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Question 1
Incorrect
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What is one of the components that is evaluated directly in the SF-36?
Your Answer: Marital stress
Correct Answer: Bodily pain
Explanation:SF-36: A Patient-Reported Survey for Measuring Functioning and Well-Being
The SF-36, also known as the Short-form 36, is a survey consisting of 36 items that patients can complete to rate their functioning and well-being. The survey is designed to measure eight different scales, with four pertaining to physical health and four to mental health. The physical health scales include physical functioning, role limitations due to physical health problems, bodily pain, and general health. The mental health scales include vitality (energy/fatigue), social functioning, role limitations due to emotional problems, and mental health (psychological distress and psychological well-being). Patients can complete the survey on their own, and it typically takes around eight minutes to finish.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 2
Correct
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What is the term used to describe a patient's resistance to movement during a physical examination?
Your Answer: Negativism
Explanation:Thought block is the cognitive equivalent of obstruction in motor function.
– Catatonia is a psychiatric syndrome characterized by disturbed motor functions, mood, and thought.
– Key behaviors associated with catatonia include stupor, posturing, waxy flexibility, negativism, automatic obedience, mitmachen, mitgehen, ambitendency, psychological pillow, forced grasping, obstruction, echopraxia, aversion, mannerisms, stereotypies, motor perseveration, echolalia, and logorrhoea.
– These behaviors are often tested in exam questions.
– Karl Ludwig Kahlbaum is credited with the original clinical description of catatonia. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 3
Correct
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Which of the following is not an example of paramnesia?
Your Answer: Retrograde amnesia
Explanation:The term paramnesia refers to memory disorders where fantasy and reality are confused. There are various types of paramnesias, including déjà vu, jamais vu, confabulation, reduplicative paramnesia, retrospective falsification, and cryptomnesia. Reduplicative paramnesia is a subset of delusional misidentification syndromes, which include Capgras delusion, the Fregoli delusion, and others. A review of reduplicative paramnesia was conducted by Politis in 2012.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 4
Correct
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Which of the options below is not considered a primary delusion?
Your Answer: Delusional guilt
Explanation:Delusional guilt is an intense feeling of remorse or guilt that lacks a rational basis and is often associated with depression. It is not classified as a primary delusion.
Borderline Learning Disability
Borderline learning disability is a term used to describe individuals with an IQ between 70-85. This category is not officially recognized as a diagnosis by the ICD-11. It is estimated that approximately 15% of the population falls within this range (Chaplin, 2005). Unlike mild learning disability, borderline learning disability is not typically associated with deficits in adaptive functioning, such as grooming, dressing, safety, of money management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 5
Incorrect
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How can we measure the discontinuation symptoms that occur when someone stops taking antidepressants?
Your Answer: AIMS
Correct Answer: DESS
Explanation:The DESS scale is utilized to measure the symptoms that arise when antidepressants are discontinued.
In psychiatry, various questionnaires and interviews are used to assess different conditions and areas. It is important for candidates to know whether certain assessment tools are self-rated of require clinical assistance. The table provided by the college lists some of the commonly used assessment tools and indicates whether they are self-rated of clinician-rated. For example, the HAMD and MADRS are clinician-rated scales used to assess the severity of depression, while the GDS is a self-rated scale used to screen for depression in the elderly. The YMRS is a clinician-rated scale used to assess the severity of mania in patients with bipolar disorder, while the Y-BOCS is used to measure both the severity of OCD and the response to treatment. The GAF provides a single measure of global functioning, while the CGI requires the clinician to rate the severity of the patient’s illness at the time of assessment. The CAMDEX is a tool developed to assist in the early diagnosis and measurement of dementia in the elderly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A junior colleague calls you about a patient on one of the pediatric wards. They have fallen over and sustained a head injury. They tell you that the patient is orientated in time, place, and person, is opening their eyes when spoken to, and obeys commands such as put you finger to your nose. What is the patients Glasgow Coma Scale score?
Your Answer: 12
Correct Answer: 14
Explanation:The total score of E3 V5 M6 is 14.
