Correct

    • During pregnancy, which among these is NOT counted as physiological change?

      Your Answer: Tidal volume 500ml.

      Explanation:

      There is a significant increase in oxygen demand during pregnancy due to a 15% increase in the metabolic rate and a 20% increased consumption of oxygen. There is a 40–50% increase in minute ventilation, mostly due to an increase in tidal volume, rather than in the respiratory rate. In a healthy, young human adult, tidal volume is approximately 500 mL per inspiration

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      11
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Regarding the rectus sheath which of the following statements are true? ...

    Correct

    • Regarding the rectus sheath which of the following statements are true?

      Your Answer: Above the arcuate line the internal oblique divides into two lamellae

      Explanation:

      The rectus sheath is formed by the aponeurosis of the internal and external oblique muscles and the transversus abdominus muscle. The internal oblique divides into two lamellae and encloses the rectus muscle. Anteriorly it fuses with the aponeurosis of the external oblique and posteriorly with that of the transverus abdominus. Below the arcuate line the aponeurosis of all the flat muscles lies anteriorly and posteriorly it is only enclosed by the transveralis fascia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      12.5
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Normally, pregnancy in 2nd trimester is characterized by all of the following, EXCEPT:...

    Correct

    • Normally, pregnancy in 2nd trimester is characterized by all of the following, EXCEPT:

      Your Answer: Elevated fasting plasma glucose

      Explanation:

      Elevated fasting plasma glucose means gestational diabetes mellitus and is not considered to be in the spectrum of a normal pregnancy. In normal pregnancy however, maternal tissues become progressively insensitive to insulin. This is believed to be caused partly by hormones from the placenta and partly by other obesity and pregnancy related factors that are not fully understood. Gestational diabetes mellitus (GDM) occurs in about 5% of pregnancies but figures vary considerably depending upon the criteria used and demographic characteristics of the population.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      21.7
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Which one will decrease the risk of acquiring uterine fibroids? ...

    Correct

    • Which one will decrease the risk of acquiring uterine fibroids?

      Your Answer: Smoking

      Explanation:

      Risk factors of fibroids include early menarche, nulliparity, early exposure to oral contraceptives (one study showed 13-16 years old), diet rich in red meats and alcohol, vitamin D deficiency, hypertension, obesity, and/or history of sexual or physical abuse.

      Smoking is associated with actual reduced risk due to an unknown mechanism.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      310.8
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - What is the Gold standard investigation to diagnose abnormal uterine bleeding? ...

    Correct

    • What is the Gold standard investigation to diagnose abnormal uterine bleeding?

      Your Answer: Hysteroscopy along with dilatation and curettage

      Explanation:

      During the last decade hysteroscopy has become the tool of choice for the evaluation of the endometrial cavity, including for assessment of abnormal uterine bleeding (AUB). Many clinicians would consider that, in most patients, the combination of transvaginal sonography and out-patient endometrial biopsy with diagnostic hysteroscopy could replace the need for dilation and curettage. Hysteroscopy was reported to have sensitivity, specificity, negative predictive value and positive predictive value of 94.2, 88.8, 96.3 and 83.1% respectively, in predicting normal or abnormal endometrial histopathology.

      The highest accuracy of hysteroscopy was in diagnosing endometrial polyps, whereas the worst result was in estimating hyperplasia. Therefore, since the incidence of focal lesions in patients with AUB is high, it seems that the most beneficial approach is to proceed with hysteroscopy complemented by endometrial biopsy early in the assessment of AUB.

      Transabdominal and transvaginal ultrasounds can be used but are inferior to hysteroscopy.

      Coagulation profile can only diagnose possible coagulopathies and pregnancy test can only diagnose pregnancy. All other causes can not be identified with these laboratory investigations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      11
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Which is an absolute contraindication to contraceptive pills containing only progesterone? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which is an absolute contraindication to contraceptive pills containing only progesterone?

      Your Answer: Migraine

      Correct Answer: Rifampicin

      Explanation:

      Progestogen-only methods are contraindicated in suspected pregnancy, breast cancer and undiagnosed vaginal bleeding. Giving DMPA to a woman with a severe bleeding disorder may result in a large haematoma at the injection site.

