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  • Question 1 - At what gestation does a mother typically first become aware of fetal movements?...

    Correct

    • At what gestation does a mother typically first become aware of fetal movements?

      Your Answer: 18-20 weeks

      Explanation:

      Typically fetal movements become apparent by 18-20 weeks

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      4.5
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Which one of the following combination hormonal contraceptives is most effective in obese...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following combination hormonal contraceptives is most effective in obese women?

      Your Answer: The etonogestrel/ethinyl oestradiol vaginal ring (NuvaRing)

      Explanation:

      Depot medroxyprogesterone acetate and the combination contraceptive vaginal ring are the most effective hormonal contraceptives for obese women because they do not appear to be affected by body weight. Women using the combination contraceptive patch who weight 90 kg may experience decreased contraceptive efficacy. Obese women using oral contraceptives may also have an increased risk of pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      2.6
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Pregnant patients are at higher risk of thromboembolism due to a hypercoagulable state....

    Correct

    • Pregnant patients are at higher risk of thromboembolism due to a hypercoagulable state. Which of the following clotting factors reduces during pregnancy?

      Your Answer: Factor XI

      Explanation:

      Pregnancy is a hypercoagulable state, which means that risk of thromboembolism is increased. The main reason is an increase in clotting factors II, factor VII, fibrinogen, factor X and factor XII, whereas factors XI and factor XIII are reduced. Naturally occurring anticoagulants i.e. protein C and protein S are both decreased thus increasing the risk of thrombus formation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      2.7
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 36-year-old woman arrived at the clinic complaining of stomach discomfort and vaginal...

    Correct

    • A 36-year-old woman arrived at the clinic complaining of stomach discomfort and vaginal bleeding. A pregnancy test in the urine came back positive. An ultrasonography of the right fallopian tube revealed a gestational sac.

      Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for the ailment you've just read about?

      Your Answer: Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus

      Explanation:

      An ectopic pregnancy is definitely present in this patient. An extrauterine pregnancy is referred to as an ectopic pregnancy. The fallopian tube accounts for 96% of ectopic pregnancies, but other sites include the cervical, interstitial (also called cornual; a pregnancy located in the proximal segment of the fallopian tube that is embedded within the muscular wall of the uterus), hysterotomy (caesarean) scar, intramural, ovarian, or abdominal. Furthermore, multiple gestations may be heterotopic in rare situations (including both a uterine and extrauterine pregnancy). Diabetes mellitus is not considered a risk factor for the development of an ectopic pregnancy.

      Risk factors for ectopic pregnancy are summarized below:
      High Risk: (Risk factors & Odds ratio)
      Previous ectopic pregnancy 2.7 to 8.3
      Previous tubal surgery 2.1 to 21
      Tubal pathology 3.5 to 25
      Sterilization 5.2 to 19
      IUD – Past use 1.7 – Current use 4.2 to 16.4
      Levonorgestrel IUD 4.9
      In vitro fertilization in current pregnancy 4.0 to 9.3

      Moderate:
      Current use of oestrogen/progestin oral contraceptives 1.7 to 4.5
      Previous sexually transmitted infections (gonorrhoea, chlamydia) 2.8 to 3.7
      Previous pelvic inflammatory disease 2.5 to 3.4
      In utero diethylstilbesterol (DES) exposure 3.7
      Smoking – Past smoker 1.5 to 2.5 – Current smoker 1.7 to 3.9
      Previous pelvic/abdominal surgery 4.0
      Previous spontaneous abortion 3.0

      Low:
      Previous medically induced abortion 2.8
      Infertility 2.1 to 2.7
      Age ≥40 years 2.9
      Vaginal douching 1.1 to 3.1
      Age at first intercourse <18 years 1.6
      Previous appendectomy 1.6

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      12.1
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A patient undergoes oophorectomy and the ovarian veins are ligated. Which vein does...

    Correct

    • A patient undergoes oophorectomy and the ovarian veins are ligated. Which vein does the left ovary drain into?