The Glasgow Coma Scale is used to assess the depth of coma and impaired consciousness. Scores range from 3 to 15, with impaired consciousness rated as mild, moderate, of severe. The scale assesses eye opening response, verbal response, and motor response, with specific criteria for scoring each behavior. The final score is a combination of these three scores.
Scoring Guide;
Eye opening response
4 Spontaneous opening
3 Opens to verbal stimuli
2 Opens to pain
1 No response
Verbal response
5 Orientated
4 Confused conversation
3 Inappropriate words
2 Incoherent
1 No response
Motor response
6 Obeys commands
5 Purposeful movement to painful stimuli
4 Withdraws in response to pain
3 Flexion in response to pain (decorticate posturing)
2 Extension in response to pain (decerebrate posturing)
1 No response -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 7
Incorrect
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What is the truth about the sudden and unexpected death of an individual with epilepsy?
Your Answer: Hypoxic ischemic injury in multiple locations of the brain, found on autopsy, is pathognomonic
Correct Answer: It is more common in adults than in children
Explanation:SUDEP, of sudden unexpected death in epilepsy, is a condition where patients with epilepsy die suddenly and unexpectedly without any apparent cause. It is estimated to be responsible for 20-30% of deaths in epilepsy patients. The condition is more common in adults than in children, affecting 1 in 1,000 adults with epilepsy per year. The main risk factor for SUDEP is having active generalised tonic clonic seizures (GTCS), and better control of these seizures through improved compliance can reduce the risk of SUDEP. Other risk factors include nocturnal seizures, lamotrigine, never having been treated with an antiepileptic drug, intellectual disability, and male sex. However, the evidence for these factors is considered low. Autopsy findings in SUDEP cases do not reveal any specific cause of death, but obstruction of the airways and cardiorespiratory events such as arrhythmia are thought to be possible mechanisms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 8
Correct
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A middle-aged father who unconsciously resents the responsibility he has for his aging parents and the limitations that they place on his personal time goes out each weekend and buys them extravagant gifts and hires expensive caretakers. Assuming the two are connected, which defense mechanism is likely to be underlying this behavior?
Your Answer: Reaction formation
Explanation:Intermediate Mechanism: Rationalisation
Rationalisation is a defense mechanism commonly used by individuals to create false but credible justifications for their behavior of actions. It involves the use of logical reasoning to explain away of justify unacceptable behavior of feelings. The individual may not be aware that they are using this mechanism, and it can be difficult to identify in oneself.
Rationalisation is considered an intermediate mechanism, as it is common in healthy individuals from ages three to ninety, as well as in neurotic disorders and in mastering acute adult stress. It can be dramatically changed by conventional psychotherapeutic interpretation.
Examples of rationalisation include a student who fails an exam and blames the teacher for not teaching the material well enough, of a person who cheats on their partner and justifies it by saying their partner was neglectful of unaffectionate. It allows the individual to avoid taking responsibility for their actions and to maintain a positive self-image.
Overall, rationalisation can be a useful defense mechanism in certain situations, but it can also be harmful if it leads to a lack of accountability and an inability to learn from mistakes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A woman undergoing analysis has a deep sense that she is inferior and unlovable. She is unable to accept this and instead directs these feelings towards her therapist. The therapist finds that after the sessions they feel that they are a substandard therapist and that they are no good at their job. It is unusual for the therapist to feel this way and they note that it only seems to happen with this one patient. Which of the following best describes the feelings experienced by the therapist?
Your Answer: Displacement
Correct Answer: Projective identification
Explanation:Intermediate Mechanism: Rationalisation
Rationalisation is a defense mechanism commonly used by individuals to create false but credible justifications for their behavior of actions. It involves the use of logical reasoning to explain away of justify unacceptable behavior of feelings. The individual may not be aware that they are using this mechanism, and it can be difficult to identify in oneself.
Rationalisation is considered an intermediate mechanism, as it is common in healthy individuals from ages three to ninety, as well as in neurotic disorders and in mastering acute adult stress. It can be dramatically changed by conventional psychotherapeutic interpretation.
Examples of rationalisation include a student who fails an exam and blames the teacher for not teaching the material well enough, of a person who cheats on their partner and justifies it by saying their partner was neglectful of unaffectionate. It allows the individual to avoid taking responsibility for their actions and to maintain a positive self-image.