      Women who want to become pregnant within 18 months or who are afraid of injections should be discouraged from using DMPA. Progestogen-only methods are unsuitable for women unwilling to accept menstrual changes.

      Relative contraindications are active viral hepatitis and severe chronic liver disease. For all progestogen-only methods, with the possible exception of DMPA, drug interactions are likely with many anticonvulsants, rifampicin, spironolactone and griseofulvin. This may result in lowered efficacy.

      Migraine, malabsorption syndrome, smoking and history of liver disease have not been identified as contraindications to mini pills.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      13.6
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 28-year-old woman who is at the 18th week of gestation presented to...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman who is at the 18th week of gestation presented to the medical clinic due to a vaginal discharge. Upon history taking, it was revealed that she had a history of preterm labour at 24 weeks of gestation during her last pregnancy. Upon examination, the presence of a clear fluid coming out of the vagina was noted.

      Which of the following is considered to be the best in predicting pre-term labour?

      Your Answer: Cervical length of 15mm

      Explanation:

      Preterm birth is the leading cause of neonatal morbidity and mortality not attributable to congenital anomalies or aneuploidy. It has been shown that a shortened cervix is a powerful indicator of preterm births in women with singleton and twin gestations – the shorter the cervical length, the higher the risk of spontaneous preterm birth. Ultrasound measurements of the cervix are a more accurate way of determining cervical length (CL) than using a digital method.

      25 mm has been chosen as the ‘cut off’ at above which a cervix can be regarded as normal, and below which can be called short. A cervix that is less than 25 mm may be indicative of preterm birth.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      26
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Which of the following takes part in the arterial supply of the ovary?...

    Correct

    • Which of the following takes part in the arterial supply of the ovary?

      Your Answer: Uterine arteries

      Explanation:

      The ovarian arteries, arising from the abdominal aorta and the ascending uterine arteries which are branches of the internal iliac artery all supply the ovaries. They terminate by bifurcating into the ovarian and tubal branches and anastomose with the contralateral branches providing a collateral circulation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      11.3
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 29-year-old lady presents to your clinic at her 26 weeks of gestation....

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old lady presents to your clinic at her 26 weeks of gestation. She is worried as she came in contact with a child having chicken pox 48 hours ago and she has no symptoms.

      You checked her pre-pregnancy IgG level for chicken pox which was negative, as she missed getting vaccinated for chickenpox before pregnancy.

      What is the best next step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Check IgM level

      Correct Answer: Give varicella zoster immunoglobulins

      Explanation:

      This woman who is 26 weeks pregnant, has come in contact with a child having chickenpox 48 hours ago. As her IgG antibodies were negative during prenatal testing, she has no immunity against Varicella which makes her susceptible to get chickenpox.

      Prophylactic treatment is required if a susceptible pregnant woman is exposed to chickenpox, which includes administration of varicella zoster immune globulin (VZIG), within 72 hours of exposure to infection.

      As the patient has already checked for and was found to be negative, checking IgG level again is not relevant. Also, it was already revealed that she is not vaccinated against varicella before pregnancy.

      If the patient had any symptoms typical of chickenpox, measuring IgM would have been helpful, but patient is completely asymptomatic in this case so measuring IgM is not indicated.

      Vaccine for chickenpox is contraindicated during pregnancy as it is a live vaccine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      70.4
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - The uterine vein drains where? ...

    Incorrect

    • The uterine vein drains where?

      Your Answer: Hepatic portal vein

      Correct Answer: Internal iliac vein

      Explanation:

      The venous drainage of the uterus is via the uterine veins which form a plexus passing below the artery within the base of the broad ligament communicating with the rectal and the vesical venous plexus before draining into the internal iliac veins.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      61
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 23-year-old woman at 36 weeks of gestation in her first pregnancy presents...

    Correct

    • A 23-year-old woman at 36 weeks of gestation in her first pregnancy presents for headache and right upper quadrant abdominal pain for three days. The pregnancy has been normal and unremarkable until now.