      Your Answer: Left renal

      Explanation:

      When it comes to questions on venous drainage the ovarian vein is likely to be a common question given its varied drainage depending on laterality. The right ovarian vein travels through the suspensory ligament of the ovary and generally joins the inferior vena cava whereas the left ovarian vein drains into the left renal vein.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      13
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Which of the following Oestrogens (Oestrogens) becomes the predominant circulating oestrogen during pregnancy?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following Oestrogens (Oestrogens) becomes the predominant circulating oestrogen during pregnancy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Estriol

      Explanation:

      Oestradiol is the predominant form of oestrogen during the reproductive life of a female. The estrogenic potency of oestradiol is 12 times more than estrone and 80 times that of estriol.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 17-year-old girl presented to the medical clinic for emergency contraception. Upon interview,...

    Incorrect

    • A 17-year-old girl presented to the medical clinic for emergency contraception. Upon interview, it was revealed that she had unprotected sexual intercourse last night and is worried that she may become pregnant. She mentioned that her last menstrual period was 1 week ago, and she has regular menses since menarche.
      Further physical examination was performed and results are normal and her urine pregnancy test is negative. After discussing various emergency contraceptive options, the patient asked for a pill option and requested to not inform her parents about this visit.

      In most states, which of the following is considered the most appropriate step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Provide levonorgestrel pill

      Explanation:

      Levonorgestrel, also known as the morning-after pill, is a first-line oral emergency contraceptive pill with approval from the World Health Organization to prevent pregnancy. It is FDA-approved to be used within 72 hours of unprotected sexual intercourse or when a presumed contraceptive failure has occurred.

      A prescription is not needed, and it is available over the counter at local pharmacies. The FDA has also approved levonorgestrel availability for all age groups due to its lack of life-threatening contraindications and side-effect profile.

      There are several contraindications for the emergency contraceptive form, including allergy, hypersensitivity, severe liver disease, pregnancy, and drug-drug interactions with liver enzyme-inducing drugs. The medication is not for use in women confirmed to be pregnant; however, there is no proof nor reports of adverse effects on the mother or foetus following inadvertent exposure during pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 31 year old is being seen in EPU and you are asked...

    Incorrect

    • A 31 year old is being seen in EPU and you are asked to review her ultrasound. There is a solid collection of echoes with numerous small (3-10 mm) anechoic spaces. What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Molar Pregnancy

      Explanation:

      Gestational trophoblastic disorder is characterized by an abnormal trophoblastic proliferation and include a complete and partial mole. It is characterized by persistently elevated BHCG levels after pregnancy and on ultrasound a snow storm appearance. These appear as anechoic areas on ultrasound.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Data Interpretation
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Which of the following statements regarding management of obstetric anal sphincter injuries (OASIS)...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements regarding management of obstetric anal sphincter injuries (OASIS) is true?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Broad-spectrum antibiotics should be given routinely following OASIS

      Explanation:

      After perineal repair, lactulose and a bulking agent should ideally be given for 5-10 days as well as broad spectrum antibiotics should be given that will cover all possible anaerobic bacteria. At 6-12 months a full evaluation should be done regarding the progress of healing. 60 to 80% of women are asymptomatic 12 months post delivery and external anal sphincter repair.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - In girls what is the first sign of puberty? ...

    Incorrect

    • In girls what is the first sign of puberty?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Breast development

      Explanation:

      The first sign of puberty in females is the development of breasts.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 19 year old patient on Lamotrigine 125 mg twice a day for...

    Incorrect

    • A 19 year old patient on Lamotrigine 125 mg twice a day for the past two years has recently been prescribed Microgynon 30 as a contraceptive before she leaves for Uni. What could the main concern be?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Combined contraceptive may reduce Lamotrigine levels and increase seizure risk

      Explanation:

      Lamotrigine, a drug used to treat epilepsy, is less effective when taken with combined oral contraceptives. The oestrogen component of the pill decreases the circulating levels of Lamotrigine, increasing the risk of seizures. The combination is therefore classified as a UKMEC 3, as the risk of the drug combination may outweigh the benefit. As an alternative, the progesterone-only pill, depo progesterone, Mirena or the copper IUD may be considered as there is no restriction on concomitant use. Lamotrigine is not metabolised through cytochrome P450 like other antiepileptic drugs such as carbamazepine and phenytoin, neither is it an enzyme inhibitor.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Regarding the foetus, which one of the following statements is true? ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding the foetus, which one of the following statements is true?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fetal lie describes the long axis of the foetus to the long axis of the mother

      Explanation:

      Fetal lie describes the relationship of the long axis of the foetus with respect to the long axis of the mother.
      Coronal suture is the transverse suture separating the parietal bone from the frontal bone.
      Umbilical cord is composed of two arteries and one vein. the vein carries the oxygenated blood, whereas the arteries contain the deoxygenated blood.
      At the time of birth, the anterior fontanelle is open and appears as a soft jelly like structure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A young woman came to your clinic seeking help. She has been married...