Overall, rationalisation can be a useful defense mechanism in certain situations, but it can also be harmful if it leads to a lack of accountability and an inability to learn from mistakes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 10
Correct
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What is a personality disorder that falls under the cluster C category?
Your Answer: Dependent
Explanation:Personality Disorder Classification
A personality disorder is a persistent pattern of behavior and inner experience that deviates significantly from cultural expectations, is inflexible and pervasive, and causes distress of impairment. The DSM-5 and ICD-11 have different approaches to classifying personality disorders. DSM-5 divides them into 10 categories, grouped into clusters A, B, and C, while ICD-11 has a general category with six trait domains that can be added. To diagnose a personality disorder, the general diagnostic threshold must be met before determining the subtype(s) present. The criteria for diagnosis include inflexibility and pervasiveness of the pattern, onset in adolescence of early adulthood, stability over time, and significant distress of impairment. The disturbance must not be better explained by another mental disorder, substance misuse, of medical condition.
Course
Borderline and antisocial personality disorders tend to become less evident of remit with age, while others, particularly obsessive-compulsive and schizotypal, may persist.
Classification
The DSM-5 divides personality disorders into separate clusters A, B, and C, with additional groups for medical conditions and unspecified disorders. The ICD-11 dropped the separate categories and instead lists six trait domains that can be added to the general diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A post marketing trial is also referred to as which phase of a clinical trial?
Your Answer: Phase V
Correct Answer: Phase IV
Explanation:Clinical Trials: Phases and Objectives
Clinical trials are conducted in four phases to evaluate the safety and efficacy of drugs of treatments. In Phase I, a small group of healthy individuals (15-20) is given the drug to determine its safety, dosage range, and side effects. Phase II involves a larger group (100-300) to assess the drug’s effectiveness and safety. In Phase III, the drug is given to a larger population (1,000-3,000) to confirm its efficacy, compare it with existing treatments, and collect data for safe use. Phase IV, also known as post-marketing trials, is conducted after the drug is licensed to gather additional information on safety and potential uses. These trials are crucial in determining the safety and efficacy of drugs and treatments before they are made available to the public.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 12
Correct
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What is the term used to describe a medication that has its own distinct effects but does not provide any benefits for the intended condition?
Your Answer: An active placebo
Explanation:Understanding the Placebo Effect
In general, a placebo is an inert substance that has no pharmacological activity but looks, smells, and tastes like the active drug it is compared to. The placebo effect is the observable improvement seen when a patient takes a placebo, which results from patient-related factors such as expectations rather than the placebo itself. Negative effects due to patient-related factors are termed the nocebo effect.
Active placebos are treatments with chemical activity that mimic the side effects of the drug being tested in a clinical trial. They are used to prevent unblinding of the drug versus the placebo control group. Placebos need not always be pharmacological and can be procedural, such as sham electroconvulsive therapy.
The placebo effect is influenced by factors such as the perceived strength of the treatment, the status of the treating professional, and the branding of the compound. The placebo response is greater in mild illness, and the response rate is increasing over time. Placebo response is usually short-lived, and repeated use can lead to a diminished effect, known as placebo sag.
It is difficult to separate placebo effects from spontaneous remission, and patients who enter clinical trials generally do so when acutely unwell, making it challenging to show treatment effects. Breaking the blind may influence the outcome, and the expectancy effect may explain why active placebos are more effective than inert placebos. Overall, understanding the placebo effect is crucial in clinical trials and personalized medicine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 13
Incorrect
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Which cultural-specific illness is implied by the belief of a Haitian man that his depression was caused by an envious neighbor who sent him an evil spirit due to his business achievements?
Your Answer: Kufungisisa
Correct Answer: Maladi moun
Explanation:Culture bound illnesses are psychiatric conditions that are specific to one particular culture. There are many different types of culture bound illnesses, including Amok, Shenjing shuairuo, Ataque de nervios, Bilis, colera, Bouffee delirante, Brain fag, Dhat, Falling-out, blacking out, Ghost sickness, Hwa-byung, wool-hwa-byung, Koro, Latah, Locura, Mal de ojo, Nervios, Rootwork, Pibloktoq, Qi-gong psychotic reaction, Sangue dormido, Shen-k’uei, shenkui, Shin-byung, Taijin kyofusho, Spell, Susto, Zar, and Wendigo.
