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  • Question 1 - Which cultural-specific illness is implied by the belief of a Haitian man that...

    Incorrect

    • Which cultural-specific illness is implied by the belief of a Haitian man that his depression was caused by an envious neighbor who sent him an evil spirit due to his business achievements?

      Your Answer: Khyâl cap

      Correct Answer: Maladi moun

      Explanation:

      Culture bound illnesses are psychiatric conditions that are specific to one particular culture. There are many different types of culture bound illnesses, including Amok, Shenjing shuairuo, Ataque de nervios, Bilis, colera, Bouffee delirante, Brain fag, Dhat, Falling-out, blacking out, Ghost sickness, Hwa-byung, wool-hwa-byung, Koro, Latah, Locura, Mal de ojo, Nervios, Rootwork, Pibloktoq, Qi-gong psychotic reaction, Sangue dormido, Shen-k’uei, shenkui, Shin-byung, Taijin kyofusho, Spell, Susto, Zar, and Wendigo.

      Some of the most commonly discussed culture bound illnesses include Amok, which is confined to males in the Philippines and Malaysia who experience blind, murderous violence after a real of imagined insult. Ataque de nervios is a condition that occurs in those of Latino descent and is characterized by intense emotional upset, shouting uncontrollably, aggression, dissociation, seizure-like episodes, and suicidal gestures. Brain fag is a form of psychological distress first identified in Nigerian students in the 1960s but reported more generally in the African diaspora. It consists of a variety of cognitive and sensory disturbances that occur during periods of intense intellectual activity. Koro is a condition that affects Chinese patients who believe that their penis is withdrawing inside their abdomen, resulting in panic and the belief that they will die. Taijin kyofusho is a Japanese culture bound illness characterized by anxiety about and avoidance of interpersonal situations due to the thought, feeling, of conviction that one’s appearance and actions in social interactions are inadequate of offensive to others. Finally, Wendigo is a culture bound illness that occurs in Native American tribes during severe winters and scarcity of food, characterized by a distaste for food that leads to anxiety and the belief that one is turning into a cannibalistic ice spirit.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      10.3
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Which type of injury of damage typically leads to utilization behaviour? ...

    Correct

    • Which type of injury of damage typically leads to utilization behaviour?

      Your Answer: Frontal lobe

      Explanation:

      Abnormal Motor Behaviours Associated with Utilization Behaviour

      Utilization behaviour (UB) is a condition where patients exhibit exaggerated and inappropriate motor responses to environmental cues and objects. This behaviour is automatic and instrumentally correct, but not contextually appropriate. For instance, a patient may start brushing their teeth when presented with a toothbrush, even in a setting where it is not expected. UB is caused by frontal lobe lesions that result in a loss of inhibitory control.

      Other motor abnormalities associated with UB include imitation behaviour, where patients tend to imitate the examiner’s behaviour, and the alien hand sign, where patients experience bizarre hand movements that they cannot control. Manual groping behaviour is also observed, where patients automatically manipulate objects placed in front of them. The grasp reflex, which is normal in infants, should not be present in children and adults. It is an automatic tendency to grip objects of stimuli, such as the examiner’s hand.

      Environmental Dependency Syndrome is another condition associated with UB. It describes deficits in personal control of action and an overreliance on social and physical environmental stimuli to guide behaviour in a social context. For example, a patient may start commenting on pictures in an examiner’s office, believing it to be an art gallery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      5.1
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - What is located within Brodmann area 22? ...

    Correct

    • What is located within Brodmann area 22?

      Your Answer: Wernicke's area

      Explanation:

      Broca’s and Wernicke’s are two types of expressive dysphasia, which is characterized by difficulty producing speech despite intact comprehension. Dysarthria is a type of expressive dysphasia caused by damage to the speech production apparatus, while Broca’s aphasia is caused by damage to the area of the brain responsible for speech production, specifically Broca’s area located in Brodmann areas 44 and 45. On the other hand, Wernicke’s aphasia is a type of receptive of fluent aphasia caused by damage to the comprehension of speech, while the actual production of speech remains normal. Wernicke’s area is located in the posterior part of the superior temporal gyrus in the dominant hemisphere, within Brodmann area 22.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      5.2
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - What is an example of a drug that acts as an antagonist for...

    Correct

    • What is an example of a drug that acts as an antagonist for NMDA receptors?

