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Question 1
Incorrect
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Which of the following are exclusively innervated by parasympathetic nerves?
Your Answer: Parotid glands
Correct Answer: Circular muscle of iris
Explanation:Circular muscle of iris is exclusively supplied by the parasympathetic nerves.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neuro-anatomy
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Question 2
Correct
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Which symptom is typically absent in cases of neuroleptic malignant syndrome?
Your Answer: Myoclonus
Explanation:Serotonin Syndrome and Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome are two conditions that can be difficult to differentiate. Serotonin Syndrome is caused by excess serotonergic activity in the CNS and is characterized by neuromuscular abnormalities, altered mental state, and autonomic dysfunction. On the other hand, Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome is a rare acute disorder of thermoregulation and neuromotor control that is almost exclusively caused by antipsychotics. The symptoms of both syndromes can overlap, but there are some distinguishing clinical features. Hyper-reflexia, ocular clonus, and tremors are more prominent in Serotonin Syndrome, while Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome is characterized by uniform ‘lead-pipe’ rigidity and hyporeflexia. Symptoms of Serotonin Syndrome usually resolve within a few days of stopping the medication, while Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome can take up to 14 days to remit with appropriate treatment. The following table provides a useful guide to the main differentials of Serotonin Syndrome and Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man with schizophrenia is concerned about hearing his own thoughts spoken out loud before he thinks them and sometimes while he is thinking. What perceptual abnormality is this describing?
Your Answer: Écho de la pensée
Correct Answer: Gedankenlautwerden
Explanation:The German psychiatrist August Cramer coined the term ‘gedankenlautwerden’ to describe the experience of hearing one’s thoughts spoken out loud just before of at the same time as they occur, which is a first rank symptom of schizophrenia. ‘Thought echo’ is another term used to describe the phenomenon of hearing one’s thoughts spoken after they have occurred. ‘Running commentaries’ and ‘thought withdrawal’ are also first rank symptoms of schizophrenia, with the former referring to auditory hallucinations commenting on the patient’s actions and the latter being a delusional belief that thoughts are being taken away from the patient’s mind.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Descriptive Psychopathology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 25 year old woman is started on semi-sodium valproate for bipolar disorder. After 3 months, she is found to have a slight increase in alanine aminotransferase levels. She is in good health otherwise. What would be the most suitable course of action in this scenario?
Your Answer: Continue the valproate and recheck the liver function weekly until normal
Correct Answer: Obtain a prothrombin time and continue valproate if normal
Explanation:When transaminase levels are elevated, it is important to conduct further investigations into liver function. While albumin levels may eventually decrease in cases of liver failure, it is a slow process. Therefore, the prothrombin time / INR is a better investigation to consider. Although ultrasound can be useful in investigating abnormal liver function, it is not urgent in this case. Instead, a prothrombin time test would be the preferred investigation.
Valproate: Forms, Doses, and Adverse Effects
Valproate comes in three forms: semi-sodium valproate, valproic acid, and sodium valproate. Semi-sodium valproate is a mix of sodium valproate and valproic acid and is licensed for acute mania associated with bipolar disorder. Valproic acid is also licensed for acute mania, but this is not consistent with the Maudsley Guidelines. Sodium valproate is licensed for epilepsy. It is important to note that doses of sodium valproate and semi-sodium valproate are not the same, with a slightly higher dose required for sodium valproate.
Valproate is associated with many adverse effects, including nausea, tremor, liver injury, vomiting/diarrhea, gingival hyperplasia, memory impairment/confusional state, somnolence, weight gain, anaemia/thrombocytopenia, alopecia (with curly regrowth), severe liver damage, and pancreatitis. Increased liver enzymes are common, particularly at the beginning of therapy, and tend to be transient. Vomiting and diarrhea tend to occur at the start of treatment and remit after a few days. Severe liver damage is most likely to occur in the first six months of therapy, with the maximum risk being between two and twelve weeks. The risk also declines with advancing age.
Valproate is a teratogen and should not be initiated in women of childbearing potential. Approximately 10% of children exposed to valproate monotherapy during pregnancy suffer from congenital malformations, with the risk being dose-dependent. The most common malformations are neural tube defects, facial dysmorphism, cleft lip and palate, craniostenosis, cardiac, renal and urogenital defects, and limb defects. There is also a dose-dependent relationship between valproate and developmental delay, with approximately 30-40% of children exposed in utero experiencing delay in their early development, such as talking and walking later, lower intellectual abilities, poor language skills, and memory problems. There is also a thought to be a 3-fold increase of autism in children exposed in utero.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 5
Correct
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Which imaging technique is not considered functional?