Some of the most commonly discussed culture bound illnesses include Amok, which is confined to males in the Philippines and Malaysia who experience blind, murderous violence after a real of imagined insult. Ataque de nervios is a condition that occurs in those of Latino descent and is characterized by intense emotional upset, shouting uncontrollably, aggression, dissociation, seizure-like episodes, and suicidal gestures. Brain fag is a form of psychological distress first identified in Nigerian students in the 1960s but reported more generally in the African diaspora. It consists of a variety of cognitive and sensory disturbances that occur during periods of intense intellectual activity. Koro is a condition that affects Chinese patients who believe that their penis is withdrawing inside their abdomen, resulting in panic and the belief that they will die. Taijin kyofusho is a Japanese culture bound illness characterized by anxiety about and avoidance of interpersonal situations due to the thought, feeling, of conviction that one’s appearance and actions in social interactions are inadequate of offensive to others. Finally, Wendigo is a culture bound illness that occurs in Native American tribes during severe winters and scarcity of food, characterized by a distaste for food that leads to anxiety and the belief that one is turning into a cannibalistic ice spirit.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 14
Incorrect
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What is a true statement about epilepsy?
Your Answer: A diagnosis of epilepsy usually requires at least three unprovoked seizures
Correct Answer: Lamotrigine is considered a first-line option for the treatment of focal epilepsy
Explanation:Epilepsy: An Overview
Epilepsy is a condition that is diagnosed when a person experiences at least two unprovoked seizures that occur more than 24 hours apart. In the UK, the prevalence of epilepsy is 5-10 cases per 1000. Seizure types are categorized as focal onset of generalized onset. Focal seizures only involve a localized part of the brain, while generalized seizures involve the whole of both hemispheres. Temporal lobe epilepsy is the most common type of focal epilepsy, accounting for 60-70% of cases.
In 60% of people with epilepsy, there is no identifiable cause. Approximately 70% of people with epilepsy achieve remission, meaning they have no seizures for 5 years on of off treatment. of those with convulsive seizures, 2/3 have focal epilepsies and secondary generalized seizures, while the other 1/3 have generalized tonic-clonic seizures.
The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends treatment with antiepileptic drugs (AEDs) after a second epileptic seizure. For newly diagnosed focal seizures, carbamazepine of lamotrigine are recommended as first-line treatment. Levetiracetam, oxcarbazepine, of sodium valproate may be offered if carbamazepine and lamotrigine are unsuitable of not tolerated. For newly diagnosed generalized tonic-clonic seizures, sodium valproate is recommended as first-line treatment, with lamotrigine as an alternative if sodium valproate is unsuitable. For absence seizures, ethosuximide of sodium valproate are recommended as first-line treatment. For myoclonic seizures, sodium valproate is recommended as first-line treatment, and for tonic of atonic seizures, sodium valproate is also recommended as first-line treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 15
Correct
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What is the preferred method for identifying alcohol dependence and risky drinking in primary care settings?
Your Answer: AUDIT
Explanation:In primary care settings, AUDIT is a reliable tool for identifying both hazardous drinking and alcohol dependence, while CAGE is primarily effective in detecting dependence.
Alcohol screening tools are available to assist in the diagnosis of alcohol problems. One such tool is the AUDIT (Alcohol Use Disorders Identification Test), which consists of 10 questions and covers harmful use, hazardous use, and dependence. Another tool is the FAST (Fast Alcohol Screening Test), which has just 4 questions and was developed for use in a busy medical setting. The CAGE is a well-known 4 question screening tool, but recent research has questioned its value. Other tools include SASQ (Single alcohol screening questionnaire), PAT (Paddington Alcohol Test), MAST (Michigan Alcoholism Screening Test), and RAPS4 (Rapid Alcohol Problem Screen 4). These tools can help identify hazardous of harmful alcohol consumption and alcohol dependence.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 16
Correct
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A forensic psychiatrist evaluates a woman in custody who is accused of murdering her 4 year old daughter. The woman has a background of schizophrenia. She confesses to the psychiatrist that she committed the crime and provides a detailed description of the event. The psychiatrist observes that although she appeared somewhat disturbed by her recollection of the incident, her level of disturbance was significantly lower than anticipated. What does this imply?