      Her blood pressure is 145/90 mmHg and urinalysis shows protein ++. On physical exam, her ankles are slightly swollen. There is slight tenderness to palpation under the right costal margin.

      Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pre-eclampsia.

      Explanation:

      There are a few differential diagnoses to think of in a patient that presents such as this one. Pre-eclampsia, cholecystitis, and fatty liver could all cause pain and tenderness, but cholecystitis would not normally cause the hypertension and proteinuria seen in this patient and neither would acute fatty liver of pregnancy. The more likely explanation is pre-eclampsia which must always be considered in the presence of these symptoms and signs. This process is particularly severe in the presence of pain and tenderness under the right costal margin due to liver capsule distension.

      Chronic renal disease could cause the hypertension and mild proteinuria seen, but it would not usually produce the pain and tenderness that this patient has unless it was complicated by severe pre-eclampsia.

      Biliary cholestasis does not usually produce pain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      86.5
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Lowered haemoglobin during normal pregnancy is a physiological finding which is mainly due...

    Correct

    • Lowered haemoglobin during normal pregnancy is a physiological finding which is mainly due to:

      Your Answer: Increased plasma volume

      Explanation:

      During pregnancy, anaemia increases more than fourfold from the first to third trimester. It is a well established fact that there is a physiological drop in haemoglobin (Hb) in the mid trimester. This physiological drop is attributed to increase of plasma volume and hence decrease of blood viscosity lead to better circulation in placenta.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      42.9
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 30 year old women who is 24 weeks pregnant attends clinic due...

    Correct

    • A 30 year old women who is 24 weeks pregnant attends clinic due to suprapubic pain. Ultrasound shows a viable foetus and also a fibroid with a cystic fluid filled centre. What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Cystic degeneration of fibroid

      Explanation:

      A fibroid is a benign tumour of the smooth muscles of the uterus also known as a leiomyoma. It has a typical whorled appearance and this may be altered following degeneration which occurs in four main types:
      1. Red degeneration, also known as carneous degeneration, of degeneration that can involve a uterine leiomyoma. While it is an uncommon type of degeneration, it is thought to be the most common form of degeneration of a leiomyoma during pregnancy. Red degeneration follows an acute disruption of the blood supply to the fibroid during growth typically in a mid-second trimester presenting as sudden onset of pain with tenderness localizing to the area of the uterus along with pyrexia and leucocytosis. On ultrasound it can have peripheral (rim).

      2. Hyaline degeneration is the most common form of degeneration that can occur in a uterine leiomyoma. It is thought to occur in up to 60% of uterine leiomyomasoccurs when the fibroid outgrows its blood supply. this may progresses to central necrosis leaving a cystic space in the centre knowns as cystic degeneration.

      3. Cystic degeneration is an uncommon type of degeneration that a uterine leiomyoma (fibroid) can undergo. This type of degeneration is thought to represent ,4% of all types of uterine leiomyoma degeneration. When the leiomyoma increases in size, the vascular supply to it becomes inadequate and leads to different types of degeneration: hyaline, cystic, myxoid, or red degeneration. Dystrophic calcification may also occur. Hyalinization is the commonest type of degeneration. Cystic degeneration is an extreme sequel of edema. Ultrasound may show a hypoechoic or heterogeneous uterine mass with cystic areas.

      4. Myxoid degeneration of leiomyoma is one of the rarer types of degeneration that can occur in a uterine leiomyoma. While this type of degeneration is generally considered rare, the highest prevalence for this type of degeneration has been reported as up to 50% of all degenerations of leiomyomas. Fibroids (i.e. uterine leiomyomas) that have undergone myxoid degeneration are filled with a gelatinous material and can be difficult to differentiate from cystic degeneration; however, they typically appear as more complex cystic masses. They appear hypocellular with a myxoid matrix.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      17.5
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - The round ligament develops from which structure? ...

    Correct

    • The round ligament develops from which structure?