Your Answer: CT
Explanation:Neuroimaging techniques can be divided into structural and functional types, although this distinction is becoming less clear as new techniques emerge. Structural techniques include computed tomography (CT) and magnetic resonance imaging (MRI), which use x-rays and magnetic fields, respectively, to produce images of the brain’s structure. Functional techniques, on the other hand, measure brain activity by detecting changes in blood flow of oxygen consumption. These include functional MRI (fMRI), emission tomography (PET and SPECT), perfusion MRI (pMRI), and magnetic resonance spectroscopy (MRS). Some techniques, such as diffusion tensor imaging (DTI), combine both structural and functional information to provide a more complete picture of the brain’s anatomy and function. DTI, for example, uses MRI to estimate the paths that water takes as it diffuses through white matter, allowing researchers to visualize white matter tracts.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
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Question 6
Incorrect
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What sign is exhibited by a patient with catatonia who moves their arm in the direction of minimal force applied by a psychiatrist and returns it to its original position after the force is removed?
Your Answer: Waxy flexibility
Correct Answer: Mitgehen
Explanation:The terms mitmachen and mitgehen are often used interchangeably in the literature, leading to confusion. However, it is important to note that mitgehen is a more severe manifestation of mitmachen, as it involves the examiner being able to move the patient’s body with minimal pressure, as seen in the anglepoise lamp sign.
– Catatonia is a psychiatric syndrome characterized by disturbed motor functions, mood, and thought.
– Key behaviors associated with catatonia include stupor, posturing, waxy flexibility, negativism, automatic obedience, mitmachen, mitgehen, ambitendency, psychological pillow, forced grasping, obstruction, echopraxia, aversion, mannerisms, stereotypies, motor perseveration, echolalia, and logorrhoea.
– These behaviors are often tested in exam questions.
– Karl Ludwig Kahlbaum is credited with the original clinical description of catatonia. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 7
Correct
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What is the term used to describe an intense and brief emotional reaction to a minor trigger?
Your Answer: Emotional lability
Explanation:Understanding Emotional Lability
Emotional lability is a condition characterized by an excessive and brief emotional response to a minor stimulus. It is a common symptom of various neurological and psychiatric disorders, including traumatic brain injury, multiple sclerosis, Parkinson’s disease, bipolar disorder, and borderline personality disorder. People with emotional lability may experience sudden and intense mood swings, such as crying, laughing, anger, of irritability, that are out of proportion to the situation.
One of the most challenging aspects of emotional lability is the lack of control over one’s emotions. Pathological crying of laughing is a common manifestation of emotional lability, where a person may burst into tears of laughter without any apparent reason of context. This can be embarrassing, distressing, and socially isolating, as it may be perceived as a sign of weakness, instability, of immaturity.
Treatment for emotional lability depends on the underlying cause and severity of the symptoms. In some cases, medication, such as antidepressants, antipsychotics, of mood stabilizers, may be prescribed to regulate the mood and reduce the frequency and intensity of emotional outbursts. Psychotherapy, such as cognitive-behavioral therapy of dialectical behavior therapy, can also help individuals with emotional lability to develop coping skills, emotional regulation strategies, and interpersonal communication skills.
It is important to note that emotional lability is not a character flaw of a personal weakness, but a medical condition that requires proper diagnosis and treatment. Seeking professional help from a qualified healthcare provider can help individuals with emotional lability to improve their quality of life, enhance their relationships, and regain their emotional stability and resilience.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 8
Correct
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At what developmental stage does a young individual begin to comprehend that the amount of water poured from a wide, squat glass into a narrow, tall glass remains constant?
Your Answer: Concrete operational
Explanation:Sensorimotor Stage:
During the sensorimotor stage of Piaget’s stages of cognitive development, which occurs from birth to 2 years old, children focus their cognition on sensory experiences. They learn about the world through their senses and actions, such as touching, tasting, and grasping. At this stage, children do not yet have the ability to think abstractly of understand concepts such as conservation. Instead, they are focused on exploring and understanding their immediate environment through their senses.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychological Development
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Question 9
Correct
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What category of adverse drug reaction does insomnia and anxiety resulting from benzodiazepine withdrawal fall under?