      Your Answer: Memantine

      Explanation:

      Pharmacological management of dementia involves the use of acetylcholinesterase inhibitors (AChE inhibitors) and memantine. AChE inhibitors prevent the breakdown of acetylcholine, which is deficient in Alzheimer’s due to the loss of cholinergic neurons. Donepezil, galantamine, and rivastigmine are commonly used AChE inhibitors in the management of Alzheimer’s. However, gastrointestinal side effects such as nausea and vomiting are common with these drugs.

      Memantine, on the other hand, is an NMDA receptor antagonist that blocks the effects of pathologically elevated levels of glutamate that may lead to neuronal dysfunction. It has a half-life of 60-100 hours and is primarily renally eliminated. Common adverse effects of memantine include somnolence, dizziness, hypertension, dyspnea, constipation, headache, and elevated liver function tests.

      Overall, pharmacological management of dementia aims to improve cognitive function and slow down the progression of the disease. However, it is important to note that these drugs do not cure dementia and may only provide temporary relief of symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      4.2
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A drug that has a constant elimination rate regardless of its concentration exhibits...

    Correct

    • A drug that has a constant elimination rate regardless of its concentration exhibits what characteristic?

      Your Answer: Zero order kinetics

      Explanation:

      The half-life of a drug is the time taken for its concentration to fall to one half of its value. Drugs with long half-lives may require a loading dose to achieve therapeutic plasma concentrations rapidly. It takes about 4.5 half-lives to reach steady state plasma levels. Most drugs follow first order kinetics, where a constant fraction of the drug in the body is eliminated per unit time. However, some drugs may follow zero order kinetics, where the plasma concentration of the drug decreases at a constant rate, despite the concentration of the drug. For drugs with nonlinear kinetics of dose-dependent kinetics, the relationship between the AUC of CSS and dose is not linear, and the kinetic parameters may vary depending on the administered dose.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      5.7
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - From which substance is melatonin produced? ...

    Incorrect

    • From which substance is melatonin produced?

      Your Answer: Histamine

      Correct Answer: Serotonin

      Explanation:

      Melatonin: The Hormone of Darkness

      Melatonin is a hormone that is produced in the pineal gland from serotonin. This hormone is known to be released in higher amounts during the night, especially in dark environments. Melatonin plays a crucial role in regulating the sleep-wake cycle and is often referred to as the hormone of darkness.

      The production of melatonin is influenced by the amount of light that enters the eyes. When it is dark, the pineal gland releases more melatonin, which helps to promote sleep. On the other hand, when it is light, the production of melatonin is suppressed, which helps to keep us awake and alert.

      Melatonin is also known to have antioxidant properties and may help to protect the body against oxidative stress. It has been suggested that melatonin may have a role in the prevention of certain diseases, such as cancer and neurodegenerative disorders.

      Overall, melatonin is an important hormone that plays a crucial role in regulating our sleep-wake cycle and may have other health benefits as well.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      11.4
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - What is the probable diagnosis for an adult physicist who avoids teaching and...

    Correct

    • What is the probable diagnosis for an adult physicist who avoids teaching and publishing, is known for walking barefoot and dressing casually, and prefers solitude over socializing with colleagues and students?

      Your Answer: Schizoid personality disorder

      Explanation:

      Schizoid personality disorder is a personality disorder that is only recognized in the ICD-10. It is characterized by a lack of enjoyment in activities, emotional detachment, difficulty expressing emotions, indifference to praise of criticism, little interest in sexual experiences, a preference for solitary activities, excessive introspection, a lack of close relationships, and insensitivity to social norms. When diagnosing this disorder, it is important to differentiate it from an autistic spectrum disorder. One way to do this is to look for a lack of reliance on routines and rituals, as well as a lack of desire for friendship of relationships. While individuals with an autistic spectrum disorder may struggle with relationships, they typically desire them and experience feelings of loneliness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Diagnosis
      18.1
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - What is the term used to describe the condition where a person cannot...

    Correct

    • What is the term used to describe the condition where a person cannot identify faces?

      Your Answer: Prosopagnosia

      Explanation:

      Agnosia is a condition where a person loses the ability to recognize objects, persons, sounds, shapes, of smells, despite having no significant memory loss of defective senses. There are different types of agnosia, such as prosopagnosia (inability to recognize familiar faces), anosognosia (inability to recognize one’s own condition/illness), autotopagnosia (inability to orient parts of the body), phonagnosia (inability to recognize familiar voices), simultanagnosia (inability to appreciate two objects in the visual field at the same time), and astereoagnosia (inability to recognize objects by touch).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      7.8
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - What is the mechanism of action of dexamphetamine in treating ADHD? ...