    Incorrect

    • A young woman came to your clinic seeking help. She has been married for two years and has yet to conceive. The following are the findings of blood tests:


      Luteinizing hormone levels are low.
      Low levels of follicle stimulating hormone.
      Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) levels are low.
      Prolactin-high.

      What is the most effective way to deal with infertility?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bromocriptine

      Explanation:

      The most common treatment approach is with the dopamine receptor agonists, bromocriptine, and cabergoline. Bromocriptine normalizes prolactin and decreases tumour size in 80%–90% of patients with microadenomas. Bromocriptine should be given to this patient who has developed hyperprolactinemia anovulation.

      Women with hyperprolactinaemic anovulation are treated with dopamine agonists such as bromocriptine.
      This patient has also developed symptoms of a low-functioning pituitary gland tumour, which bromocriptine will assist to shrink. Before starting bromocriptine, a head MRI scan should be considered to confirm the suspected diagnosis.

      Clomiphene is an oestrogen receptor modulator that is selective. It works by competing with oestrogen receptors in the hypothalamus. This disrupts normal negative feedback mechanisms, causing the release of pituitary gonadotropins, particularly LH, to rise, triggering ovulation.
      When the levels of gonadotropins and oestrogen are normal but the women still have ovulatory dysfunction, it is successful in inducing ovulation. In hypogonadotropic hypogonadism and hypogonadotropic hypogonadism patients, clomiphene is frequently ineffective.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 32 year old patient develops painful ulcerated genital lesions and inguinal lymphadenopathy....

    Incorrect

    • A 32 year old patient develops painful ulcerated genital lesions and inguinal lymphadenopathy. She is 32 weeks pregnant. You suspect genital herpes and send swabs. Which of the following is appropriate management according to the 2014 BASHH/RCOG guidelines?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Send bloods to check antibody status. If this supports this is a first episode genital HSV then patient should be advised to have C-section delivery

      Explanation:

      Although acyclovir should be given, this patient is in the 3rd trimester so the course should continue until delivery. Dose will be 400mg TDS unless disseminated disease. If this is a primary HSV infection (This should be confirmed by lesion swabs to confirm HSV infection and bloods to check no antibody response i.e. evidence previous infection) then C-section is indicated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 39-year-old woman presents with a history of menorrhagia for 2 years. Her...

    Incorrect

    • A 39-year-old woman presents with a history of menorrhagia for 2 years. Her symptoms started after laparoscopic filshie clip sterilization was performed 3 years ago. She has three children aged eleven, seven, and six years.  Her periods used to last 10 days before she was sterilized because she didn't use any form of contraception. Her periods lasted only four days when she was on the oral contraceptive pill (OCP), which was the case right before the sterilization. At the time of sterilization, a hysteroscopic check revealed a normal uterine cavity, and no abnormalities were found during the laparoscopic surgery. Which of the following would be the best next step in management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID).

      Explanation:

      Although a dilatation and curettage (D&C) is frequently recommended as part of a woman’s menorrhagia examination.
      D&C is not indicated in a woman who had a normal hysteroscopy and laparoscopy only two years ago, and who experienced comparable symptoms when not taking the OCP in the past, especially after the age of 40.
      The Filshie clips should not be removed because they will not improve the symptoms.

      Although an endometrial ablation or possibly a hysterectomy may be required in the future to address the symptoms, the first line of treatment should be a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID), which will reduce the loss in up to half of the women treated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 32-year-old mother with a 9-year-old child is considering having a second child....

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old mother with a 9-year-old child is considering having a second child. Her first pregnancy was complicated by puerperal psychosis. Following electroconvulsive therapy (ECT), she promptly recovered and has been well until now. She is in excellent health and her husband has been very supportive. According to patient files, she was noted to be an excellent mother.