Your Answer: Type E
Explanation:The MHRA categorizes adverse drug reactions into five types. Type A reactions occur when a drug’s normal pharmacological actions are exaggerated at the usual therapeutic dose, and are typically dose-dependent. Type B reactions are unexpected responses that do not align with the drug’s known pharmacological actions. Type C reactions persist for an extended period of time, while Type D reactions become apparent after some time has passed since the medication was used. Finally, Type E reactions are linked to the discontinuation of a medication.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 10
Correct
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Which of the following drugs is mainly a noradrenaline reuptake inhibitor (NARI)?
Your Answer: Atomoxetine
Explanation:Medication Types:
Atomoxetine (Strattera) is a medication used to treat ADHD by inhibiting the reuptake of noradrenaline. It has a similar structure to some antidepressants.
Acamprosate is a medication that acts as an antagonist at NMDA receptors and is the only medication licensed for the relief of cravings in alcohol dependence.
Alprazolam is a benzodiazepine medication.
Amisulpride is an atypical (second generation) antipsychotic medication that works as a serotonin and dopamine antagonist.
Aripiprazole is an atypical antipsychotic medication that acts as a partial agonist at dopamine receptors.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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Before being utilized for mood disorders, what medical conditions was lithium employed to treat?
Your Answer: Goitre
Correct Answer: Gout
Explanation:During the latter half of the 19th century, the concept of uric acid imbalances causing various diseases extended beyond bladder stones and gout to encompass a wide range of ailments, such as depression and mania. This expansion was fueled by the discovery of lithium’s ability to dissolve uric acid deposits in vitro by Alexander Ure in 1843 and Sir Alfred Garrod’s subsequent finding that lithium solutions could dissolve gout uric acid deposits in finger joints in the early 1860s.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- History Of Psychiatry
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Question 12
Incorrect
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You encounter a 45-year-old man with a history of mild cognitive impairment and recurrent episodes of major depressive disorder. He was admitted to the hospital under section 3 of the Mental Health Act two months ago due to aggressive behaviour.
He reports feeling tired, sad, and lacking motivation to participate in any activities on the ward. He also reports difficulty getting out of bed in the morning. Despite being eligible for section 17 leave, he has refused to take advantage of it for the past two and a half months and spends all his time in his room.
He is currently taking fluoxetine 20 mg and PRN lorazepam for agitation. He has no known physical health issues. Your consultant has requested that you perform a blood test on him before considering adjusting his medication.
What is the most relevant blood test to request in this case?Your Answer: Vitamin B12
Correct Answer: Vitamin D levels
Explanation:The most appropriate test to perform for this patient, who is exhibiting symptoms indicative of vitamin D deficiency due to insufficient exposure to sunlight, is a vitamin D level test. It is important to also check corrected calcium and PTH levels, as vitamin D is involved in calcium metabolism. Additionally, given the patient’s use of fluoxetine, U+Es may be checked to monitor for potential hyponatremia, while routine blood tests such as FBC, LFTS, and folic acid should also be considered.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Assessment
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Question 13
Correct
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What is the truth about polyuria and polydipsia caused by lithium?
Your Answer: It is improved by once daily versus twice daily dosing of lithium
Explanation:Daily administration results in increased maximum concentration but more importantly decreased minimum concentration, which is believed to facilitate renal restoration.
Lithium – Pharmacology
Pharmacokinetics:
Lithium salts are rapidly absorbed following oral administration and are almost exclusively excreted by the kidneys unchanged. Blood samples for lithium should be taken 12 hours post-dose.Ebstein’s:
Ebstein’s anomaly is a congenital malformation consisting of a prolapse of the tricuspid valve into the right ventricle. It occurs in 1:20,000 of the general population. Initial data suggested it was more common in those using lithium but this had not held to be true.Contraindications:
Addison’s disease, Brugada syndrome, cardiac disease associated with rhythm disorders, clinically significant renal impairment, untreated of untreatable hypothyroidism, low sodium levels.Side-effects:
Common side effects include nausea, tremor, polyuria/polydipsia, rash/dermatitis, blurred vision, dizziness, decreased appetite, drowsiness, metallic taste, and diarrhea. Side-effects are often dose-related.Long-term use is associated with hypothyroidism, hyperthyroidism, hypercalcemia/hyperparathyroidism, irreversible nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, and reduced GFR.