    Correct

    • What is the mechanism of action of dexamphetamine in treating ADHD?

      Your Answer: Inhibiting dopamine and noradrenaline reuptake

      Explanation:

      ADHD medications can be classified into stimulant and non-stimulant drugs. The therapeutic effects of these drugs are believed to be mediated through the action of noradrenaline in the prefrontal cortex. Common side effects of these drugs include decreased appetite, insomnia, nervousness, headache, and nausea. Stimulant drugs like dexamphetamine, methylphenidate, and lisdexamfetamine inhibit the reuptake of dopamine and noradrenaline. Non-stimulant drugs like atomoxetine, guanfacine, and clonidine work by increasing noradrenaline levels in the synaptic cleft through different mechanisms. The most common side effects of these drugs are decreased appetite, somnolence, headache, and abdominal pain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      19.2
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - In a study of a new statin therapy for primary prevention of ischaemic...

    Incorrect

    • In a study of a new statin therapy for primary prevention of ischaemic heart disease in a diabetic population over a five year period, 1000 patients were randomly assigned to receive the new therapy and 1000 were given a placebo. The results showed that 150 patients in the placebo group had a myocardial infarction (MI) compared to 100 patients in the statin group. What is the number needed to treat (NNT) to prevent one MI in this population?

      Your Answer: 50

      Correct Answer: 20

      Explanation:

      – Treating 1000 patients with a new statin for five years prevented 50 MIs.
      – The number needed to treat (NNT) to prevent one MI is 20 (1000/50).
      – NNT provides information on treatment efficacy beyond statistical significance.
      – Based on these data, treating as few as 20 patients over five years may prevent an infarct.
      – Cost economic data can be calculated by factoring in drug costs and costs of treating and rehabilitating a patient with an MI.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
      82.3
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - How can pharmacokinetic drug interactions be defined? ...

    Correct

    • How can pharmacokinetic drug interactions be defined?

      Your Answer: Enzyme induction

      Explanation:

      Allosteric modulators bind to different sites on the receptor than the probe molecules (such as agonists of radioligands), and can alter the way they interact. This can lead to modifications in the effectiveness and/of strength of agonists.

      Drug Interactions: Understanding the Different Types

      Drug interactions can occur in different ways, and it is important to understand the different types to avoid potential harm. Pharmacokinetic drug interactions happen when one drug affects the metabolism, absorption, of excretion of another drug. This can be due to enzyme induction of inhibition, changes in gastrointestinal tract motility and pH, chelation, competition for renal tubular transport, of changes in protein binding. On the other hand, pharmacodynamic drug interactions occur when one drug directly alters the effect of another drug. This can happen through synergism, antagonism, of interaction at receptors, such as allosteric modulation. It is important to note that pharmacodynamic drug interactions do not involve any absorption, distribution, metabolism, of excretion processes directly. By understanding the different types of drug interactions, healthcare professionals can better manage patients’ medications and prevent potential adverse effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      24.4
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Functions of the glossopharyngeal nerve include the following except: ...

    Incorrect

    • Functions of the glossopharyngeal nerve include the following except:

      Your Answer: Transmission of afferent impulses from the carotid baro- and chemoreceptors to the nucleus tractus solitarius in the medulla

      Correct Answer: Proprioceptive input from muscles of the tongue and larynx

      Explanation:

      The glossopharyngeal nerve is a mixed nerve consisting of both sensory and motor fibers. It has several branches and five distinct general functions:
      Branchial motor- Special visceral efferent- supplies the Stylopharyngeus muscle and superior constrictor muscle.
      Visceral motor- general visceral efferent- provides parasympathetic innervation of the parotid gland.
      Visceral sensory- general visceral afferent- carries visceral sensory information from the carotid sinus and carotid body.
      General sensory- general somatic afferent- provides general sensory information from the inner surface of the tympanic membrane, upper pharynx and posterior one third of the tongue.
      Visceral afferent- special visceral afferent- provides taste sensation from the posterior one third of the tongue including the circumvallate papillae.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neuro-anatomy
      23.4
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - What case prompted the creation of the Fraser Guidelines? ...