      What would be the most appropriate advice?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: There is a 15-20% chance of recurrence of psychosis postpartum.

      Explanation:

      Puerperal psychosis seems to be mainly hereditary and closely associated with bipolar disorder especially the manic type, rather than being a distinct condition with a group of classical symptoms or course. Postpartum psychoses typically have an abrupt onset within 2 weeks of delivery and may have rapid progression of symptoms. Fortunately, it is generally a brief condition and responds well to prompt management. If the condition is threatening the mother and/or baby’s safety, hospital admission is warranted. A patient can present with a wide variety of psychotic symptoms ranging from delusion, passivity phenomenon, catatonia, and hallucinations. While depression and mania may be the predominating features, it is not surprising to see symptoms such as confusion and stupor. Although the rate of incidence is about 1 in 1000 pregnancies, it is seen in about 20% of women who previously had bipolar episodes prior to pregnancy. It has not been shown to be linked with factors such as twin pregnancies, stillbirth, breastfeeding or being a single parent. However, it might be more commonly seen in women who are first-time mothers and pregnancy terminations.

      The risk of recurrence is 20%. Unfortunately, there is no specific treatment guideline but organic causes should first be ruled out. First generation/typical anti-psychotics are often associated with extrapyramidal symptoms. Nowadays, atypical antipsychotics such as risperidone or olanzapine can be used along with lithium which is a mood stabiliser. As of now, there hasn’t been any significant side effects as a result of second generation antipsychotic use in pregnancy. While women are usually advised to stop breast-feeding, it might be unnecessary except if the mother is being treated with lithium which has been reported to cause side effects on the infants in a few instances. ECT is considered to be highly efficacious for all types of postpartum psychosis and may be necessary if the mother’s condition is life-threatening to herself or/and the baby. If untreated, puerperal psychosis might persist for 6 months or even longer.

      The options of saying ‘in view of her age and previous problem, further pregnancies are out of the question’ and so is ‘By all means start another pregnancy and see how she feels about it. If she has misgivings, then have the pregnancy terminated.’ are inappropriate.

      As mentioned earlier, considering there is a 20% chance of recurrence it is not correct to say that since she had good outcomes with her first pregnancy, the risk of recurrence is minimal.

      Anti-psychotics are not recommended to be used routinely both during pregnancy and lactation due to the absence of long-term research on children with intrauterine and breastmilk exposure to the drugs. Hence it is not right to conclude that ‘if she gets pregnant then she should take prophylactic antipsychotics throughout the pregnancy’ as it contradicts current guidelines. Each case should be individualised and the risks compared with the benefits to decide whether anti-psychotics should be given during pregnancy. It is important to obtain informed consent from both the mother and partner with documentation.

      Should the mother deteriorates during the pregnancy that she no longer is capable of making decisions about treatment, then an application for temporary guardianship should be carried out to ensure that she can be continued on the appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - You are called to a delivery as the midwife is concerned about CTG...

    Incorrect

    • You are called to a delivery as the midwife is concerned about CTG changes. She suggests a fetal blood sample (FBS). You inspect the cervix. At what dilatation would you NOT perform FBS?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Less than 3cm

      Explanation:

      Indications for FBS:
      1. Pathological CTG in labour (cervix dilated >3 cm)
      2. Suspected acidosis in labour (cervix dilated >3 cm)
      Contraindications to FBS:
      – Maternal infection e.g. HIV, HSV and Hepatitis
      – Known fetal coagulopathy
      – Prematurity (< 34 weeks gestation)
      – Acute fetal compromise

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Data Interpretation
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 25-year-old woman presents to your clinic for her routine annual check-up and...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman presents to your clinic for her routine annual check-up and Pap smear. She has a single partner who uses condoms during contraception. Her menstrual cycle is regular and around four weeks long. Her last menstrual period was 2 weeks ago. She is otherwise healthy with no symptoms suggesting a problem with her genital tract. Per vaginal examination is performed revealing a 4 cm cystic swelling in the right ovary. What would be the best next step of management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: See her again in six weeks and arrange an ultrasound examination if the cyst is still present.