Lithium-induced diabetes insipidus:
Treatment options include stopping lithium (if feasible), keeping levels within 0.4-0.8 mmol/L, once-daily dose of the drug taken at bedtime, amiloride, thiazide diuretics, indomethacin, and desmopressin.Toxicity:
Lithium salts have a narrow therapeutic/toxic ratio. Risk factors for lithium toxicity include drugs altering renal function, decreased circulating volume, infections, fever, decreased oral intake of water, renal insufficiency, and nephrogenic diabetes insipidus. Features of lithium toxicity include GI symptoms and neuro symptoms.Pre-prescribing:
Before prescribing lithium, renal function, cardiac function, thyroid function, FBC, and BMI should be checked. Women of childbearing age should be advised regarding contraception, and information about toxicity should be provided.Monitoring:
Lithium blood levels should be checked weekly until stable, and then every 3-6 months once stable. Thyroid and renal function should be checked every 6 months. Patients should be issued with an information booklet, alert card, and record book. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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What is a subset of the WAIS that measures perceptual reasoning?
Your Answer: Similarities
Correct Answer: Block Design
Explanation:The Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale (WAIS) is a widely used intelligence test in clinical settings, designed for individuals aged 16 to 90. Its counterpart for children is the Wechsler Intelligence Scale for Children (WISC). The current version of WAIS, WAIS-IV, consists of four index scores, each comprising several subsets. These are the Verbal Comprehension Index, Perceptual Reasoning Index, Working Memory Index, and Processing Speed Index. The results are presented as two scores: Full Scale IQ and General Ability Index. The average score is 100, with a standard deviation of 15. However, the test becomes less accurate at the extremes of IQ (70-130). About 3% of people score below 70, which is the general cut-off for a significant learning disability.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 15
Correct
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What is an example of a drug that acts as an antagonist for NMDA receptors?
Your Answer: Memantine
Explanation:Pharmacological management of dementia involves the use of acetylcholinesterase inhibitors (AChE inhibitors) and memantine. AChE inhibitors prevent the breakdown of acetylcholine, which is deficient in Alzheimer’s due to the loss of cholinergic neurons. Donepezil, galantamine, and rivastigmine are commonly used AChE inhibitors in the management of Alzheimer’s. However, gastrointestinal side effects such as nausea and vomiting are common with these drugs.
Memantine, on the other hand, is an NMDA receptor antagonist that blocks the effects of pathologically elevated levels of glutamate that may lead to neuronal dysfunction. It has a half-life of 60-100 hours and is primarily renally eliminated. Common adverse effects of memantine include somnolence, dizziness, hypertension, dyspnea, constipation, headache, and elevated liver function tests.
Overall, pharmacological management of dementia aims to improve cognitive function and slow down the progression of the disease. However, it is important to note that these drugs do not cure dementia and may only provide temporary relief of symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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Which of the following symptoms is uncommon during the discontinuation of SSRIs?
Your Answer: Irritability
Correct Answer: Palpitations
Explanation:Antidepressants can cause discontinuation symptoms when patients stop taking them, regardless of the type of antidepressant. These symptoms usually occur within 5 days of stopping the medication and can last up to 3 weeks. Symptoms include flu-like symptoms, dizziness, insomnia, vivid dreams, irritability, crying spells, and sensory symptoms. SSRIs and related drugs with short half-lives, such as paroxetine and venlafaxine, are particularly associated with discontinuation symptoms. Tapering antidepressants at the end of treatment is recommended to prevent these symptoms. TCAs and MAOIs are also associated with discontinuation symptoms, with amitriptyline and imipramine being the most common TCAs and all MAOIs being associated with prominent discontinuation symptoms. Patients at highest risk for discontinuation symptoms include those on antidepressants with shorter half-lives, those who have been taking antidepressants for 8 weeks of longer, those using higher doses, younger people, and those who have experienced discontinuation symptoms before. Agomelatine is not associated with any discontinuation syndrome. If a discontinuation reaction occurs, restarting the antidepressant of switching to an alternative with a longer half-life and tapering more slowly may be necessary. Explanation and reassurance are often sufficient for mild symptoms. These guidelines are based on the Maudsley Guidelines 14th Edition and a study by Tint (2008).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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What is the most likely diagnosis when an MRI shows high signal in the medial aspects of both thalami that is bilateral and symmetrical?
Your Answer: Huntington's disease
Correct Answer: Variant CJD
Explanation:The pulvinar sign seen on radiological imaging can indicate several possible conditions, including Alper’s Syndrome, cat-scratch disease, and post-infectious encephalitis. It may also be present in cases of M/V2 subtype of sporadic CJD, thalamic infarctions, and top-of-the-basilar ischemia. However, when considering vCJD, the pulvinar sign should be evaluated in the appropriate clinical context.
