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  • Question 1 - All of the following are true when describing the autonomic nervous system except:...

    Incorrect

    • All of the following are true when describing the autonomic nervous system except:

      Your Answer: The parasympathetic post ganglionic synapses use Acetylcholine as the neurotransmitter but have Muscarinic receptors

      Correct Answer: Juxta glomerular apparatus, piloerector muscles and adipose tissue are all organs under sole parasympathetic control

      Explanation:

      With regards to the autonomic nervous system (ANS)

      1. It is not under voluntary control
      2. It uses reflex pathways and different to the somatic nervous system.
      3. The hypothalamus is the central point of integration of the ANS. However, the gut can coordinate some secretions and information from the baroreceptors which are processed in the medulla.

      With regards to the central nervous system (CNS)
      1. There are myelinated preganglionic fibres which lead to the
      ganglion where the nerve cell bodies of the non-myelinated post ganglionic nerves are organised.
      2. From the ganglion, the post ganglionic nerves then lead on to the innervated organ.

      Most organs are under control of both systems although one system normally predominates.

      The nerves of the sympathetic nervous system (SNS) originate from the lateral horns of the spinal cord, pass into the anterior primary rami and then pass via the white rami communicates into the ganglia from T1-L2.

      There are short pre-ganglionic and long post ganglionic fibres.
      Pre-ganglionic synapses use acetylcholine (ACh) as a neurotransmitter on nicotinic receptors.
      Post ganglionic synapses uses adrenoceptors with norepinephrine / epinephrine as the neurotransmitter.
      However, in sweat glands, piloerector muscles and few blood vessels, ACh is still used as a neurotransmitter with nicotinic receptors.

      The ganglia form the sympathetic trunk – this is a collection of nerves that begin at the base of the skull and travel 2-3 cm lateral to the vertebrae, extending to the coccyx.

      There are cervical, thoracic, lumbar and sacral ganglia and visceral sympathetic innervation is by cardiac, coeliac and hypogastric plexi.

      Juxta glomerular apparatus, piloerector muscles and adipose tissue are all organs under sole sympathetic control.

      The PNS has a craniosacral outflow. It causes reduced arousal and cardiovascular stimulation and increases visceral activity.

      The cranial outflow consists of
      1. The oculomotor nerve (CN III) to the eye via the ciliary ganglion,
      2. Facial nerve (CN VII) to the submandibular, sublingual and lacrimal glands via the pterygopalatine and submandibular ganglions
      3. Glossopharyngeal (CN IX) to lungs, larynx and tracheobronchial tree via otic ganglion
      4. The vagus nerve (CN X), the largest contributor and carries ¾ of fibres covering innervation of the heart, lungs, larynx, tracheobronchial tree parotid gland and proximal gut to the splenic flexure, liver and pancreas

      The sacral outflow (S2 to S4) innervates the bladder, distal gut and genitalia.

      The PNS has long preganglionic and short post ganglionic fibres.
      Preganglionic synapses, like in the SNS, use ACh as the neuro transmitter with nicotinic receptors.
      Post ganglionic synapses also use ACh as the neurotransmitter but have muscarinic receptors.

      Different types of these muscarinic receptors are present in different organs:
      There are:
      M1 = pupillary constriction, gastric acid secretion stimulation
      M2 = inhibition of cardiac stimulation
      M3 = visceral vasodilation, coronary artery constriction, increased secretions in salivary, lacrimal glands and pancreas
      M4 = brain and adrenal medulla
      M5 = brain

      The lacrimal glands are solely under parasympathetic control.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
      5.4
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Which statement is true with regards to the cardiac action potential? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement is true with regards to the cardiac action potential?

      Your Answer: The absolute refractory period begins with large influx of potassium ions. Offsets action of sodium channels.

      Correct Answer: Repolarization due to potassium efflux after calcium channels close causes the relative refractory period to start

      Explanation:

      Cardiac conduction

      Phase 0 – Rapid depolarization. Opening of fast sodium channels with large influx of sodium

      Phase 1 – Rapid partial depolarization. Opening of potassium channels and efflux of potassium ions. Sodium channels close and influx of sodium ions stop

      Phase 2 – Plateau phase with large influx of calcium ions. Offsets action of potassium channels. The absolute refractory period

      Phase 3 – Repolarization due to potassium efflux after calcium channels close. Relative refractory period

      Phase 4 – Repolarization continues as sodium/potassium pump restores the ionic gradient by pumping out 3 sodium ions in exchange for 2 potassium ions coming into the cell. Relative refractory period

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
      9.7
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Prophylactic antibiotics are required for which of the following procedures? ...