      Your Answer: Gubernaculum

      Explanation:

      The round ligament develops from the lower end of the gubernaculum in females. In the males it persists as the scrotal ligament.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      102.3
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 65-year-old female patient complained of two months of painless vaginal bleeding. The...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old female patient complained of two months of painless vaginal bleeding. The endometrial thickness is 6mm, according to transvaginal ultrasound. To rule out endometrial cancer, you plan to send this patient to a gynaecologist for an endometrial biopsy with or without hysteroscopy.

      Which of the following characteristics in your medical history is linked to a higher risk of endometrial cancer?

      Your Answer: Polycystic ovary syndrome associated with chronic anovulation

      Explanation:

      Women with polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS) have a 2.7-fold increased risk for developing endometrial cancer. A major factor for this increased malignancy risk is prolonged exposure of the endometrium to unopposed oestrogen that results from anovulation.

      Additionally, secretory endometrium of some women with PCOS undergoing ovulation induction or receiving exogenous progestin exhibits progesterone resistance accompanied by dysregulation of gene expression controlling steroid action and cell proliferation.

      Other risk factors include nulliparity, early menarche and late menopause, obesity and family history of endometrial cancer. Which rules out all the other options.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      36.9
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - What is the anatomical landmark used for gauging the station of the fetal...

    Correct

    • What is the anatomical landmark used for gauging the station of the fetal head during labour?

      Your Answer: Ischial Spine

      Explanation:

      The ischial spines and palpable through the vagina and are used as landmarks to assess the decent of the fetal head from the cervix. It also serves as a landmark for giving the pudendal block.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      7.8
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 20-year-old female patient who is experiencing pelvic pain is being cared for...

    Correct

    • A 20-year-old female patient who is experiencing pelvic pain is being cared for at your clinic. She describes bilateral pain that began gradually and was accompanied by fever, vaginal discharge, and mild dysuria.

      Her pelvic examination demonstrates uterine, adnexal, and cervical motion tenderness.

      Which of the following is the most likely cause of the pain?

      Your Answer: PID

      Explanation:

      Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) refers to acute and subclinical infection of the upper genital tract in women, involving any or all of the uterus, fallopian tubes, and ovaries; this is often accompanied by involvement of the neighbouring pelvic organs. It results in endometritis, salpingitis, oophoritis, peritonitis, perihepatitis, and/or tubo-ovarian abscess.

      Lower abdominal pain is the cardinal presenting symptom in women with PID. The abdominal pain is usually bilateral and rarely of more than two weeks’ duration. The character of the pain is variable, and in some cases, may be quite subtle. The recent onset of pain that worsens during coitus or with jarring movement may be the only presenting symptom of PID. The onset of pain during or shortly after menses is particularly suggestive.

      Other non-specific complaints include urinary frequency and abnormal vaginal discharge.

      Ovarian cyst, uterine leiomyoma, appendicitis or ectopic pregnancy do not present with fever and vaginal discharge although tenderness is noted in appendicitis and ectopic pregnancy. Therefore, these options do not explain the patient’s symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      79
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - The femoral triangle contains all of the following structures EXCEPT which one? ...

    Incorrect

    • The femoral triangle contains all of the following structures EXCEPT which one?

      Your Answer: Saphenofemoral Junction

      Correct Answer: Genital branch of the genitofemoral nerve

      Explanation:

      The contents of the femoral triangles are femoral nerve, artery and the vein. Along with the femoral sheath and lymphatics.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      20.3
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 31-year-old female patient seeks your opinion on an abnormal Pap smear performed...

    Incorrect

    • A 31-year-old female patient seeks your opinion on an abnormal Pap smear performed by a nurse practitioner at a family planning facility. A high-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion is visible on the Pap smear (HGSIL).

      Colposcopy was performed in the office. The impression is of acetowhite alterations, which could indicate infection by HPV. Chronic cervicitis is present in your biopsies, but there is no indication of dysplasia.

      Which of the following is the most suitable next step in this patient's care?

      Your Answer: Laser ablation of the cervix

      Correct Answer: Conization of the cervix

      Explanation:

      When cervical biopsy or colposcopy doesn’t explain the severity of the pap smear results cone biopsy is done. In 10% of biopsies, results will be different from that of the pap smear as in this patient with pap smear showing HSIL and colposcopy showing chronic cervicitis.

