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  • Question 1 - Which of the following statements regarding the arteries in the neck are TRUE?...

    Correct

    • Which of the following statements regarding the arteries in the neck are TRUE?

      Your Answer: The thyrocervical trunk typically gives rise to the inferior thyroid artery, transverse cervical artery and suprascapular artery

      Explanation:

      The thyrocervical trunk is one of the three branches of the first part of the subclavian artery and gives numerous branches which supply viscera of the neck, the brachial plexus, neck muscles and scapular anastomoses. The vertebral arteries are major arteries of the neck. They arise as branches from the subclavian arteries and merge to form the single midline basilar artery. The carotid sinus is a dilated area at the base of the internal carotid artery just superior to the bifurcation of the internal carotid and external carotid at the level of the superior border of thyroid cartilage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      15.5
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - The transmembrane proteins responsible for resting membrane potential of vascular smooth muscle cells...

    Incorrect

    • The transmembrane proteins responsible for resting membrane potential of vascular smooth muscle cells was blocked by a drug. Which of the following transmembrane proteins were blocked by this drug?

      Your Answer: Na+/K+ pump

      Correct Answer: K+ channels

      Explanation:

      The resting membrane potential is due to selective permeability of the membrane to potassium ions. The Na/K pump is responsible for the generation of a gradient across the membrane and it is due to the inherent ability of the K channels to allow diffusion back into the nerve at rest which charges the cells. In reality, the resting membrane potential is more positive because of small contributions by Na+ channels, Cl− channels and non-selective cation channels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      20
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Which of these foramen is located at the base of the skull and...

    Incorrect

    • Which of these foramen is located at the base of the skull and transmits the accessory meningeal artery?

      Your Answer: Internal acoustic meatus

      Correct Answer: Foramen ovale

      Explanation:

      At the base of the skull the foramen ovale is one of the larger of the several holes that transmit nerves through the skull. The following structures pass through foramen ovale: mandibular nerve, motor root of the trigeminal nerve, accessory meningeal artery, lesser petrosal nerve, a branch of the glossopharyngeal nerve, emissary vein connecting the cavernous sinus with the pterygoid plexus of veins and occasionally the anterior trunk of the middle meningeal vein.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      11.9
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - When you rest your elbows on a desk, what bony landmark of the...

    Correct

    • When you rest your elbows on a desk, what bony landmark of the upper limb are you resting on?

      Your Answer: Olecranon process of the ulna

      Explanation:

      At the upper and back part of the ulna, there exists a curved eminence which is the olecranon process. This process lodges in the olecranon fossa of the humerus. It’s posterior surface is subcutaneous and this triangular area is what you rest your elbow upon.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      8.1
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A patient in the intensive care unit developed hyperphosphatemia. The phosphate level is...

    Incorrect

    • A patient in the intensive care unit developed hyperphosphatemia. The phosphate level is 160 mmol/L. Which of the following is most likely responsible for this abnormality?

      Your Answer: Refeeding after prolonged malnutrition

      Correct Answer: Renal insufficiency

      Explanation:

      Hyperphosphatemia is an electrolyte disturbance in which there is an abnormally elevated level of phosphate in the blood. It is caused by conditions that impair renal phosphate excretion (ex: renal insufficiency, hypoparathyroidism, parathyroid suppression) and conditions with massive extracellular fluid phosphate loads (ex: rapid administration of exogenous phosphate, extensive cellular injury or necrosis, transcellular phosphate shifts).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluids & Electrolytes
      • Pathology
      11.6
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Which of the following conditions may cause hypervolaemic hyponatraemia? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following conditions may cause hypervolaemic hyponatraemia?