Creutzfeldt-Jakob Disease: Differences between vCJD and CJD
Creutzfeldt-Jakob Disease (CJD) is a prion disease that includes scrapie, BSE, and Kuru. However, there are important differences between sporadic (also known as classic) CJD and variant CJD. The table below summarizes these differences.
vCJD:
– Longer duration from onset of symptoms to death (a year of more)
– Presents with psychiatric and behavioral symptoms before neurological symptoms
– MRI shows pulvinar sign
– EEG shows generalized slowing
– Originates from infected meat products
– Affects younger people (age 25-30)CJD:
– Shorter duration from onset of symptoms to death (a few months)
– Presents with neurological symptoms
– MRI shows bilateral anterior basal ganglia high signal
– EEG shows biphasic and triphasic waves 1-2 per second
– Originates from genetic mutation (bad luck)
– Affects older people (age 55-65)Overall, understanding the differences between vCJD and CJD is important for diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
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Question 18
Correct
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What is a true statement about opioid receptors?
Your Answer: Dependence is mediated through the mu receptor
Explanation:Opioid Pharmacology and Treatment Medications
Opioids work by binding to opioid receptors in the brain, specifically the µ, k, and δ receptors. The µ receptor is the main target for opioids and mediates euphoria, respiratory depression, and dependence. Dopaminergic cells in the ventral tegmental area produce dopamine, which is released into the nucleus accumbens upon stimulation of µ receptors, leading to the reward and euphoria that drives repeated use. However, with repeated exposure, µ receptors become less responsive, leading to dysphoria and drug craving.
There are several medications used in opioid treatment. Methadone is a full agonist targeting µ receptors, with some action against k and δ receptors, and has a half-life of 15-22 hours. However, it carries a risk of respiratory depression, especially when used with hypnotics and alcohol. Buprenorphine is a partial agonist targeting µ receptors, as well as a partial k agonist of functional antagonist and a weak δ antagonist. It has a high affinity for µ receptors and a longer half-life of 24-42 hours, making it safer than methadone. Naloxone is an antagonist targeting all opioid receptors and is used to reverse opioid overdose, with a half-life of 30-120 minutes. However, it can cause noncardiogenic pulmonary edema in some cases. Naltrexone is a reversible competitive antagonist at µ and ĸ receptors, with a half-life of 4-6 hours, and is used as an adjunctive prophylactic treatment for detoxified formerly opioid-dependent people.
Alpha2 adrenergic agonists, such as clonidine and lofexidine, can ameliorate opioid withdrawal symptoms associated with the noradrenaline system, including sweating, shivering, and runny nose and eyes. The locus coeruleus, a nucleus in the pons with a high density of noradrenergic neurons possessing µ-opioid receptors, is involved in wakefulness, blood pressure, breathing, and overall alertness. Exposure to opioids results in heightened neuronal activity of the nucleus cells, and if opioids are not present to suppress this activity, increased amounts of norepinephrine are released, leading to withdrawal symptoms. Clonidine was originally developed as an antihypertensive, but its antihypertensive effects are problematic in detox, so lofexidine was developed as an alternative with less hypotensive effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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Which antipsychotic is least likely to result in orthostatic hypotension?
Your Answer: Risperidone
Correct Answer: Asenapine
Explanation:According to the 13th edition of Maudsley, asenapine and lurasidone are associated with the lowest risk.
Antipsychotics: Common Side Effects and Relative Adverse Effects
Antipsychotics are medications used to treat various mental health conditions, including schizophrenia and bipolar disorder. However, they can also cause side effects that can be bothersome of even serious. The most common side effects of antipsychotics are listed in the table below, which includes the adverse effects associated with their receptor activity.
Antidopaminergic effects: These effects are related to the medication’s ability to block dopamine receptors in the brain. They can cause galactorrhoea, gynecomastia, menstrual disturbance, lowered sperm count, reduced libido, Parkinsonism, dystonia, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia.
Anticholinergic effects: These effects are related to the medication’s ability to block acetylcholine receptors in the brain. They can cause dry mouth, blurred vision, urinary retention, and constipation.
Antiadrenergic effects: These effects are related to the medication’s ability to block adrenaline receptors in the body. They can cause postural hypotension and ejaculatory failure.
Histaminergic effects: These effects are related to the medication’s ability to block histamine receptors in the brain. They can cause drowsiness.
