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  • Question 1 - A 35 year-old female developed food poisoning 24H after eating canned food. She...

    Correct

    • A 35 year-old female developed food poisoning 24H after eating canned food. She complained of abdominal cramps, with nausea and vomiting. Shortly after she suddenly developed weakness, blurring of vision, difficulty in swallowing and breathing. Which of the following organisms is most likely associated with fatal food poisoning?

      Your Answer: Clostridium botulinum

      Explanation:

      C. botulinum is a Gram-positive, rod-shaped, spore-forming bacterium. It is an obligate anaerobe, meaning that oxygen is poisonous to the cells. Only botulinum toxin types A, B, E, and F cause disease in humans. Types A, B, and E are associated with foodborne illness. Botulism poisoning can occur due to preserved or home-canned, low-acid food that was not processed using correct preservation times and/or pressure. Signs and symptoms of foodborne botulism typically begin between 18 and 36 hours after the toxin gets into the body, but can range from a few hours to several days, depending on the amount of toxin ingested. Botulinum that is produced by Clostridium botulinum can cause respiratory and muscular paralysis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathology
      19.1
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - When at rest, which of the following will be higher in a marathon...

    Correct

    • When at rest, which of the following will be higher in a marathon runner compared to an untrained individual?

      Your Answer: Cardiac stroke volume

      Explanation:

      Cardiac muscle hypertrophy is seen in trained athletes as compared to the normal population. This hypertrophy results in higher stroke volume at rest and increased cardiac reserve (maximum cardiac output during exercise). However, the cardiac output at rest is almost the same in both trained and untrained people. This is because in trained athletes, the heart rate is slower, even up to 40-50 beats/min. There is minimal affect of athletic training on oxygen consumption and respiratory rate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      7.7
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 6 year-old boy is brought to you coughing. He is suspected to...

    Incorrect

    • A 6 year-old boy is brought to you coughing. He is suspected to have aspirated a Lego piece which he was seen playing with. Where would you expect the piece to be?

      Your Answer: Terminal bronchiole of the right lung, lower lobe

      Correct Answer: Right main bronchus

      Explanation:

      Inhaled objects are more likely to enter the right lung for several reasons. First the right bronchus is shorter, wider and more vertical than the left bronchus. Also, the carina (a ridge-like structure at the point of tracheal bifurcation) is set a little towards the left. The terminal bronchiole is a very small space and impossible for the seed to lodge here.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      18
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 40 year old woman, who is under anaesthesia for an elective procedure,...

    Correct

    • A 40 year old woman, who is under anaesthesia for an elective procedure, received an antibiotic injection. She immediately developed a rash and her airway constricted raising the airway pressure. Which mechanism is responsible for this reaction?

      Your Answer: Type I hypersensitivity

      Explanation:

      Type I hypersensitivity reaction is an immediate reaction that occurs due to binding of the antigen with antibodies attached to mast cells in a previously sensitized person. It has an immediate phase, which is characterised by vasodilation, leakage of plasma, smooth muscle spasm, or glandular secretions. This manifests in about 5-30 min and usually resolves within 60 mins. The delayed phase follows after 24 hours and can persist up to several days. It is due to infiltration of eosinophils, neutrophils, basophils and CD4+ cells and leads to tissue destruction. The nature of the reaction varies according to the site. It can take the form of skin allergy, hives, allergic rhinitis, conjunctivitis, bronchial asthma or food allergy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Inflammation & Immunology
      • Pathology
      16.3
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 34-year-old woman is diagnosed with cerebral oedema after suffering a severe head...

    Incorrect

    • A 34-year-old woman is diagnosed with cerebral oedema after suffering a severe head trauma. Which of the following conditions is not likely to be associated with the extracellular oedema?

      Your Answer: Increased capillary pressure

      Correct Answer: Increased plasma colloid osmotic pressure

      Explanation:

      Cerebral oedema is extracellular fluid accumulation in the brain. Increased capillary permeability, increased capillary pressure, increased interstitial fluid colloid osmotic pressure and lymphatic blockage would increase fluid movement into the interstitial spaces. Increased plasma colloid osmotic pressure, however, would oppose fluid movement from the capillaries into the interstitial compartment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluids & Electrolytes
      • Physiology
      48.5
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Leakage from a silicone breast implant can lead to: ...