    Incorrect

    • What case prompted the creation of the Fraser Guidelines?

      Your Answer: Cowart

      Correct Answer: Gillick

      Explanation:

      Gillick Competency and Fraser Guidelines

      Gillick competency and Fraser guidelines refer to a legal case which looked specifically at whether doctors should be able to give contraceptive advice of treatment to under 16-year-olds without parental consent. But since then, they have been more widely used to help assess whether a child has the maturity to make their own decisions and to understand the implications of those decisions.

      In 1982, Mrs Victoria Gillick took her local health authority (West Norfolk and Wisbech Area Health Authority) and the Department of Health and Social Security to court in an attempt to stop doctors from giving contraceptive advice of treatment to under 16-year-olds without parental consent.

      The case went to the High Court where Mr Justice Woolf dismissed Mrs Gillick’s claims. The Court of Appeal reversed this decision, but in 1985 it went to the House of Lords and the Law Lords (Lord Scarman, Lord Fraser and Lord Bridge) ruled in favour of the original judgement delivered by Mr Justice Woolf.

      The Fraser Guidelines were laid down by Lord Fraser in the House of Lords’ case and state that it is lawful for doctors to provide contraceptive advice and treatment without parental consent providing that they are satisfied that:

      – The young person will understand the professional’s advice
      – The young person cannot be persuaded to inform their parents
      – The young person is likely to begin, of to continue having, sexual intercourse with of without contraceptive treatment
      – Unless the young person receives contraceptive treatment, their physical of mental health, of both, are likely to suffer
      – The young person’s best interests require them to receive contraceptive advice of treatment with of without parental consent.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      3.4
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Which option is not a type of descriptive statistic? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which option is not a type of descriptive statistic?

      Your Answer: Mean

      Correct Answer: Student's t-test

      Explanation:

      A t-test is a statistical method used to determine if there is a significant difference between the means of two groups. It is a type of statistical inference.

      Types of Statistics: Descriptive and Inferential

      Statistics can be divided into two categories: descriptive and inferential. Descriptive statistics are used to describe and summarize data without making any generalizations beyond the data at hand. On the other hand, inferential statistics are used to make inferences about a population based on sample data.

      Descriptive statistics are useful for identifying patterns and trends in data. Common measures used to describe a data set include measures of central tendency (such as the mean, median, and mode) and measures of variability of dispersion (such as the standard deviation of variance).

      Inferential statistics, on the other hand, are used to make predictions of draw conclusions about a population based on sample data. These statistics are also used to determine the probability that observed differences between groups are reliable and not due to chance.

      Overall, both descriptive and inferential statistics play important roles in analyzing and interpreting data. Descriptive statistics help us understand the characteristics of a data set, while inferential statistics allow us to make predictions and draw conclusions about larger populations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
      18
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - What is the definition of point prevalence for a medical condition? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the definition of point prevalence for a medical condition?

      Your Answer: The proportion of a population that either has of has had a specific disease at a particular point in time

      Correct Answer: Number of existing cases in a specified population during a given time period

      Explanation:

      The prevalence of a disease during a specific time period is the proportion of the population affected. Point prevalence refers to the number of current cases at a specific point in time, while lifetime prevalence refers to the proportion of the population that has ever had the disease. Incidence refers to the rate of new cases over a period of time in a specific population. The total disease burden in a population is represented by the crude rate of people with the disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology
      0.9
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Which of the following cannot trigger abnormal wave patterns on the EEG? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following cannot trigger abnormal wave patterns on the EEG?

      Your Answer: Cold environments

      Explanation:

      Electroencephalography

      Electroencephalography (EEG) is a clinical test that records the brain’s spontaneous electrical activity over a short period of time using multiple electrodes placed on the scalp. It is mainly used to rule out organic conditions and can help differentiate dementia from other disorders such as metabolic encephalopathies, CJD, herpes encephalitis, and non-convulsive status epilepticus. EEG can also distinguish possible psychotic episodes and acute confusional states from non-convulsive status epilepticus.

      Not all abnormal EEGs represent an underlying condition, and psychotropic medications can affect EEG findings. EEG abnormalities can also be triggered purposely by activation procedures such as hyperventilation, photic stimulation, certain drugs, and sleep deprivation.