      Your Answer: Polycystic Kidney Disease

      Correct Answer: Cirrhosis

      Explanation:

      Hypovolaemic hyponatraemia: reduced extracellular fluid
      Renal loss of sodium and water; urine Na >20 mmol/day
      Causes:
      Diuretic use
      Salt wasting nephropathy
      Cerebral salt wasting
      Mineralocorticoid deficiency/adrenal insufficiency
      Renal tubular acidosis
      Extrarenal loss of sodium and water with renal conservation; urine Na <20 mmol/day
      Causes:
      Burns
      Gastrointestinal loss
      Pancreatitis
      Blood loss
      3rd space loss (bowel obstruction, peritonitis)

      Hypervolaemic hyponatraemia: expanded intracellular fluid and extracellular fluid but reduced effective arterial blood volume
      Causes:
      Congestive cardiac failure
      Cirrhosis
      Nephrotic syndrome

      Euvolaemic hyponatraemia: expanded intracellular and extracellular fluid but oedema absent
      Causes:
      Thiazide diuretics (can be euvolaemic or hypovolaemic)
      Hypothyroidism
      Adrenal insufficiency (can be euvolaemic or hypovolaemic)
      SIADH (cancer, central nervous system disorders, drugs, pulmonary disease, nausea, postoperative pain, HIV, infection, Guillain‐Barre syndrome, acute intermittent porphyria)
      Decreased solute ingestion (beer potomania/tea and toast diet)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluids & Electrolytes
      • Pathology
      21.4
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Myoglobin is released as a result of rhabdomyolysis from damaged skeletal muscles. What...

    Correct

    • Myoglobin is released as a result of rhabdomyolysis from damaged skeletal muscles. What function do they perform in the muscle?

      Your Answer: Acts like haemoglobin and binds with O2

      Explanation:

      Myoglobin is a pigmented globular protein made up of 153 amino acids with a prosthetic group containing haem around which the apoprotein folds. It is the primary oxygen carrying protein of the muscles. The binding of oxygen to myoglobin is unaffected by the oxygen pressure as it has an instant tendency to bind given its hyperbolic oxygen curve. It releases oxygen at very low pO2 levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      5.6
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Which of the following is a potential cause of a positive D-dimer assay?...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is a potential cause of a positive D-dimer assay?

      Your Answer: Deep venous thrombosis

      Explanation:

      A D-dimer test is performed to detect and diagnose thrombotic conditions and thrombosis. A negative result would rule out thrombosis and a positive result although not diagnostic, is highly suspicious of thrombotic conditions like a deep vein thrombosis, pulmonary embolism as well as DIC.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      4.1
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Which of the following conditions can present with multiple abscesses that may discharge...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following conditions can present with multiple abscesses that may discharge sulphur granules?

      Your Answer: Staphylococcus aureus infection

      Correct Answer: Actinomycosis

      Explanation:

      Actinomycosis is primarily caused by any of the several members of the bacterial genus Actinomyces. These bacteria are generally anaerobes. And can cause multiple abscesses that may discharge sulphur granules.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathology
      18.1
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Glucose is the most important source of energy for cellular respiration. The transport...

    Correct

    • Glucose is the most important source of energy for cellular respiration. The transport of glucose in the renal tubular cells occurs via:

      Your Answer: Secondary active transport with sodium

      Explanation:

      In 1960, Robert K. Crane presented for the first time his discovery of the sodium-glucose cotransport as the mechanism for glucose absorption. Glucose transport through biological membranes requires specific transport proteins. Transport of glucose through the apical membrane of renal tubular as well as intestinal epithelial cells depends on the presence of secondary active Na+–glucose symporters, SGLT-1 and SGLT-2, which concentrate glucose inside the cells, using the energy provided by co-transport of Na+ ions down their electrochemical gradient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal
      7.5
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - The occipital artery is accompanied by which nerve as it arises from the...

    Incorrect

    • The occipital artery is accompanied by which nerve as it arises from the external carotid artery?