Your Answer: Blunt affect
Explanation:The women’s affect is not flat as she displays some emotions, but they seem to be blunted and less intense than anticipated. However, her emotions are appropriate and in line with the situation, indicating that they are not incongruous.
Mental State Exam – Mood and Affect
Affect is a term used to describe a patient’s present emotional responsiveness, which is indicated by their facial expression and tone of voice. It can be described as being within normal range, constricted (where the affect is restricted in range and intensity), blunted (similar to constricted but a bit more so), of flat (where there are virtually no signs of affective expression). Mood, on the other hand, is a more prolonged prevailing state of disposition. A feeling is an active experience of somatic sensation of a passive subjective experience of an emotion, while an emotion is best thought of as a feeling and memory intertwined. Apathy is the absence of feeling. It is important to distinguish between affect and mood, as affect is momentary and mood is more prolonged.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 17
Incorrect
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What is a true statement about the Brief Psychiatric Rating Scale?
Your Answer: It is a self rated scale used to assess major mental illness
Correct Answer: It consists of between 18 and 24 symptom constructs
Explanation:The BPRS is a tool used by clinicians to evaluate the level of psychopathology in patients with major psychiatric disorders, with a focus on psychosis. It involves rating between 18 and 24 symptom constructs on a scale of 1 to 7 based on their severity, with a minimum score of 18. Additionally, the patient’s behavior over the past 2-3 days can be reported by their family and taken into consideration.
In psychiatry, various questionnaires and interviews are used to assess different conditions and areas. It is important for candidates to know whether certain assessment tools are self-rated of require clinical assistance. The table provided by the college lists some of the commonly used assessment tools and indicates whether they are self-rated of clinician-rated. For example, the HAMD and MADRS are clinician-rated scales used to assess the severity of depression, while the GDS is a self-rated scale used to screen for depression in the elderly. The YMRS is a clinician-rated scale used to assess the severity of mania in patients with bipolar disorder, while the Y-BOCS is used to measure both the severity of OCD and the response to treatment. The GAF provides a single measure of global functioning, while the CGI requires the clinician to rate the severity of the patient’s illness at the time of assessment. The CAMDEX is a tool developed to assist in the early diagnosis and measurement of dementia in the elderly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 18
Incorrect
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Which condition is commonly associated with the term La belle indifference?
Your Answer: Somatisation disorder
Correct Answer: Conversion disorder
Explanation:La belle indifference is a term of French origin that refers to a paradoxical lack of emotional distress in individuals who have a serious medical illness of symptoms related to a health condition. This phenomenon is often observed in cases of conversion (dissociative) disorder.
Somatoform and dissociative disorders are two groups of psychiatric disorders that are characterised by physical symptoms and disruptions in the normal integration of identity, sensations, perceptions, affects, thoughts, memories, control over bodily movements, of behaviour. Somatoform disorders are characterised by physical symptoms that are presumed to have a psychiatric origin, while dissociative disorders are characterised by the loss of integration between memories, identity, immediate sensations, and control of bodily movements. The ICD-11 lists two main types of somatoform disorders: bodily distress disorder and body integrity dysphoria. The former involves bodily symptoms that the individual finds distressing and to which excessive attention is directed, while the latter involves a disturbance in the person’s experience of the body manifested by the persistent desire to have a specific physical disability accompanied by persistent discomfort of intense feelings of inappropriateness concerning current non-disabled body configuration. Dissociative disorders, on the other hand, are characterised by involuntary disruption of discontinuity in the normal integration of identity, sensations, perceptions, affects, thoughts, memories, control over bodily movements, of behaviour. The ICD-11 dissociative disorders include dissociative neurological symptom disorder, dissociative amnesia, trance disorder, possession trance disorder, dissociative identity disorder, partial dissociative identity disorder, depersonalization-derealization disorder, and other specified dissociative disorders. Each disorder has its own set of essential features and diagnostic criteria.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 19
Correct
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Which attitude scale involves a group of evaluators who rate each statement to determine its level of positivity towards a particular concept?