The Maudsley Guidelines provide a rough guide to the relative adverse effects of different antipsychotics. The table below summarizes their findings, with +++ indicating a high incidence of adverse effects, ++ indicating a moderate incidence, + indicating a low incidence, and – indicating a very low incidence.
Drug Sedation Weight gain Diabetes EPSE Anticholinergic Postural Hypotension Prolactin elevation
Amisulpride – + + + – – +++
Aripiprazole – +/- – +/- – – –
Asenapine + + +/- +/- – – +/-
Clozapine +++ +++ +++ – +++ +++ –
Flupentixol + ++ + ++ ++ + +++
Fluphenazine + + + +++ ++ + +++
Haloperidol + + +/- +++ + + +++
Olanzapine ++ +++ +++ +/- + + +
Paliperidone + ++ + + + ++ +++
Pimozide + + – + + + +++
Quetiapine ++ ++ ++ – + ++ –
Risperidone + ++ + + + ++ +++
Zuclopenthixol ++ ++ + ++ ++ + +++Overall, it is important to discuss the potential side effects of antipsychotics with a healthcare provider and to monitor for any adverse effects while taking these medications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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Which area of the brain is most likely to be damaged in order to result in prosopagnosia?
Your Answer: Hippocampus
Correct Answer: Fusiform gyrus
Explanation:Understanding Prosopagnosia: The Inability to Recognize Faces
Prosopagnosia, also known as face blindness, is a condition where individuals are unable to recognize faces. This complex process involves various areas of the brain, with the fusiform gyrus in the temporal lobe being the most significant. The inability to recognize faces can be caused by damage to this area of the brain of can be a result of a developmental disorder.
The condition can be challenging for individuals as it can affect their ability to recognize familiar faces, including family members and friends. It can also impact their social interactions and make it difficult to navigate social situations. While there is no cure for prosopagnosia, individuals can learn to use other cues such as voice, clothing, and context to recognize people.
Understanding prosopagnosia is crucial in providing support and accommodations for individuals who experience this condition. It is essential to raise awareness and promote research to develop effective interventions to help individuals with face blindness.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
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Question 21
Incorrect
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Who is responsible for developing the Adult Attachment Interview?
Your Answer: Mary Ainsworth
Correct Answer: Mary Main
Explanation:Attachment (Ainsworth)
Psychologist Mary Ainsworth developed the ‘Strange Situation procedure’ to study and categorize attachment in children aged 12 to 18 months. The procedure involves seven steps, including two separations and two reunions, and takes place in one room. The child’s attachment is classified into one of three styles: secure, anxious-resistant, and anxious-avoidant. A fourth category, disorganized, is sometimes observed. Ainsworth suggested that the child’s attachment style is determined by the primary caregiver’s behavior.
Mary Main later developed the Adult Attachment Interview and identified four categories of attachment in adults that correspond to those observed in the strange situation. The distribution of adult attachment styles correlates with those of the strange situation, with 70% of children and adults having secure attachment. Attachment styles also seem to be passed on to subsequent generations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychological Development
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Question 22
Correct
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A 68-year-old woman is experiencing changes in her personality and difficulty remembering things. What cognitive assessment would be suitable for evaluating her frontal lobe function?
Your Answer: Wisconsin card sorting test
Explanation:The WCST is a test that assesses frontal lobe function by presenting the patient with cards that vary in shape, color, and number. The patient is asked to sort the cards based on one of these dimensions and then switch to another dimension. Patients with frontal lobe damage may struggle with inflexible thinking and inhibiting previously correct answers.
The Benton visual retention test is a test of visual memory that does not assess frontal lobe function. The patient is shown geometric shapes for ten seconds and then asked to draw them from memory.
The NART is a test that measures premorbid IQ.
The Rorschach inkblot test is a projective personality test.
The Rey-Osterrieth complex figure test assesses visuospatial skills. The patient is asked to copy a complex figure and then reproduce it from memory.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Assessment
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Question 23
Incorrect
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What was the most significant contribution to the field of stigma?
Your Answer: Cerletti
Correct Answer: Goffman
Explanation:Goffman’s work focused extensively on stigma, while Cerletti is known for his contributions to the development of electroconvulsive therapy (ECT), and Moniz is associated with the development of frontal lobotomy.
History of major works in psychiatry
Michel Foucault – Madness and civilization
Sigmund Freud – The interpretation of dreams, Beyond the Pleasure Principle, The Psychopathology of everyday life
Thomas Szasz – The myth of mental illness
Erving Goffman – Asylums, The Presentation of Self in Everyday Life
Ronald Laing – The divided self
Emile Durkheim – Le suicide. Durkheim proposed social causes for suicide. Until his work was published, suicide had been thought of as an individual act only.