      Specific waveforms are seen in an EEG, including delta, theta, alpha, sigma, beta, and gamma waves. Delta waves are found frontally in adults and posteriorly in children during slow wave sleep, and excessive amounts when awake may indicate pathology. Theta waves are generally seen in young children, drowsy and sleeping adults, and during meditation. Alpha waves are seen posteriorly when relaxed and when the eyes are closed, and are also seen in meditation. Sigma waves are bursts of oscillatory activity that occur in stage 2 sleep. Beta waves are seen frontally when busy of concentrating, and gamma waves are seen in advanced/very experienced meditators.

      Certain conditions are associated with specific EEG changes, such as nonspecific slowing in early CJD, low voltage EEG in Huntington’s, diffuse slowing in encephalopathy, and reduced alpha and beta with increased delta and theta in Alzheimer’s.

      Common epileptiform patterns include spikes, spike/sharp waves, and spike-waves. Medications can have important effects on EEG findings, with clozapine decreasing alpha and increasing delta and theta, lithium increasing all waveforms, lamotrigine decreasing all waveforms, and valproate having inconclusive effects on delta and theta and increasing beta.

      Overall, EEG is a useful tool in clinical contexts for ruling out organic conditions and differentiating between various disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      34.7
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - John is a 35-year-old businessman. He is seeking therapy for his anxiety and...

    Incorrect

    • John is a 35-year-old businessman. He is seeking therapy for his anxiety and the therapist is struggling to understand his constant need for attention and validation. They are also confused by his rapid mood swings, going from feeling hopeless and defeated to being overly confident and grandiose. He often shows up to sessions in flashy clothing and talks about his accomplishments and successes. His wife mentions that he has always been this way and that his charisma was what initially attracted her to him.

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Dependent personality disorder

      Correct Answer: Histrionic personality disorder

      Explanation:

      John’s behavior is causing distress and impairment in his ability to participate in family therapy and may have contributed to his child’s depression. His behavior is consistent with histrionic personality disorder, which is only found in the ICD-10. This disorder is characterized by self-dramatization, exaggerated emotions, suggestibility, a shallow and unstable emotional state, a constant need for attention and excitement, inappropriate seductive behavior, and an excessive concern with physical appearance. Other associated features may include egocentricity, self-indulgence, a constant desire for appreciation, easily hurt feelings, and manipulative behavior to meet personal needs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Diagnosis
      7.7
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Who first introduced the idea of the 'schizophrenogenic parent'? ...

    Incorrect

    • Who first introduced the idea of the 'schizophrenogenic parent'?

      Your Answer: Kraepelin

      Correct Answer: Fromm-Reichmann

      Explanation:

      The term ‘schizophrenogenic mother’ was proposed by Fromm-Reichmann, a contemporary of Freud, who believed that defective parenting caused the disorder. However, this concept has since been proven to be unfounded. Lidz later examined the impact of parents’ socialization on a child’s psychological health, further exploring this concept. Bleuler is credited with coining the term ‘schizophrenia’, while Kraepelin had previously described ‘dementia praecox’.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Advanced Psychological Processes And Treatments
      4.8
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - What is the minimum number of standard deviations below the average that qualifies...

    Incorrect

    • What is the minimum number of standard deviations below the average that qualifies a person as having a learning disability?

      Your Answer: 1.5

      Correct Answer: 2

      Explanation:

      Classification of Intellectual Disability

      Intellectual disability affects approximately 2% of the general population, with an estimated 828,000 adults aged 18 of older affected in England alone. Those with an IQ below 70 are considered to have an intellectual disability, with the average IQ being 100. The severity of intellectual disability is categorized based on IQ scores, with mild intellectual disability being the most common (85% of cases) and profound intellectual disability being the least common (1-2% of cases). People with intellectual disability may require varying levels of support in their daily lives, depending on their individual needs. It is important to use the preferred term ‘people with intellectual disability’ when referring to individuals with this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychological Development
      9.1
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A hoarse voice and difficulty swallowing (dysphagia) are symptoms of a lesion in...

    Incorrect

    • A hoarse voice and difficulty swallowing (dysphagia) are symptoms of a lesion in which cranial nerve?

      Your Answer: Glossopharyngeal

      Correct Answer: Vagus

      Explanation:

      Lesions of the vagus nerve commonly result in the following symptoms: a raspy of weak voice, difficulty swallowing, absence of the gag reflex, deviation of the uvula away from the affected side, and an inability to elevate the palate.