    Incorrect

    • Leakage from a silicone breast implant can lead to:

      Your Answer: Fat necrosis

      Correct Answer: Pain and contracture

      Explanation:

      Breast implants are mainly: saline-filled and silicone gel-filled. Complications include haematoma, fluid collections, infection at the surgical site, pain, wrinkling, asymmetric appearance, wound dehiscence and thinning of the breast tissue.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Women's Health
      8.9
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A sudden loud sound is more likely to result in cochlear damage than...

    Incorrect

    • A sudden loud sound is more likely to result in cochlear damage than a slowly developing loud sound. This is because:

      Your Answer: A sudden sound directly damages the vestibular nerve

      Correct Answer: There is a latent period before the attenuation reflex can occur

      Explanation:

      On transmission of a loud sound into the central nervous system, an attenuation reflex occurs after a latent period of 40-80 ms. This reflex contracts the two muscles that pull malleus and stapes closer, developing a high degree of rigidity in the entire ossicular chain. This reduces the ossicular conduction of low frequency sounds to the cochlea by 30-40 decibels. In this way, the cochlea is protected from damage due to loud sounds (these are low frequency sounds) when they develop slowly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      26.3
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - When the pitch of a sound increases, what is the physiological response seen...

    Incorrect

    • When the pitch of a sound increases, what is the physiological response seen in the listener?

      Your Answer: The amplitude of maximal basilar membrane displacement increases

      Correct Answer: The location of maximal basilar membrane displacement moves toward the base of the cochlea

      Explanation:

      An increase in the frequency of sound waves results in a change in the position of maximal displacement of the basilar membrane in the cochlea. Low pitch sound produces maximal displacement towards the cochlear apex and greatest activation of hair cells there. With an increasing pitch, the site of greatest displacement moves towards the cochlear base. However, increased amplitude of displacement, increase in the number of activated hair cells, increased frequency of discharge of units in the auditory nerve and increase in the range of frequencies to which such units respond, are all seen in increases in the intensity or a sound stimulus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      20.9
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - An episiotomy is indicated for a woman during a difficult vaginal delivery. Whilst...

    Correct

    • An episiotomy is indicated for a woman during a difficult vaginal delivery. Whilst the registrar was performing this procedure she made a median cut too far through the perineal body cutting the structure immediately posterior. Which structure is this?

      Your Answer: External anal sphincter

      Explanation:

      An episiotomy is an incision that is made whenever there is a risk of a tear during vaginal deliver. A posterolateral incision, as opposed to a median incision is preferred. Of the options given, the external anal sphincter lies right posterior to the perineal body. The sacrospinous and the sacrotuberous ligaments are deep in the perineum that they should not be involved in this.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Pelvis
      4.9
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - The absence of which of the following components characterizes the grey platelet syndrome...

    Correct

    • The absence of which of the following components characterizes the grey platelet syndrome (GPS)?

      Your Answer: Alpha granules

      Explanation:

      Grey platelet syndrome (GPS) is a rare inherited bleeding disorder associated with an almost total absence of α-granules and their contents. The syndrome is characterised by thrombocytopenia, enlarged platelets that have a grey appearance, myelofibrosis, and splenomegaly. Alpha granules store proteins and growth factors that promote platelet adhesiveness and wound healing. Patients with GPS develop symptoms and signs such as easy bruising, prolonged bleeding, and nose bleeds.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      9.5
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Blood supply to the posterior compartment of the thigh is supplied by which...

    Correct

    • Blood supply to the posterior compartment of the thigh is supplied by which artery?

      Your Answer: Perforating

      Explanation:

      There are usually 3 perforating arteries:

      The first gives branches to the adductor brevis and magnus, biceps femoris and gluteus maximus and anastomoses with the inferior gluteal, medial and lateral femoral circumflex.