    Correct

    • Prophylactic antibiotics are required for which of the following procedures?

      Your Answer: Appendicectomy

      Explanation:

      Correctly used, antibiotic prophylaxis can reduce
      the total use of antibiotics.
      There is strong scientific support that antibiotic
      prophylaxis reduces the development of infection after:

      • Operations and endoscopic procedures in the large intestine,
        the rectum, and the stomach (including appendectomies and
        penetrating abdominal trauma), and after percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy (PEG)
      • Cardiovascular surgery, and insertion of pacemakers
      • Breast cancer surgery
      • Hysterectomy
      • Reduction of simple fractures and prosthetic limb surgery
      • Complicated surgery for cancer in the ear, nose, and throat
        regions
      • Transrectal biopsy and resection of the prostate (febrile urinary
        tract infection and blood poisoning).

      In most cases the scientific evidence is inadequate to determine
      which type of antibiotic is most effective for antibiotic prophylaxis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
      13.9
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 30-year old lady has a sub total thyroidectomy. On the 5th post-operative...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year old lady has a sub total thyroidectomy. On the 5th post-operative day, the wound becomes erythematous and there is a purulent discharge. The most likely organism causing this is:

      Your Answer: Streptococcus pyogenes

      Correct Answer: Staphylococcus aureus

      Explanation:

      Staphylococcus aureus infection is the most likely cause.

      Surgical site infections (SSI) occur when there is a breach in tissue surfaces and allow normal commensals and other pathogens to initiate infection. They are a major cause of morbidity and mortality.

      SSI comprise up to 20% of healthcare associated infections and approximately 5% of patients undergoing surgery will develop an SSI as a result.
      The organisms are usually derived from the patient’s own body.

      Measures that may increase the risk of SSI include:
      -Shaving the wound using a single use electrical razor with a disposable head
      -Using a non iodine impregnated surgical drape if one is needed
      -Tissue hypoxia
      -Delayed prophylactic antibiotics administration in tourniquet surgery, patients with a prosthesis or valve, in clean-contaminated surgery of in contaminated surgery.

      Measures that may decrease the risk of SSI include:
      1. Intraoperatively
      – Prepare the skin with alcoholic chlorhexidine (Lowest incidence of SSI)
      -Cover surgical site with dressing

      In contrast to previous individual RCT’s, a recent meta analysis has confirmed that administration of supplementary oxygen does not reduce the risk of wound infection and wound edge protectors do not appear to confer benefit.

      2. Post operatively
      Tissue viability advice for management of surgical wounds healing by secondary intention

      Use of diathermy for skin incisions
      In the NICE guidelines the use of diathermy for skin incisions is not advocated. Several randomised controlled trials have been undertaken and demonstrated no increase in risk of SSI when diathermy is used.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
      9
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 35-year old male is found to be bradycardic in the emergency room....

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year old male is found to be bradycardic in the emergency room. His cardiac muscle will most likely stay in a prolonged phase 4 state of the cardiac action potential. During phase 4 of the cardiac action potential, which of these occurs?

      Your Answer: Rapid sodium influx

      Correct Answer: Na+/K+ ATPase acts

      Explanation:

      Cardiac conduction

      Phase 0 – Rapid depolarization. Opening of fast sodium channels with large influx of sodium

      Phase 1 – Rapid partial depolarization. Opening of potassium channels and efflux of potassium ions. Sodium channels close and influx of sodium ions stop

      Phase 2 – Plateau phase with large influx of calcium ions. Offsets action of potassium channels. The absolute refractory period

      Phase 3 – Repolarization due to potassium efflux after calcium channels close. Relative refractory period

      Phase 4 – Repolarization continues as sodium/potassium pump restores the ionic gradient by pumping out 3 sodium ions in exchange for 2 potassium ions coming into the cell. Relative refractory period

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
      35.1
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 70-year old male has diverticular disease and is undergoing a sigmoid colectomy....

    Correct

    • A 70-year old male has diverticular disease and is undergoing a sigmoid colectomy. His risk of developing a post operative would infection can be minimized by which of the following interventions?