      Overview of Cranial Nerves and Their Functions

      The cranial nerves are a complex system of nerves that originate from the brain and control various functions of the head and neck. There are twelve cranial nerves, each with a specific function and origin. The following table provides a simplified overview of the cranial nerves, including their origin, skull exit, modality, and functions.

      The first cranial nerve, the olfactory nerve, originates from the telencephalon and exits through the cribriform plate. It is a sensory nerve that controls the sense of smell. The second cranial nerve, the optic nerve, originates from the diencephalon and exits through the optic foramen. It is a sensory nerve that controls vision.

      The third cranial nerve, the oculomotor nerve, originates from the midbrain and exits through the superior orbital fissure. It is a motor nerve that controls eye movement, pupillary constriction, and lens accommodation. The fourth cranial nerve, the trochlear nerve, also originates from the midbrain and exits through the superior orbital fissure. It is a motor nerve that controls eye movement.

      The fifth cranial nerve, the trigeminal nerve, originates from the pons and exits through different foramina depending on the division. It is a mixed nerve that controls chewing and sensation of the anterior 2/3 of the scalp. It also tenses the tympanic membrane to dampen loud noises.

      The sixth cranial nerve, the abducens nerve, originates from the pons and exits through the superior orbital fissure. It is a motor nerve that controls eye movement. The seventh cranial nerve, the facial nerve, also originates from the pons and exits through the internal auditory canal. It is a mixed nerve that controls facial expression, taste of the anterior 2/3 of the tongue, and tension on the stapes to dampen loud noises.

      The eighth cranial nerve, the vestibulocochlear nerve, originates from the pons and exits through the internal auditory canal. It is a sensory nerve that controls hearing. The ninth cranial nerve, the glossopharyngeal nerve, originates from the medulla and exits through the jugular foramen. It is a mixed nerve that controls taste of the posterior 1/3 of the tongue, elevation of the larynx and pharynx, and swallowing.

      The tenth cranial nerve, the vagus nerve, also originates from the medulla and exits through the jugular foramen. It is a mixed nerve that controls swallowing, voice production, and parasympathetic supply to nearly all thoracic and abdominal viscera. The eleventh cranial nerve, the accessory nerve, originates from the medulla and exits through the jugular foramen. It is a motor nerve that controls shoulder shrugging and head turning.

      The twelfth cranial nerve, the hypoglossal nerve, originates from the medulla and exits through the hypoglossal canal. It is a motor nerve that controls tongue movement. Overall, the cranial nerves play a crucial role in controlling various functions of the head and neck, and any damage of dysfunction can have significant consequences.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      5.6
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - What developmental milestones are typical for infants between 5 and 9 months of...

    Incorrect

    • What developmental milestones are typical for infants between 5 and 9 months of age?

      Your Answer: Object permanence

      Correct Answer: Secondary circular reactions

      Explanation:

      Piaget’s Stages of Development and Key Concepts

      Piaget developed four stages of development that describe how children think and acquire knowledge. The first stage is the Sensorimotor stage, which occurs from birth to 18-24 months. In this stage, infants learn through sensory observation and gain control of their motor functions through activity, exploration, and manipulation of the environment.

      The second stage is the Preoperational stage, which occurs from 2 to 7 years. During this stage, children use symbols and language more extensively, but they are unable to think logically of deductively. They also use a type of magical thinking and animistic thinking.

      The third stage is the Concrete Operational stage, which occurs from 7 to 11 years. In this stage, egocentric thought is replaced by operational thought, which involves dealing with a wide array of information outside the child. Children in this stage begin to use limited logical thought and can serialise, order, and group things into classes on the basis of common characteristics.

      The fourth and final stage is the Formal Operations stage, which occurs from 11 through the end of adolescence. This stage is characterized by the ability to think abstractly, to reason deductively, to define concepts, and also by the emergence of skills for dealing with permutations and combinations.

      Piaget also developed key concepts, including schema, assimilation, and accommodation. A schema is a category of knowledge and the process of obtaining that knowledge. Assimilation is the process of taking new information into an existing schema, while accommodation involves altering a schema in view of additional information.

      Overall, Piaget’s stages of development and key concepts provide a framework for understanding how children learn and acquire knowledge.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychological Development
      15.7
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - Which one of the following statements would be correct concerning phobias in a...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following statements would be correct concerning phobias in a 3-year-old girl?