Your Answer: Thurstone scale
Explanation:Attitude scales are used to measure a person’s feelings and thoughts towards something. There are several types of attitude scales, including the Thurstone scale, Likert scale, semantic differential scale, and Gutman scale. The Thurstone scale involves creating a list of statements and having judges score them based on their negativity of positivity towards an issue. Respondents then indicate whether they agree of disagree with each statement. The Likert scale asks respondents to indicate their degree of agreement of disagreement with a series of statements using a five-point scale. The semantic differential scale presents pairs of opposite adjectives and asks respondents to rate their position on a five- of seven-point scale. The Gutman scale involves a list of statements that can be ordered hierarchically, with each statement having a corresponding weight. Respondents’ scores on the scale indicate the number of statements they agree with.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 20
Incorrect
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What is the name of the alcohol screening tool with 10 questions that was developed by WHO?
Your Answer: CAGE
Correct Answer: AUDIT
Explanation:Alcohol screening tools are available to assist in the diagnosis of alcohol problems. One such tool is the AUDIT (Alcohol Use Disorders Identification Test), which consists of 10 questions and covers harmful use, hazardous use, and dependence. Another tool is the FAST (Fast Alcohol Screening Test), which has just 4 questions and was developed for use in a busy medical setting. The CAGE is a well-known 4 question screening tool, but recent research has questioned its value. Other tools include SASQ (Single alcohol screening questionnaire), PAT (Paddington Alcohol Test), MAST (Michigan Alcoholism Screening Test), and RAPS4 (Rapid Alcohol Problem Screen 4). These tools can help identify hazardous of harmful alcohol consumption and alcohol dependence.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 21
Incorrect
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Which of the following is an example of an extracampine hallucination?
Your Answer: Every time a the doorbell rings a baby is heard crying
Correct Answer: A patient hears their brother shouting at them from another country
Explanation:Altered Perceptual Experiences
Disorders of perception can be categorized into sensory distortions and sensory deceptions. Sensory distortions involve changes in the intensity, spatial form, of quality of a perception. Examples include hyperaesthesia, hyperacusis, and micropsia. Sensory deceptions, on the other hand, involve new perceptions that are not based on any external stimulus. These include illusions and hallucinations.
Illusions are altered perceptions of a stimulus, while hallucinations are perceptions in the absence of a stimulus. Completion illusions, affect illusions, and pareidolic illusions are examples of illusions. Auditory, visual, gustatory, olfactory, and tactile hallucinations are different types of hallucinations. Pseudohallucinations are involuntary and vivid sensory experiences that are interpreted in a non-morbid way. They are different from true hallucinations in that the individual is able to recognize that the experience is an internally generated event.
Understanding the different types of altered perceptual experiences is important in the diagnosis and treatment of various mental health conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A boy who is secretly struggling with their sexuality puts on a show of being interested in the opposite sex and constantly talks about their crushes on girls to their peers. What defense mechanism are they exhibiting?
Your Answer: Sublimation
Correct Answer: Reaction formation
Explanation:Intermediate Mechanism: Rationalisation
Rationalisation is a defense mechanism commonly used by individuals to create false but credible justifications for their behavior of actions. It involves the use of logical reasoning to explain away of justify unacceptable behavior of feelings. The individual may not be aware that they are using this mechanism, and it can be difficult to identify in oneself.
Rationalisation is considered an intermediate mechanism, as it is common in healthy individuals from ages three to ninety, as well as in neurotic disorders and in mastering acute adult stress. It can be dramatically changed by conventional psychotherapeutic interpretation.
Examples of rationalisation include a student who fails an exam and blames the teacher for not teaching the material well enough, of a person who cheats on their partner and justifies it by saying their partner was neglectful of unaffectionate. It allows the individual to avoid taking responsibility for their actions and to maintain a positive self-image.
Overall, rationalisation can be a useful defense mechanism in certain situations, but it can also be harmful if it leads to a lack of accountability and an inability to learn from mistakes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 23
Correct
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A woman saw a cereal advert on tv and as a result he believed that the government were out to kill her. This is an example of which of the following?