      Your Answer: Carotid nerve

      Correct Answer: Hypoglossal nerve (CN XII)

      Explanation:

      Three main types of variations in the relations of the occipital artery and the hypoglossal nerve are found according to the level at which the nerve crosses the external carotid artery and the point of origin of the occipital artery. In Type I, the hypoglossal nerve crosses the external carotid artery inferior to the origin of the occipital artery; in Type II, the nerve crosses the external carotid artery at the level of origin of the occipital artery; and in Type III, it crosses superior to that level. In Type III the occipital artery makes a loop around the hypoglossal nerve and is in a position to pull and exert pressure on the nerve. This possibility should be taken into consideration in the diagnosis of peripheral paresis or paralysis of the tongue and during surgery in this area.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      18.6
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A pedestrian sustained a left fibula fractured following a hit-and-run. X-rays showed that...

    Incorrect

    • A pedestrian sustained a left fibula fractured following a hit-and-run. X-rays showed that there was a transverse fracture of the upper end of the fibula. It was manifested clinically by inability to flex his foot at the ankle joint plus weak extension of the phalanges. What nerve is suspected to be injured in such a case?

      Your Answer: Femoral

      Correct Answer: Deep peroneal

      Explanation:

      The deep peroneal nerve supplies the muscles allowing for flexion of the foot at the ankle joint, namely the tibialis anterior and peroneus tertius muscles. The peroneus tertius, peroneus brevis, and peroneus longus evert the foot, whereas the tibialis anterior and tibialis posterior invert the foot. Fibres of the deep peroneal nerve originate from L4, L5, and S1.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      13.9
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - The vagus nerve passes through which of the following foramen? ...

    Incorrect

    • The vagus nerve passes through which of the following foramen?

      Your Answer: Foramen ovale

      Correct Answer: Jugular foramen

      Explanation:

      The jugular foramen is a large foramen in the base of the skull. It is located behind the carotid canal and is formed in front by the petrous portion of the temporal bone, and behind by the occipital bone. Cranial nerves IX, X, and XI and the internal jugular vein pass through the jugular foramen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      34.1
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Digital rectal examination of a 75-year old gentleman who presented to the surgical...

    Incorrect

    • Digital rectal examination of a 75-year old gentleman who presented to the surgical clinic with urinary retention revealed an enlarged, nodular prostate. PSA was found to be elevated, favouring the diagnosis of prostatic malignancy. Which of the given options is the most common malignant lesion affecting the prostate gland?

      Your Answer: Undifferentiated carcinoma

      Correct Answer: Adenocarcinoma

      Explanation:

      Prostatic adenocarcinoma is the commonest solid malignancy and non-dermatological cancer in men above 50 years age. Increasing in incidence with age and the highest risk seen in the black population. About 75% of cases are seen in men over 65 years. Other tumours affecting the prostate include undifferentiated prostate cancer, squamous cell carcinoma, and ductal transitional carcinoma, but these occur less commonly. Sarcomas usually affect children. Hormones play a role in the aetiology of prostate adenocarcinoma unlike the other types. Intraepithelial neoplasia is considered a precursor of invasive malignancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Urology
      8.6
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 30 year-old male patient sustained a sharp blow to the right side...

    Incorrect

    • A 30 year-old male patient sustained a sharp blow to the right side of the head, over the temporal region during a vehicular accident. This resulted to the rupture of the principal artery that supplies the meninges. Which artery is affected?

      Your Answer: Basilar artery

      Correct Answer: Middle meningeal artery

      Explanation:

      The middle meningeal artery is typically the third branch of the first part of the maxillary artery, one of the two terminal branches of the external carotid artery. After branching off the maxillary artery in the infratemporal fossa, it runs through the foramen spinosum to supply the dura mater and the calvaria. The middle meningeal artery is the largest of the three (paired) arteries that supply the meninges, the others being the anterior meningeal artery and the posterior meningeal artery. The anterior branch of the middle meningeal artery runs beneath the pterion. It is vulnerable to injury at this point, where the skull is thin. Rupture of the artery may give rise to an epidural hematoma .An injured middle meningeal artery is the most common cause of an epidural hematoma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      19.6
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 24-year old, lactating mother presents to the clinic with a tender, 1.5cm...

    Correct

    • A 24-year old, lactating mother presents to the clinic with a tender, 1.5cm mass just below the right nipple, which shows multiple fissures. What finding is likely associated with her condition?