Tom Main – The Ailment
Jerome Frank – Persuasion and Healing
George Brown and Tirril Harris – Social origins of depression -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 24
Correct
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A woman in her mid-thirties who works as a full-time employee at the municipal office is experiencing symptoms of headache, dizziness, fatigue, and fever.
Your Answer: Illness
Explanation:Pilowsky introduced the term ‘abnormal illness behaviour’ to describe excessive of inadequate responses to symptoms, including hypochondriasis, somatisation, and denial of illness, which are all considered unhealthy conditions. On the other hand, healthy behaviour refers to actions taken by individuals to maintain, attain, of regain good health and prevent illness, which are influenced by their health beliefs. Illness behaviour, on the other hand, refers to how individuals perceive, evaluate, and respond to their own health status when they are sick. The sick role is a term used to describe the expectations and responsibilities society assigns to individuals who are ill, including being excused from responsibilities and seeking help to recover. However, in the scenario above, the behaviour relating to illness is not described.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Assessment
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Question 25
Correct
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What is a true statement about dissociative seizures?
Your Answer: Post event prolactin levels are usually normal
Explanation:The absence of a serum prolactin increase is a characteristic of simple partial seizures, but this test is not reliable for prolonged status epilepticus as prolactin levels may remain normal. To obtain accurate results, blood samples should be taken within 20-30 minutes after the seizure and compared to a baseline sample. However, this test is becoming less common in specialized centers due to the risk of false positive results in cases of syncope and dissociative seizures, as reported by Mellers in 2005.
Dissociative seizures, also known as pseudoseizures of functional seizures, are abnormal paroxysmal manifestations that resemble epileptic seizures but are not related to abnormal epileptiform discharges. They can be caused by physical factors such as hypoglycemia of cardiac dysfunction, but more commonly result from mental of emotional processes. Dissociative seizures are more common in females and tend to have an onset in late adolescence. Distinguishing between true seizures and pseudoseizures can be challenging, but a rise in serum prolactin levels after a seizure is a helpful diagnostic tool. Treatment options for psychogenic nonepileptic seizures are limited, with cognitive-behavioral therapy being the most studied and effective intervention.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman is experiencing symptoms of anxiety and you believe that an anxiolytic medication may be helpful. What is a true statement about medications used to treat anxiety?
Your Answer: Monoamine oxidase inhibitors increase the amount of noradrenaline and 5HT released from nerve terminals
Correct Answer: Fluoxetine causes few anticholinergic side effects
Explanation:Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs) increase levels of noradrenaline, serotonin, and dopamine by inhibiting one of both of the monoamine oxidase enzymes, MAO-A and MAO-B. This is different from selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) and tricyclics, which primarily affect serotonin levels. Tricyclics have anticholinergic and noradrenergic side effects, while SSRIs cause fewer anticholinergic effects but may lead to gastrointestinal problems, agitation, insomnia, and headaches. MAOIs have their own set of potential side effects, including interactions with certain foods and medications, as well as possible hypertensive crises.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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Which of the following is believed to be caused by the obstruction of D-2 receptors in the mesolimbic pathway?
Your Answer: The negative symptoms of schizophrenia
Correct Answer: The therapeutic effects of antipsychotics in schizophrenia
Explanation:Neurotransmitters are substances used by neurons to communicate with each other and with target tissues. They are synthesized and released from nerve endings into the synaptic cleft, where they bind to receptor proteins in the cellular membrane of the target tissue. Neurotransmitters can be classified into different types, including small molecules (such as acetylcholine, dopamine, norepinephrine, serotonin, and GABA) and large molecules (such as neuropeptides). They can also be classified as excitatory or inhibitory. Receptors can be ionotropic or metabotropic, and the effects of neurotransmitters can be fast of slow. Some important neurotransmitters include acetylcholine, dopamine, GABA, norepinephrine, and serotonin. Each neurotransmitter has a specific synthesis, breakdown, and receptor type. Understanding neurotransmitters is important for understanding the function of the nervous system and for developing treatments for neurological and psychiatric disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
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Question 28
Incorrect
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What is the calculation that the nurse performed to determine the patient's average daily calorie intake over a seven day period?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Arithmetic mean
Explanation:You don’t need to concern yourself with the specifics of the various means. Simply keep in mind that the arithmetic mean is the one utilized in fundamental biostatistics.