      Your Answer: Administration of single dose of broad spectrum antibiotics prior to the procedure

      Explanation:

      Staphylococcus aureus infection is the most likely cause.

      Surgical site infections (SSI) occur when there is a breach in tissue surfaces and allow normal commensals and other pathogens to initiate infection. They are a major cause of morbidity and mortality.

      SSI comprise up to 20% of healthcare associated infections and approximately 5% of patients undergoing surgery will develop an SSI as a result.
      The organisms are usually derived from the patient’s own body.

      Measures that may increase the risk of SSI include:
      -Shaving the wound using a single use electrical razor with a disposable head
      -Using a non iodine impregnated surgical drape if one is needed
      -Tissue hypoxia
      -Delayed prophylactic antibiotics administration in tourniquet surgery, patients with a prosthesis or valve, in clean-contaminated surgery of in contaminated surgery.

      Measures that may decrease the risk of SSI include:
      1. Intraoperatively
      – Prepare the skin with alcoholic chlorhexidine (Lowest incidence of SSI)
      -Cover surgical site with dressing

      In contrast to previous individual RCT’s, a recent meta analysis has confirmed that administration of supplementary oxygen does not reduce the risk of wound infection and wound edge protectors do not appear to confer benefit.

      2. Post operatively
      Tissue viability advice for management of surgical wounds healing by secondary intention

      Use of diathermy for skin incisions
      In the NICE guidelines the use of diathermy for skin incisions is not advocated. Several randomised controlled trials have been undertaken and demonstrated no increase in risk of SSI when diathermy is used.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
      7.9
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Which of the following is incorrect with regards to atrial natriuretic peptide? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is incorrect with regards to atrial natriuretic peptide?

      Your Answer: Promotes excretion of sodium

      Correct Answer: Secreted mainly by the left atrium

      Explanation:

      Atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) is secreted mainly from myocytes of right atrium and ventricle in response to increased blood volume.
      It is secreted by both the right and left atria (right >> left).

      It is a 28 amino acid peptide hormone, which acts via cGMP
      degraded by endopeptidases.

      It serves to promote the excretion of sodium, lowers blood pressure, and antagonise the actions of angiotensin II and aldosterone.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
      11.3
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - One of the causes of increased pulse pressure is when the aorta becomes...

    Correct

    • One of the causes of increased pulse pressure is when the aorta becomes less compliant because of age-related changes. Another cause of increased pulse pressure is which of the following?

      Your Answer: Increased stroke volume

      Explanation:

      Impaired ventricular relaxation reduces diastolic filling and therefore preload.

      Decreased blood volume decreases preload due to reduced venous return.

      Heart failure is characterized by reduced ejection fraction and therefore stroke volume.

      Cardiac output = stroke volume x heart rate

      Left ventricular ejection fraction = (stroke volume / end diastolic LV volume ) x 100%

      Stroke volume = end diastolic LV volume – end systolic LV volume

      Pulse pressure (is increased by stroke volume) = Systolic Pressure – Diastolic Pressure

      Systemic vascular resistance = mean arterial pressure / cardiac output
      Factors that increase pulse pressure include:
      -a less compliant aorta (this tends to occur with advancing age)
      -increased stroke volume
      Aortic stenosis would decrease stroke volume as end systolic volume would increase.
      This is because of an increase in afterload, an increase in resistance that the heart must pump against due to a hard stenotic valve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
      11.4
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - All of the following statements are true about blood clotting except: ...

    Incorrect

    • All of the following statements are true about blood clotting except:

      Your Answer: The prothrombin time tests the extrinsic system

      Correct Answer: Administration of aprotinin during liver transplantation surgery prolongs survival

      Explanation:

      Even though aprotinin reduces fibrinolysis and therefore bleeding, there is an associated increased risk of death. It was withdrawn in 2007.
      Protein C is dependent upon vitamin K and this may paradoxically increase the risk of thrombosis during the early phases of warfarin treatment.