      Your Answer: Staphylococcus aureus infection

      Explanation:

      Breast abscess occur commonly in lactating mothers in the postpartum period due to cracking of the nipple. It is commonly caused due to Staphylococcus aureus infection. Fat necrosis usually results from trauma wherein an ill-defined mass is formed. Ductal carcinomas are malignant masses which are not tender usually, and rare in the young age group. Plasma cell mastitis affect women in an older age group. Sclerosing adenosis is a type of fibrocystic disease which can lead to a tender, cystic mass but no fissuring or cracks are seen in the nipple. Fibroadenoma and lipomas are non-tender, well-defined masses.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Women's Health
      20.1
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Which of the following muscles may be affected by a fracture to the...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following muscles may be affected by a fracture to the tuberosity on the medial surface of the right navicular bone?

      Your Answer: Tibialis anterior

      Correct Answer: Tibialis posterior

      Explanation:

      The navicular bone is situated at the medial side of the tarsus, between the talus and the cuneiform bones. Its medial surface presents a rounded tuberosity, the lower part of which gives attachment to part of the tendon of the tibialis posterior.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      72.4
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - The passage of leukocytes through the wall of the blood vessels is best...

    Incorrect

    • The passage of leukocytes through the wall of the blood vessels is best described by which of the following terms?

      Your Answer: Euperiporesis

      Correct Answer: Diapedesis

      Explanation:

      The steps involved in leukocyte arrival and function are:

      1. margination: cells migrate from the centre to the periphery of the vessel

      2. rolling: selectins are upregulated on the vessel walls

      3. adhesion: upregulation of the adhesion molecules ICAM and VCAM on the endothelium interact with integrins on the leukocytes, interaction of these results in adhesion

      4. diapedesis and chemotaxis: diapedesis is the transmigration of the leukocyte across the endothelium of the capillary and towards a chemotactic product

      5. phagocytosis: engulfing the offending substance/cell.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Injury & Wound Healing
      • Pathology
      11.2
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - What is the most likely cause of bilateral gynaecomastia in a 55-year old...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most likely cause of bilateral gynaecomastia in a 55-year old male?

      Your Answer: Increased risk of breast carcinoma

      Correct Answer: Hepatic failure

      Explanation:

      Hypertrophy of breast tissue in males is known as gynaecomastia. It is normally due to proliferation of stroma and not of mammary ducts. Physiological gynaecomastia can occur during puberty and is often transient, bilateral, symmetrical and possibly tender. Gynaecomastia can occur during old age too, but is usually unilateral. Other causes include hepatic or renal failure, endocrinological disorders, drugs (anabolic steroids, antineoplastic drugs, calcium channel blockers, cimetidine, digitalis, oestrogens, isoniazid, ketoconazole, methadone, metronidazole, reserpine, spironolactone, theophylline), and marijuana. It should not be confused with malignancy which is often hard, asymmetric and fixed to the dermis or fascia. Treatment if indicated, includes withdrawal of the causative factor or treatment of the underlying disorder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Women's Health
      19.2
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Out of the given options, which of the following is the most likely...

    Incorrect

    • Out of the given options, which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in a 25-year old gentleman presenting with a testicular germ cell tumour?

      Your Answer: Gonadoblastoma

      Correct Answer: Embryonal carcinoma

      Explanation:

      Embryonal carcinoma is a non-seminomatous germ cell tumour of the testis, accounting for 25% testicular tumours. Other germ cell tumours include seminoma, teratoma and choriocarcinoma. Embryonal carcinomas are known to occur in men aged 25-35 years, and occasionally in teens. They are rarely seen in ovaries of females. It can spread to the vas deferens and also to the aortic lymph nodes. Embryonal carcinomas are known to have elements of fetal origin such as cartilage. Usually, the main tumour is about 2.5cm long, with an extension of 8-9cm along the testicular cord. Contiguous spread to the testicle is seen in less than 1% cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Urology
      18.3
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - The superior pancreaticoduodenal artery, the artery that supplies blood to the pancreas and...