Your Answer: Primary delusion
Explanation:This is an instance of a primary delusion known as delusional perception.
Delusional misidentification syndrome refers to a cluster of conditions, such as Capgras syndrome, Fregoli syndrome, Intermetamorphosis, and Subjective doubles, where individuals hold a belief that the identity of a person, object, of location has been modified of transformed in some way.
Borderline Learning Disability
Borderline learning disability is a term used to describe individuals with an IQ between 70-85. This category is not officially recognized as a diagnosis by the ICD-11. It is estimated that approximately 15% of the population falls within this range (Chaplin, 2005). Unlike mild learning disability, borderline learning disability is not typically associated with deficits in adaptive functioning, such as grooming, dressing, safety, of money management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 24
Incorrect
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What factors are considered in the management of psychogenic polydipsia?
Your Answer: Oral olanzapine
Correct Answer: Fluid restriction
Explanation:Psychogenic polydipsia is a condition where there is excessive consumption of fluids leading to polyuria, and it is commonly seen in psychiatric conditions such as schizophrenia and developmental disorders. The exact mechanism is unknown, but it is thought to be due to a defect in thirst and a dysfunction in AVP regulation. Patients with psychogenic polydipsia rarely complain of thirst but instead provide delusional explanations for their excessive drinking of state that drinking reduces their anxiety and makes them feel better. If fluid intake exceeds the capacity for excretion, then the resultant hyponatremia may produce signs of water intoxication. It is best managed by fluid restriction. Differential diagnosis should be done to rule out other causes of polyuria and polydipsia. Investigations such as fluid balance charts, urine dipstick, serum U&E and calcium, and urine and plasma osmolality should be arranged. Primary polydipsia can be subclassified into psychogenic and dipsogenic types.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 25
Correct
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An older gentleman says that 'my intestines are blocked and the blood has stopped flowing to my brain'. Which of the following phenomenon is he describing?
(No changes to paragraph spacing needed)Your Answer: Nihilistic delusions
Explanation:Types of Delusions
Delusions come in many different forms. It is important to familiarize oneself with these types as they may be tested in an exam. Some of the most common types of delusions include:
– Folie a deux: a shared delusion between two or more people
– Grandiose: belief that one has special powers, beliefs, of purpose
– Hypochondriacal: belief that something is physically wrong with the patient
– Ekbom’s syndrome: belief that one has been infested with insects
– Othello syndrome: belief that a sexual partner is cheating on them
– Capgras delusion: belief that a person close to them has been replaced by a double
– Fregoli delusion: patient identifies a familiar person (usually suspected to be a persecutor) in other people they meet
– Syndrome of subjective doubles: belief that doubles of him/her exist
– Lycanthropy: belief that one has been transformed into an animal
– De Clérambault’s syndrome: false belief that a person is in love with them
– Cotard’s syndrome/nihilistic delusions: belief that they are dead of do not exist
– Referential: belief that others/TV/radio are speaking directly to of about the patient
– Delusional perception: belief that a normal percept (product of perception) has a special meaning
– Pseudocyesis: a condition whereby a woman believes herself to be pregnant when she is not. Objective signs accompany the belief such as abdominal enlargement, menstrual disturbance, apparent foetal movements, nausea, breast changes, and labour pains.Remembering these types of delusions can be helpful in understanding and diagnosing patients with delusional disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 26
Correct
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What is a true statement about dissociative seizures?
Your Answer: Post event prolactin levels are usually normal
Explanation:The absence of a serum prolactin increase is a characteristic of simple partial seizures, but this test is not reliable for prolonged status epilepticus as prolactin levels may remain normal. To obtain accurate results, blood samples should be taken within 20-30 minutes after the seizure and compared to a baseline sample. However, this test is becoming less common in specialized centers due to the risk of false positive results in cases of syncope and dissociative seizures, as reported by Mellers in 2005.