      Explanation:

      Because of the high possibility of spontaneous resolution and the fact that if the cystic mass was verified ultrasonically, a conservative policy would almost probably be proposed for at least another six weeks, an ultrasound examination is not necessary at this time. If the cyst is still present at the six-week check, an ultrasound examination is required, as it is likely that the cyst is a benign tumour or possibly endometriosis. It’s quite improbable that it’s cancer.
      Additional tests, such as computed tomography (CT) examination and potentially surgical removal or drainage, may be required in the future, although not at this time.
      This cyst in a young lady is almost probably of physiological origin, especially given its size. The woman should be informed, but a follow-up examination is required. The most suitable next action is to return in six weeks, as the cyst is most likely physiologic and will most likely dissipate naturally by then. The following appointment should not take place during the same menstrual cycle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - During the inflammatory phase of wound healing what is the predominant cell type...

    Incorrect

    • During the inflammatory phase of wound healing what is the predominant cell type found in the wound during days 3-4?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Macrophages

      Explanation:

      PMNs phagocytise debris and kill bacteria via free radicals (AKA respiratory burst). They also break down damaged tissue. PMNs typically undergo apoptosis after 48 hours. They are then engulfed and degraded by macrophages. Macrophages therefore become the predominant cell type in the wound on days 3-4.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Regarding lymph drainage of the fallopian tubes where does the majority of lymph...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding lymph drainage of the fallopian tubes where does the majority of lymph drain to?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Para-aortic nodes

      Explanation:

      Lymphatic vessels from the ovaries, joined by vessels from the uterine tubes and most from the fundus of the uterus, follow the ovarian veins as they ascend to the right and left lumbar (caval/aortic) lymph nodes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - Which one of the following methods helps determine the fetal position and presentation?...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following methods helps determine the fetal position and presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Leopold's manoeuvre

      Explanation:

      Fetal position and presentation is best evaluated by Leopold’s manoeuvre. It will determine which part of the foetus is in the uterine fundus.
      Cullen’s sign is found in ruptured ectopic pregnancy characterised by bruising and oedema of the periumbilical region.
      Mauriceau-Smelli-Veit manoeuvre is done during a breech delivery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - The test used to diagnose ovulation on day 21 in a 28 days...

    Incorrect

    • The test used to diagnose ovulation on day 21 in a 28 days menstrual cycle is:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Progesterone

      Explanation:

      After ovulation, the dominant follicle turns into a corpus luteum and begins to secrete progesterone. To confirm ovulation, serum progesterone or its metabolite in urine, can be measured. A single serum progesterone level >3 ng/ml in mid‐luteal phase has been used to retrospectively detect ovulation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 40-year-old white female lawyer sees you for the first time. When providing...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old white female lawyer sees you for the first time. When providing a history, she describes several problems, including anxiety, sleep disorders, fatigue, persistent depressed mood, and decreased libido. These symptoms have been present for several years and are worse prior to menses, although they also occur to some degree during menses and throughout the month. Her menstrual periods are regular for the most part.

      The most likely diagnosis at this time is:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dysthymia

      Explanation:

      Psychological disorders, including anxiety, depression, and dysthymia, are frequently confused with premenstrual syndrome (PMS), and must be ruled out before initiating therapy. Symptoms are cyclic in true PMS. The most accurate way to make the diagnosis is to have the patient keep a menstrual calendar for at least two cycles, carefully recording daily symptoms. Dysthymia consists of a pattern of ongoing, mild depressive symptoms that have been present for 2 years or more and are less severe than those of major depression. This diagnosis is consistent with the findings in the patient described here.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - You receive a swab result from a patient who had complained of odorous...

    Incorrect

    • You receive a swab result from a patient who had complained of odorous vaginal discharge. It confirms bacterial vaginosis (BV). Which pathogen is most commonly associated with BV?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gardnerella vaginalis

      Explanation:

      Bacterial vaginosis is characterised by a foul smelling vaginal discharge without inflammation. The most common spp to cause this is gardnerella vaginalis. Other spp include mycoplasma hominis and bacteroides. It occurs due to growth and increase in anaerobic spp with simultaneous reduction in lactobacilli in vaginal flora causing an increase in vaginal pH. It is the most common cause of abnormal vaginal discharge in women of childbearing age.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 25-year-old Aboriginal lady presents to antenatal clinic at 19 weeks of her...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old Aboriginal lady presents to antenatal clinic at 19 weeks of her gestation.