      Your Answer: A 3-year-old girl will be scared of monsters

      Explanation:

      The types of fear that arise during childhood and adolescence vary depending on the age of the individual. Fear of new things, like strangers, is common at 6 months and peaks at 2 years old. Fear of heights typically starts at 6 to 8 months and intensifies when the child begins to walk. From 3 to 5 years old, children often fear animals, the dark, and monsters. Between 6 and 11 years old, fear of embarrassing social situations, such as being made fun of, may develop. During adolescence, fear of death, failure, social events like parties, and even nuclear war may become more prevalent.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychological Development
      8.5
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - Which of the following is not innervated by the parasympathetic nerve supply? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is not innervated by the parasympathetic nerve supply?

      Your Answer: Sphincter muscle of iris

      Correct Answer: Radial muscle of iris

      Explanation:

      The sphincter pupillae is supplied by the parasympathetic fibers from the Edinger Westphal nucleus of the oculomotor nerve. The dilator pupillae (radial muscle) is supplied by the postganglionic fibers of the superior cervical sympathetic ganglion. The parasympathetic nerve supply to the salivary glands originate in the parasympathetic nucleus of the facial nerve (superior salivatory nucleus) and the glossopharyngeal nerve (inferior salivatory nucleus). The parasympathetic preganglionic fibers originate in the dorsal nucleus of the vagus nerve and descend into the thorax in the vagus nerve. The fibers terminate by synapsing with postganglionic neurons in the cardiac plexuses. Postganglionic fibers terminate on the sinoatrial and atrioventricular nodes and on the coronary arteries Parasympathetic supply to the stomach is via the vagus nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neuro-anatomy
      11
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - The substance that boosts hunger and is produced by the hypothalamus is: ...

    Incorrect

    • The substance that boosts hunger and is produced by the hypothalamus is:

      Your Answer: Ghrelin

      Correct Answer: Neuropeptide Y

      Explanation:

      Appetite Control Hormones

      The regulation of appetite is influenced by various hormones in the body. Neuropeptide Y, which is produced by the hypothalamus, stimulates appetite. On the other hand, leptin, which is produced by adipose tissue, suppresses appetite. Ghrelin, which is mainly produced by the gut, increases appetite. Cholecystokinin (CCK), which is also produced by the gut, reduces appetite. These hormones play a crucial role in maintaining a healthy balance of food intake and energy expenditure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      10.3
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - What is the origin of the 'strange situation' method used to evaluate the...

    Correct

    • What is the origin of the 'strange situation' method used to evaluate the security and quality of attachment in infants and their caregivers during early development?

      Your Answer: Mary Ainsworth

      Explanation:

      Developmental Psychologists and Their Contributions

      Mary Ainsworth, a developmental psychologist, discovered that the interaction between a mother and her baby during the attachment years is crucial in the development of the baby’s behaviour. She identified four types of attachments: secure, anxious-resistant, anxious-avoidant, and disorganised.

      John Bowlby, a British psychoanalyst, studied infant attachment and separation and emphasised the importance of mother-child attachment in human interaction and later development.

      Harry Harlow, an American psychologist, demonstrated the emotional and behavioural effects of isolating monkeys and preventing them from forming attachments from birth.

      Donald Winnicott, an English paediatrician and psychoanalyst, developed the object relations theory, which focuses on the relationship between an infant and their primary caregiver.

      BF Skinner developed the theory of learning and behaviour known as operant conditioning, which emphasises the role of reinforcement and punishment in shaping behaviour.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Advanced Psychological Processes And Treatments
      4
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - During your evaluation of a recently admitted patient, you observe that they are...

    Correct

    • During your evaluation of a recently admitted patient, you observe that they are taking a high dosage of haloperidol. What other factor in their medical history would increase their risk for QTc prolongation?

      Your Answer: Bradycardia

      Explanation:

      While certain factors in his medical history, such as smoking, may heighten the likelihood of a cardiac event, it is solely his bradycardia that is associated with QTc prolongation.

      Amantadine and QTc Prolongation

      Amantadine is a medication used to treat Parkinson’s disease and influenza. It has been associated with QTc prolongation, which can increase the risk of Torsades de points. Therefore, caution should be exercised when prescribing amantadine to patients with risk factors for QT prolongation. If a patient is already taking amantadine and develops a prolonged QTc interval, the medication should be discontinued and an alternative treatment considered. It is important to monitor the QTc interval in patients taking amantadine, especially those with risk factors for QT prolongation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      7.1
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - Which of the following dimensions were included in Eysenck's classification scheme from 1970?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following dimensions were included in Eysenck's classification scheme from 1970?