    Correct

    • The superior pancreaticoduodenal artery, the artery that supplies blood to the pancreas and the duodenum, is a branch of the:

      Your Answer: Gastroduodenal artery

      Explanation:

      The superior pancreaticoduodenal artery together with the right gastroepiploic artery form the two branches of the gastroduodenal artery which divides at the lower border of the duodenum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      6.1
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 30 year old female suffered from mismatched transfusion induced haemolysis. Which substance...

    Incorrect

    • A 30 year old female suffered from mismatched transfusion induced haemolysis. Which substance will be raised in the plasma of this patient?

      Your Answer: Transferrin

      Correct Answer: Bilirubin

      Explanation:

      Bilirubin is a yellow pigment that is formed due to the break down of RBCs. Haemolysis results in haemoglobin that is broken down into a haem portion and globin which is converted into amino acids and used again. Haem is converted into unconjugated bilirubin in the macrophages and shunted to the liver. In the liver it is conjugated with glucuronic acid making it water soluble and thus excreted in the urine. Its normal levels are from 0.2-1 mg/dl. Increased bilirubin causes jaundice and yellowish discoloration of the skin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      13.1
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - Cyclophosphamide is used as a chemotherapy and immunosuppressant agent and is indicated in...

    Incorrect

    • Cyclophosphamide is used as a chemotherapy and immunosuppressant agent and is indicated in various diseases. One of the most severe complications of its use is cancer of the:

      Your Answer: Bone

      Correct Answer: Urinary bladder

      Explanation:

      Cyclophosphamide is used to treat various types of cancer and autoimmune disorders. The main use of cyclophosphamide is in combination with other chemotherapy agents in the treatment of lymphomas, some forms of leukaemia and some solid tumours. Side-effects include nausea and vomiting, bone marrow suppression, stomach ache, diarrhoea, darkening of the skin/nails, alopecia, lethargy, and haemorrhagic cystitis. Cyclophosphamide is itself carcinogenic, potentially causing transitional cell carcinoma of the bladder as a long-term complication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Pharmacology
      21.5
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - Increased resistance to flow of blood in cerebral vessels is most likely seen...

    Incorrect

    • Increased resistance to flow of blood in cerebral vessels is most likely seen in:

      Your Answer: Reduction in systemic arterial pressure

      Correct Answer: Elevation in systemic arterial pressure from 100 to 130 mmHg

      Explanation:

      Constant cerebral blood flow is maintained by autoregulation in the brain, which causes an increase in local vascular resistance to offset an increase in blood pressure. There will be an increase in cerebral blood flow (and decrease in resistance to cerebral blood flow) with a decrease in arterial oxygen or an increase in arterial CO2. Similarly, a decrease in viscosity will also increase the blood flow. Due to increased brain metabolism and activity during a seizure, there will also be an increase in the cerebral blood flow.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      5.7
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - The dura mater is a thick membrane that is the outermost of the...

    Incorrect

    • The dura mater is a thick membrane that is the outermost of the three layers of the meninges. Which of the following foramen transmits the dura mater?

      Your Answer: Foramen spinosum

      Correct Answer: Foramen magnum

      Explanation:

      The foramen magnum is found in the most inferior part of the posterior cranial fossa . It is traversed by vital structures including the medulla oblongata . Its contents include the following: medulla oblongata, meninges (arachnoid, dura and pia mater), spinal root of the accessory nerve, vertebral arteries, anterior and posterior spinal arteries, tectorial membrane and alar ligaments .

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      20.1
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - An enlarged lymph node which shows well-defined, prominent paracortical follicles with germinal centres...

    Correct

    • An enlarged lymph node which shows well-defined, prominent paracortical follicles with germinal centres is most likely from which of the following patients?

      Your Answer: A 5-year-old boy with a sore throat and runny nose

      Explanation:

      Lymphadenopathy is common in children and is usually reactive in nature. The description fits that of a benign, reactive lymph node.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      16.8
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A diabetic 58-year-old man, after the injection of radiographic contrast, has a decreased...