      This is considered as the best time for which one of the following?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ultrasound

      Explanation:

      Between 18-20 weeks of gestation is the best time to perform an ultrasound for the identification of any physical or anatomical abnormalities including neural tube defects.

      Maternal serum screening for Down syndrome is best performed between 15-17 weeks of pregnancy and this screening includes analysis of alpha fetoprotein, estriol, and beta-HCG in maternal blood. Conducting tests on accurate dates is necessary to obtain reliable results.

      Amniocentesis which is very accurate for the diagnosis of chromosomal anomalies including Down syndrome, is best performed between 16-18 weeks of gestation and it carries a risk of 1 in 200 for miscarriage. Rh negative women will need Rh D immunoglobulin (anti-D).

      Chorionic villus sampling is best performed between 10-12 weeks of gestation and carries a 1 in 100 risk of miscarriage, this test is also very much accurate for diagnosis of chromosomal anomalies. Rh negative women need Rh D immunoglobulin (anti-D).

      It is best to perform rubella screen before conception than during pregnancy, this is because rubella vaccine is not recommended to be given to a pregnant mother as its a live vaccine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - Which of the following hormones inhibits lactogenesis during pregnancy? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following hormones inhibits lactogenesis during pregnancy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oestrogen and Progesterone

      Explanation:

      Under the influence of prolactin, oestrogen and progesterone and human placental lactogen (hPL), the mammary epithelium proliferates but remains presecretory during mammogenesis. Lactogenesis is inhibited by high circulating levels of progesterone and oestrogen which block cortisol binding sites. Cortisol would have otherwise have worked synergistically with prolactin in milk production. A sharp decrease in progesterone levels after delivery allows prolactin and oxytocin to stimulate milk production and the milk ejection reflex in response to suckling. Prolactin continues to maintain milk production in galactopoiesis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - Which of the following statements is true regarding heart rate in pregnancy? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is true regarding heart rate in pregnancy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Heart rate increases by 15 beats per minute

      Explanation:

      During the first 12 weeks of pregnancy, cardiac output increases by about 30-50%. To maintain this increase, systemic vascular resistance decreases by 20-30%, while stroke volume and the heart rate increase by 25-30% and 15 beats per minute respectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 33-year-old woman presented to the medical clinic with a history of type...

    Incorrect

    • A 33-year-old woman presented to the medical clinic with a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus. She plans to conceive in the next few months and asks for advice. Her fasting blood sugar is 10.5 mmol/L and her HbA1c is 9%.

      Which of the following is considered the best advice to give to the patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Achieve HbA1c value less than 7% before she gets pregnant

      Explanation:

      Women with diabetes have increased risk for adverse maternal and neonatal outcomes and similar risks are present for either type 1 or type 2 diabetes. Both forms of diabetes require similar intensity of diabetes care. Preconception planning is very important to avoid unintended pregnancies, and to minimize risk of congenital defects. Haemoglobin A1c goal at conception is <6.5% and during pregnancy is <6.0%.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - Missed abortion may cause one of the following complications: ...

    Incorrect

    • Missed abortion may cause one of the following complications:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Coagulopathy

      Explanation:

      A serious complication with a miscarriage is DIC, a severe blood clotting condition and is more likely if there is a long time until the foetus and other tissues are passed, which is often the case in missed abortion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - Which of the following is an acute complication of radiotherapy? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is an acute complication of radiotherapy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Moist skin desquamation

      Explanation:

      Tissues with actively dividing cells, such as bone marrow and gastrointestinal mucosa, are particularly sensitive to ionising radiation. Lymphocyte depletion is the most sensitive marker of bone marrow injury, and after exposure to
      a fatal dose, marrow aplasia is a common cause of death. The gonads are highly radiosensitive and radiation may result in temporary or permanent sterility. Stochastic (chance) effects occur with increasing probability
      as the dose of radiation increases. Carcinogenesis represents a stochastic effect. With acute exposures, leukaemias may arise after an interval of around 2–5 years and solid tumours after an interval of about 10–20 years. Moist skin desquamation can be an acute reaction to both radio and chemotherapy whereas fibrosis and lymphoedema are late complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Biophysics
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Clinical Management (2/2) 100%
Gynaecology (2/2) 100%
Anatomy (1/1) 100%
Passmed