Measures of Central Tendency
Measures of central tendency are used in descriptive statistics to summarize the middle of typical value of a data set. There are three common measures of central tendency: the mean, median, and mode.
The median is the middle value in a data set that has been arranged in numerical order. It is not affected by outliers and is used for ordinal data. The mode is the most frequent value in a data set and is used for categorical data. The mean is calculated by adding all the values in a data set and dividing by the number of values. It is sensitive to outliers and is used for interval and ratio data.
The appropriate measure of central tendency depends on the measurement scale of the data. For nominal and categorical data, the mode is used. For ordinal data, the median of mode is used. For interval data with a normal distribution, the mean is preferable, but the median of mode can also be used. For interval data with skewed distribution, the median is used. For ratio data, the mean is preferable, but the median of mode can also be used for skewed data.
In addition to measures of central tendency, the range is also used to describe the spread of a data set. It is calculated by subtracting the smallest value from the largest value.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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Question 29
Incorrect
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What is a true statement about alcohol use disorder as defined by the DSM-5?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Gamma-glutamyltransferase (GGT) levels return toward normal within days to weeks of stopping drinking
Explanation:A diagnosis of alcohol use disorder only requires the presence of two or more of the 11 elements, including withdrawal and recurrent alcohol use in physically hazardous situations. Ongoing craving for alcohol does not prevent someone from being considered in sustained remission, which is defined as not meeting any criteria for alcohol use disorder for 12 months of longer, except for craving. Monitoring abstinence can be done using state markers such as GGT and CDT levels, which return to normal within days to weeks of stopping drinking, but MCV is a poor method due to the long half-life of red blood cells. Increases in GGT and CDT levels over time may indicate a return to heavy drinking.
Alcohol Dependence Syndrome: ICD-11 and DSM 5 Criteria
The criteria for diagnosing alcohol dependence syndrome in the ICD-11 and DSM 5 are quite similar, as both are based on the original concept developed by Edwards and Gross in 1976. The original concept had seven elements, including narrowing of the drinking repertoire, salience of drink seeking behavior, tolerance, withdrawal symptoms, relief of withdrawal by further drinking, compulsion to drink, and rapid reinstatement of symptoms after a period of abstinence.
The DSM-5 Alcohol Use Disorder criteria include a problematic pattern of alcohol use leading to clinically significant impairment of distress, as manifested by at least two of the following occurring within a 12-month period. These include taking alcohol in larger amounts of over a longer period than intended, persistent desire of unsuccessful efforts to cut down of control alcohol use, spending a great deal of time in activities necessary to obtain alcohol, craving of a strong desire of urge to use alcohol, recurrent alcohol use resulting in a failure to fulfill major role obligations, continued alcohol use despite having persistent or recurrent social of interpersonal problems, giving up of reducing important social, occupational, of recreational activities due to alcohol use, recurrent alcohol use in physically hazardous situations, and continued alcohol use despite knowledge of having a persistent or recurrent physical or psychological problem caused or exacerbated by alcohol. Tolerance and withdrawal symptoms are also included in the criteria.
The ICD-11 Alcohol Dependence criteria include a pattern of recurrent episodic of continuous use of alcohol with evidence of impaired regulation of alcohol use, manifested by impaired control over alcohol use, increasing precedence of alcohol use over other aspects of life, and physiological features indicative of neuroadaptation to the substance, including tolerance to the effects of alcohol of a need to use increasing amounts of alcohol to achieve the same effect, withdrawal symptoms following cessation of reduction in use of alcohol, of repeated use of alcohol of pharmacologically similar substances to prevent of alleviate withdrawal symptoms. The features of dependence are usually evident over a period of at least 12 months, but the diagnosis may be made if use is continuous for at least 3 months.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Substance Misuse/Addictions
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Question 30
Incorrect
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Which cognitive function is thought to be essential for the ventromedial prefrontal cortex?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Moral judgement
Explanation:The Neuroscience of Morality
Morality is a process that involves both instinctive feelings and rational judgement. The ventromedial prefrontal cortex (PFC) is responsible for the emotional baseline, while the dorsolateral PFC is involved in cognitive control and problem solving. Studies have shown that the ventromedial PFC is activated during the solving of moral problems, particularly when responding to emotionally charged scenarios. On the other hand, the dorsolateral PFC is involved in tamping down our innate, reactionary moral system. These findings suggest that morality is a dual process event that involves both emotional and cognitive systems in the brain.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
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