    Correct

    • A diabetic 58-year-old man, after the injection of radiographic contrast, has a decreased urine output and decreased level of consciousness. Which of the following conditions has he most likely developed

      Your Answer: Acute tubular necrosis

      Explanation:

      Acute tubular necrosis (ATN) involves damage to the tubule cells of the kidneys and is the most common cause of acute kidney injury. ATN in the majority of the cases is caused by ischaemia of the kidneys due to lack of perfusion and oxygenation but it may also occur due to poison or harmful substance. Contrast used for radiology may cause ATN in patients with several risk factors e.g. diabetic nephropathy. Symptoms may include oliguria, nausea, fluid retention, fatigue and decreased consciousness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Renal
      7.6
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - Following a bee sting, a women develops a 2cm red, raised, swollen lesion...

    Incorrect

    • Following a bee sting, a women develops a 2cm red, raised, swollen lesion at the site of the sting . Which of the following findings is likely to be seen in this lesion?

      Your Answer: Foreign body reaction

      Correct Answer: Vasodilation

      Explanation:

      Inflammation is the immediate response of the body towards infections or irritations. The cardinal signs of inflammation are 1. redness/rubor, 2. tumour/swelling, 3.dolar/pain, 4.calor/heat and organ dysfunction (function laesa). Inflammation has 2 components; vascular and cellular. Blood vessels dilate upstream of the inflamed area leading to the rubor and calor and constrict downstream, increasing pressure and causing fluid to leak out of the capillary, resulting in swelling. The cellular component includes infiltration by neutrophils. Leukocyte arrival and functions include; 1. margination: cells marginated from the centre to the periphery of the vessel, 2. rolling: selectins are upregulated on the vessel walls, 3. adhesion: upregulation of the adhesion molecules ICAM and VCAM on the endothelium interact with integrins on the leukocytes resulting in adhesion, 4. diapedesis and chemotaxis: diapedesis is the transmigration of the leukocyte across the endothelium of the capillary and towards a chemotactic product and 5. phagocytosis: engulfing the offending substance/cell.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Inflammation & Immunology
      • Pathology
      13.2
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - When a penile tumour invades the subepithelial connective tissue of the penis, what...

    Incorrect

    • When a penile tumour invades the subepithelial connective tissue of the penis, what is its stage?

      Your Answer: T4

      Correct Answer: T1

      Explanation:

      The TNM staging used for penile cancer is as follows:

      TX: primary tumour cannot be assessed

      T0: primary tumour is not evident

      Tis: carcinoma in situ is present

      Ta: non-invasive verrucous carcinoma is present

      T1: tumour is invading subepithelial connective tissue

      T2: tumour is invading the corpora spongiosum or cavernosum

      T3: tumour invading the urethra or prostate

      T4: tumour invading other adjacent structures.

      In this case, the patient has a T1 tumour.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Urology
      21.7
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - An explorative laparotomy is done on a 23 year old following a gunshot...

    Incorrect

    • An explorative laparotomy is done on a 23 year old following a gunshot abdominal injury through the right iliac fossa. It is found that the ileocolic artery is severed and the bullet had perforated the caecum. From which branch does the ileocolic artery originate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Superior mesenteric artery

      Explanation:

      Ileocolic artery branches off from the superior mesenteric artery. It then divides to give a superior and inferior branch.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Anatomy (5/10) 50%
Head & Neck (3/5) 60%
General (3/4) 75%
Physiology (4/6) 67%
Upper Limb (1/1) 100%
Fluids & Electrolytes (0/2) 0%
Pathology (6/13) 46%
Microbiology (0/1) 0%
Renal (2/2) 100%
Lower Limb (0/2) 0%
Urology (2/3) 67%
Women's Health (1/2) 50%
Cell Injury & Wound Healing (1/1) 100%
Abdomen (1/2) 50%
Pharmacology (0/1) 0%
Cardiovascular (0/1) 0%
Haematology (0/1) 0%
Inflammation & Immunology (1/1) 100%
Passmed