      Your Answer: Locus of control

      Correct Answer: Psychoticism

      Explanation:

      Eysenck’s classification system consisted of three dimensions: Psychoticism, Neuroticism, and Introversion-extraversion. Despite its theoretical appeal, it has not been widely utilized, possibly due to challenges in its practical application in clinical settings.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      4.3
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - Which of the following emphasizes the outcomes resulting from a choice rather than...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following emphasizes the outcomes resulting from a choice rather than the behaviors leading up to it?

      Your Answer: Kantianism

      Correct Answer: Teleology

      Explanation:

      Teleology, derived from the Greek words for goal and theory, is a moral philosophy that emphasizes the outcomes of actions as the initial consideration in evaluating ethical behavior. This category of theories is also known as consequentialism, as it focuses on the consequences of an action as the basis for determining its morality. Consequentialism evaluates the morality of an action based on the balance of its positive and negative outcomes. Utilitarianism of social consequentialism is the most prevalent form of consequentialism, although it is not the only one.

      Ethical theory and principles are important in medical ethics. There are three key ethical theories that have dominated medical ethics: utilitarianism, deontological, and virtue-based. Utilitarianism is based on the greatest good for the greatest number and is a consequentialist theory. Deontological ethics emphasize moral duties and rules, rather than consequences. Virtue ethics is based on the ethical characteristics of a person and is associated with the concept of a good, happy, flourishing life.

      More recent frameworks have attempted to reconcile different theories and values. The ‘four principles’ of ‘principlism’ approach, developed in the United States, is based on four common, basic prima facie moral commitments: autonomy, beneficence, non-maleficence, and justice. Autonomy refers to a patient’s right to make their own decisions, beneficence refers to the expectation that a doctor will act in a way that will be helpful to the patient, non-maleficence refers to the fact that doctors should avoid harming their patients, and justice refers to the expectation that all people should be treated fairly and equally.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      15.9
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - From which region of genetic material is deleted in Angelman syndrome? ...

    Correct

    • From which region of genetic material is deleted in Angelman syndrome?

      Your Answer: Chromosome 15

      Explanation:

      Genomic Imprinting and its Role in Psychiatric Disorders

      Genomic imprinting is a phenomenon where a piece of DNA behaves differently depending on whether it is inherited from the mother of the father. This is because DNA sequences are marked of imprinted in the ovaries and testes, which affects their expression. In psychiatry, two classic examples of genomic imprinting disorders are Prader-Willi and Angelman syndrome.

      Prader-Willi syndrome is caused by a deletion of chromosome 15q when inherited from the father. This disorder is characterized by hypotonia, short stature, polyphagia, obesity, small gonads, and mild mental retardation. On the other hand, Angelman syndrome, also known as Happy Puppet syndrome, is caused by a deletion of 15q when inherited from the mother. This disorder is characterized by an unusually happy demeanor, developmental delay, seizures, sleep disturbance, and jerky hand movements.

      Overall, genomic imprinting plays a crucial role in the development of psychiatric disorders. Understanding the mechanisms behind genomic imprinting can help in the diagnosis and treatment of these disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      8.4
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - Which genetic disorder has a subtype that is linked with almost 100% occurrence...

    Incorrect

    • Which genetic disorder has a subtype that is linked with almost 100% occurrence of psychotic symptoms in later life?

      Your Answer: Lesch-Nyhan syndrome

      Correct Answer: Prader-Willi syndrome

      Explanation:

      Individuals with Prader-Willi syndrome can be classified into three genetic subtypes: deletion, maternal disomy, and imprinting defect. The maternal disomy subtype is particularly linked to an increased risk of developing psychosis later in life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry Of Learning Disability
      8.2
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Classification And Assessment (0/3) 0%
Neurosciences (3/7) 43%
Psychopharmacology (5/5) 100%
Diagnosis (2/2) 100%
Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice (0/2) 0%
Neuro-anatomy (0/2) 0%
Epidemiology (0/1) 0%
Advanced Psychological Processes And Treatments (1/2) 50%
Psychological Development (1/3) 33%
Social Psychology (0/1) 0%
Genetics (1/1) 100%
Psychiatry Of Learning Disability (0/1) 0%
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