      In such cases conization is indicated. Repeating the pap smear could risk prompt management of a serious problem. No destructive procedure, ablation or cryotherapy, should be done before diagnosis is certain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      196.5
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - Which one of the following features indicates fetal asphyxia? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following features indicates fetal asphyxia?

      Your Answer: Deep type I deceleration in the 2nd stage of labour

      Correct Answer: Type II (late) decelerations with tachycardia

      Explanation:

      A type II deceleration is due to placental insufficiency which can result in fetal distress and asphyxia. The fetal heart rate is lowest at the start of the contraction and returns to normal after the contraction is complete.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      32.1
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - a 24 year old female patient comes to your office with a chief...

    Correct

    • a 24 year old female patient comes to your office with a chief complaint of painless vaginal bleeding of 1 week duration. She had 3 episodes of bleeding and is on contraceptive pills. Her Pap smear screening is up to date with normal findings.

      Which is the cause for her bleeding?

      Your Answer: A cervical ectropion

      Explanation:

      Cervical ectropion occurs when glandular cells develop on the outside of the cervix. Many individuals with cervical ectropion do not experience symptoms.
      However, the primary symptom of cervical ectropion is a red, inflamed patch at the neck of the cervix.
      The transformation zone appears this way because the glandular cells are delicate and irritate easily.
      Other symptoms a woman may experience include:
      pain and bleeding during or after sex
      pain during or after cervical screening
      light discharge of mucus
      spotting between periods
      Symptoms may range from mild to severe when they appear.

      This patient has normal pap smear and is unlikely to have cervical cancer. She has no fever and vaginal discharge which would be the presentation of Chlamydia infection.

      Endometrial cancer affects mainly post menopausal women and presents with vaginal bleeding, weight loss, dysuria and dyspareunia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      11.8
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - You are called to see a patient in A&E who attended due to...

    Incorrect

    • You are called to see a patient in A&E who attended due to finger splinter that has been removed. The HCA took some routine obs that show her blood pressure to be 162/110. She is 32 weeks pregnant. According to the NICE guidelines which of the following is appropriate?

      Your Answer: Prescribe oral nifedipine and review in outpatients in 24 hours

      Correct Answer: Admit and start oral labetalol

      Explanation:

      BP over 159/109 is classed as Severe. NICE guidance advises admission and treatment with oral Labetalol as 1st Line. Patient should have BP checked QDS and shouldn’t be discharged until BP is below 159/109

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      51.5
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 27-year-old G1P0 woman who is at 14 weeks of gestation presented to...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old G1P0 woman who is at 14 weeks of gestation presented to the medical clinic complaining of persistent nausea and vomiting. Upon history taking and interview, she reported that she frequently had poor appetite and felt lethargic. From her pre-pregnancy weight, it was also noted that she had 3% weight loss in difference. Upon further clinical observation, she looked dry, accompanied with coated tongue.

      If the diagnosis of “hyperemesis gravidarum” is to be considered, which of the following will most likely confirm that diagnosis?

      Your Answer: she looks dry with coated tongue

      Explanation:

      Hyperemesis gravidarum refers to intractable vomiting during pregnancy, leading to weight loss and volume depletion, resulting in ketonuria and/or ketonemia. There is no consensus on specific diagnostic criteria, but it generally refers to the severe end of the spectrum regarding nausea and vomiting in pregnancy.

      Hormone changes wherein hCG levels peak during the first trimester corresponds to the typical onset of hyperemesis symptoms. It is well-known that the lower oesophageal sphincter relaxes during pregnancy due to the elevations in estrogen and progesterone. This leads to an increased incidence of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) symptoms in pregnancy, and one symptom of GERD is nausea.