      The coagulation cascade include two pathways which lead to fibrin formation:
      1. Intrinsic pathway – these components are already present in the blood
      Minor role in clotting
      Subendothelial damage e.g. collagen
      Formation of the primary complex on collagen by high-molecular-weight kininogen (HMWK), prekallikrein, and Factor 12
      Prekallikrein is converted to kallikrein and Factor 12 becomes activated
      Factor 12 activates Factor 11
      Factor 11 activates Factor 9, which with its co-factor Factor 8a form the tenase complex which activates Factor 10

      2. Extrinsic pathway – needs tissue factor that is released by damaged tissue)
      In tissue damage:
      Factor 7 binds to Tissue factor – this complex activates Factor 9
      Activated Factor 9 works with Factor 8 to activate Factor 10

      3. Common pathway
      Activated Factor 10 causes the conversion of prothrombin to thrombin and this hydrolyses fibrinogen peptide bonds to form fibrin. It also activates factor 8 to form links between fibrin molecules.

      4. Fibrinolysis
      Plasminogen is converted to plasmin to facilitate clot resorption

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
      19.4
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Which statement is true about the autonomic nervous system? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement is true about the autonomic nervous system?

      Your Answer: Post ganglionic synapses use Acetylcholine as the neurotransmitter with nicotinic receptors in the parasympathetic system

      Correct Answer: Preganglionic synapse utilise Acetylcholine as the neurotransmitter in both parasympathetic and sympathetic systems

      Explanation:

      With regards to the autonomic nervous system (ANS)

      1. It is not under voluntary control
      2. It uses reflex pathways and different to the somatic nervous system.
      3. The hypothalamus is the central point of integration of the ANS. However, the gut can coordinate some secretions and information from the baroreceptors which are processed in the medulla.

      With regards to the central nervous system (CNS)
      1. There are myelinated preganglionic fibres which lead to the
      ganglion where the nerve cell bodies of the non-myelinated post ganglionic nerves are organised.
      2. From the ganglion, the post ganglionic nerves then lead on to the innervated organ.

      Most organs are under control of both systems although one system normally predominates.

      The nerves of the sympathetic nervous system (SNS) originate from the lateral horns of the spinal cord, pass into the anterior primary rami and then pass via the white rami communicates into the ganglia from T1-L2.

      There are short pre-ganglionic and long post ganglionic fibres.
      Pre-ganglionic synapses use acetylcholine (ACh) as a neurotransmitter on nicotinic receptors.
      Post ganglionic synapses uses adrenoceptors with norepinephrine / epinephrine as the neurotransmitter.
      However, in sweat glands, piloerector muscles and few blood vessels, ACh is still used as a neurotransmitter with nicotinic receptors.

      The ganglia form the sympathetic trunk – this is a collection of nerves that begin at the base of the skull and travel 2-3 cm lateral to the vertebrae, extending to the coccyx.

      There are cervical, thoracic, lumbar and sacral ganglia and visceral sympathetic innervation is by cardiac, coeliac and hypogastric plexi.

      Juxta glomerular apparatus, piloerector muscles and adipose tissue are all organs under sole sympathetic control.

      The PNS has a craniosacral outflow. It causes reduced arousal and cardiovascular stimulation and increases visceral activity.

      The cranial outflow consists of
      1. The oculomotor nerve (CN III) to the eye via the ciliary ganglion,
      2. Facial nerve (CN VII) to the submandibular, sublingual and lacrimal glands via the pterygopalatine and submandibular ganglions
      3. Glossopharyngeal (CN IX) to lungs, larynx and tracheobronchial tree via otic ganglion
      4. The vagus nerve (CN X), the largest contributor and carries ¾ of fibres covering innervation of the heart, lungs, larynx, tracheobronchial tree parotid gland and proximal gut to the splenic flexure, liver and pancreas

      The sacral outflow (S2 to S4) innervates the bladder, distal gut and genitalia.

      The PNS has long preganglionic and short post ganglionic fibres.
      Preganglionic synapses, like in the SNS, use ACh as the neuro transmitter with nicotinic receptors.
      Post ganglionic synapses also use ACh as the neurotransmitter but have muscarinic receptors.

      Different types of these muscarinic receptors are present in different organs:
      There are:
      M1 = pupillary constriction, gastric acid secretion stimulation
      M2 = inhibition of cardiac stimulation
      M3 = visceral vasodilation, coronary artery constriction, increased secretions in salivary, lacrimal glands and pancreas
      M4 = brain and adrenal medulla
      M5 = brain

      The lacrimal glands are solely under parasympathetic control.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
      18.4
      Seconds

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Physiology And Biochemistry (5/10) 50%
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