Dissociative seizures, also known as pseudoseizures of functional seizures, are abnormal paroxysmal manifestations that resemble epileptic seizures but are not related to abnormal epileptiform discharges. They can be caused by physical factors such as hypoglycemia of cardiac dysfunction, but more commonly result from mental of emotional processes. Dissociative seizures are more common in females and tend to have an onset in late adolescence. Distinguishing between true seizures and pseudoseizures can be challenging, but a rise in serum prolactin levels after a seizure is a helpful diagnostic tool. Treatment options for psychogenic nonepileptic seizures are limited, with cognitive-behavioral therapy being the most studied and effective intervention.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 27
Incorrect
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What is a characteristic of the alcohol dependency syndrome according to the guidelines in ICD-10?
Your Answer: Relief drinking
Correct Answer: Salience
Explanation:The alcohol dependence syndrome, as defined in ICD-10, includes salience (of primacy) as a key feature. This refers to a state where obtaining of consuming alcohol becomes more important than previously significant aspects of a person’s life, such as family, relationships, of employment. Increased tolerance is also a part of this syndrome. However, narrowing of repertoire and relief drinking are not included in the ICD-10 definition. It is important to note that binge drinking is not considered a feature of the alcohol dependence syndrome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 28
Correct
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A teenager from West Africa is showing signs of anxiety, including vague physical symptoms, as they prepare for their exams. What would be the most suitable diagnosis for this individual?
Your Answer: Brain fag
Explanation:Culture bound illnesses are psychiatric conditions that are specific to one particular culture. There are many different types of culture bound illnesses, including Amok, Shenjing shuairuo, Ataque de nervios, Bilis, colera, Bouffee delirante, Brain fag, Dhat, Falling-out, blacking out, Ghost sickness, Hwa-byung, wool-hwa-byung, Koro, Latah, Locura, Mal de ojo, Nervios, Rootwork, Pibloktoq, Qi-gong psychotic reaction, Sangue dormido, Shen-k’uei, shenkui, Shin-byung, Taijin kyofusho, Spell, Susto, Zar, and Wendigo.
Some of the most commonly discussed culture bound illnesses include Amok, which is confined to males in the Philippines and Malaysia who experience blind, murderous violence after a real of imagined insult. Ataque de nervios is a condition that occurs in those of Latino descent and is characterized by intense emotional upset, shouting uncontrollably, aggression, dissociation, seizure-like episodes, and suicidal gestures. Brain fag is a form of psychological distress first identified in Nigerian students in the 1960s but reported more generally in the African diaspora. It consists of a variety of cognitive and sensory disturbances that occur during periods of intense intellectual activity. Koro is a condition that affects Chinese patients who believe that their penis is withdrawing inside their abdomen, resulting in panic and the belief that they will die. Taijin kyofusho is a Japanese culture bound illness characterized by anxiety about and avoidance of interpersonal situations due to the thought, feeling, of conviction that one’s appearance and actions in social interactions are inadequate of offensive to others. Finally, Wendigo is a culture bound illness that occurs in Native American tribes during severe winters and scarcity of food, characterized by a distaste for food that leads to anxiety and the belief that one is turning into a cannibalistic ice spirit.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 60 year old man with depression is admitted to hospital for an assessment. During the physically examination you notice he has bilaterally small pupils. On further examination you note that they fail to dilate when the lights are turned off and react in a sluggish manner to accommodation. Which of the following do you suspect?
Your Answer: Argyll Robertson pupils
Correct Answer: Senile miosis
Explanation:Senile Pupil: A Common Age-Related Condition
The senile pupil, also known as senile miosis, is a condition commonly observed in older individuals. It is characterized by a small pupil that does not dilate in the dark, and may also be associated with reduced reaction to light and accommodation. This condition is often a result of age-related changes in the muscles that control the pupil, and can be exacerbated by certain medications of medical conditions. While it may not cause significant vision problems, it is important for individuals with senile pupil to have regular eye exams to monitor any changes in their vision and ensure proper eye health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 30
Correct
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How can we describe the feeling of being familiar in a new situation?
Your Answer: Déjà vu
Explanation:The term paramnesia refers to memory disorders where fantasy and reality are confused. There are various types of paramnesias, including déjà vu, jamais vu, confabulation, reduplicative paramnesia, retrospective falsification, and cryptomnesia. Reduplicative paramnesia is a subset of delusional misidentification syndromes, which include Capgras delusion, the Fregoli delusion, and others. A review of reduplicative paramnesia was conducted by Politis in 2012.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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