      Hyperemesis gravidarum refers to extreme cases of nausea and vomiting during pregnancy. The criteria for diagnosis include vomiting that causes significant dehydration (as evidenced by ketonuria or electrolyte abnormalities, and the dry with coated tongue) and weight loss (the most commonly cited marker for this is the loss of at least five percent of the patient’s pre-pregnancy weight) in the setting of pregnancy without any other underlying pathological cause for vomiting.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      22.1
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A cervical screening test for HPV non-16 and 18 types, as well as...

    Correct

    • A cervical screening test for HPV non-16 and 18 types, as well as a low-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion on reflex liquid-based cytology, was positive for a young doctor from a nearby hospital.
      What is the next step in management?

      Your Answer: Repeat cervical screening test in 12 months

      Explanation:

      On reflex liquid-based cytology, this patient had a cervical screening test that revealed HPV non-16 and 18 kinds, as well as a low-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion. In a year, she should be provided a cervical screening test. If HPV non-16/18 kinds are discovered in 12 months, she will need a colposcopy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      66.4
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 29-year-old woman was admitted to the maternity unit of a hospital due...

    Correct

    • A 29-year-old woman was admitted to the maternity unit of a hospital due to early labour. She is considered healthy and has experienced an uncomplicated pregnancy. She asked a question regarding fetal monitoring during labour and mentioned that she has heard about cardio tocography (CTG) being helpful for assessing the baby's wellbeing and in preventing fetal problems.

      Which of the following is considered the most appropriate advice to give in counselling regarding the use of CTG as a predictor of fetal outcome and satisfactory labour compared with intermittent auscultation and whether CTG monitoring is able to reduce the risk of neonatal developmental abnormalities?

      Your Answer: There is no evidence to support admission CTG

      Explanation:

      Continuous CTG produces a paper recording of the baby’s heart rate and the mother’s labour contractions. Although continuous CTG provides a written record, mothers cannot move freely during labour, change positions easily, or use a birthing pool to help with comfort and control during labour. It also means that some resources tend to be focused on the need to constantly interpret the CTG and not on the needs of a woman in labour.

      Continuous CTG was associated with fewer fits for babies although there was no difference in cerebral palsy; both were rare events. However, continuous CTG was also associated with increased numbers of caesarean sections and instrumental births, both of which carry risks for mothers. Continuous CTG also makes moving and changing positions difficult in labour and women are unable to use a birthing pool. This can impact on women’s coping strategies. Women and their doctors need to discuss the woman’s individual needs and wishes about monitoring the baby’s wellbeing in labour.

      Future research should focus on events that happen in pregnancy and labour that could be the cause of long term problems for the baby.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      70.2
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - All of the following factors are associated with an unstable lie of the...

    Correct

    • All of the following factors are associated with an unstable lie of the foetus except?

      Your Answer: Cervical fibroids

      Explanation:

      Unstable lie means that the foetus is still changing its position even at 36 weeks of gestation. A number of factors are responsible for this positioning such as multi gravida, placenta previa, prematurity and fibroids present in the fundus. Cervical fibroids have little association with unstable lie of the foetus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      26.2
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - In early pregnancy at what gestation does the Gestational sac become visible on...

    Correct

    • In early pregnancy at what gestation does the Gestational sac become visible on transvaginal ultrasound?

      Your Answer: 4 weeks + 3 days

      Explanation:

      The gestational sac is typically visible from 31 days gestation by transvaginal ultrasound and a week later (38 days) on transabdominal ultrasound.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Biophysics
      10.8
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - What is the maximum normal diameter of the yolk sac on transvaginal ultrasound?...

    Incorrect

    • What is the maximum normal diameter of the yolk sac on transvaginal ultrasound?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 6mm

      Explanation:

      The yolk sac increases in size up until the 10th week reaching a maximum diameter of 6mm in normal pregnancy. After the 10th week the yolk sac will gradually disappear. It is usually sonographically undetectable by 20 weeks. A yolk sac greater than 6mm diameter is suspicious of failed pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Biophysics
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Embryology (1/1) 100%
Obstetrics (7/8) 88%
Anatomy (4/6) 67%
Physiology (2/3) 67%
Gynaecology (6/8) 75%
Clinical Management (1/2) 50%
Biophysics (1/1) 100%
Passmed