      The second artery supplies the posterior femoral muscles and anastomose with the first and third perforating vessels.

      The third supplies the posterior femoral muscles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      19.6
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 13-year-old boy's mother notices he has a lump in his arm, near...

    Correct

    • A 13-year-old boy's mother notices he has a lump in his arm, near his right shoulder. An X-ray reveals a lateral projection in the metaphyseal region of his humerus. The lesion is removed and it is found to be composed of bony cortex, capped by cartilage. What's the most likely diagnosis in this case?

      Your Answer: Osteochondroma

      Explanation:

      Osteochondromas, or osteocartilaginous exostoses, are the most common benign bone tumours, and tend to appear near the ends of long bones. The overgrowth can occur in any bone where cartilage forms bone, and they are capped by cartilage. They are most common in people between the ages of 10-20 years old.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      • Pathology
      20.8
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - As per the Poiseuille-Hagen formula, doubling the diameter of a vessel will change...

    Correct

    • As per the Poiseuille-Hagen formula, doubling the diameter of a vessel will change the resistance of the vessel from 16 peripheral resistance units (PRU) to:

      Your Answer: 1 PRU

      Explanation:

      Poiseuille-Hagen formula for flow in along narrow tube states that F = (PA– PB) × (Π/8) × (1/η) × (r4/l) where F = flow, PA– PB = pressure difference between the two ends of the tube, η = viscosity, r = radius of tube and L = length of tube. Also, flow is given by pressure difference divided by resistance. Hence, R = 8ηL ÷ Πr4. Hence, the resistance of the vessel changes in inverse proportion to the fourth power of the diameter. So, if the diameter of the vessel is increased to twice the original, it will lead to decrease in resistance to one-sixteenth its initial value.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      6
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Rapid eye movement (REM) sleep is likely to be affected by a lesion...

    Incorrect

    • Rapid eye movement (REM) sleep is likely to be affected by a lesion in the:

      Your Answer: Basal ganglia

      Correct Answer: Pons

      Explanation:

      Rapid eye movement (REM) sleep is also known as paradoxical sleep, as the summed activity of the brain’s neurons is quite similar to that during waking hours. Characterised by rapid movements of the eyes, most of the vividly recalled dreams occur during this stage of sleep. The total time of REM sleep for an adult is about 90–120 min per night.

      Certain neurones in the brainstem, known as REM sleep-on cells, which are located in the pontine tegmentum, are particularly active during REM sleep and are probably responsible for its occurrence. The eye movements associated with REM are generated by the pontine nucleus with projections to the superior colliculus and are associated with PGO (pons, geniculate, occipital) waves.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      15.1
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - You are asked to help a junior medical student studying anatomy to identify...

    Correct

    • You are asked to help a junior medical student studying anatomy to identify the left lung. Which of the following features found only in the left lung will you use the identify it?

      Your Answer: Cardiac notch

      Explanation:

      Oblique fissure: is found on both the left and the right lungs. It separates the upper from the lower lobes in both lungs and the middle lobe from the lower lobe in the right lung(which has three lobes.)

      The superior lobar bronchus is found in both lungs.

      Cardiac notch: found only on the left lung.

      Horizontal fissure: a deep groove separating the middle lobe from the upper lobe of the right lung is absent on the left lung.

      Diaphragmatic surface: refers to the part of the lung, both the left and the right, that is in contact with the diaphragm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      14.3
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 60-year old woman who has a left sided post-pneumonic effusion, was to...

    Correct

    • A 60-year old woman who has a left sided post-pneumonic effusion, was to have some pleural fluid aspirated for culture and sensitivity. If the medical intern in charge of the procedure decided to aspirate while the patient is sitting up on her bed, where in the pleural cavity would the fluid tend to accumulate?

      Your Answer: Costodiaphragmatic recess

      Explanation:

      The lowest part of the pleural cavity is the costodiaphragmatic recess and it the space in which the pleural fluid will accumulate when the patient sits up.

      The cupola is part of the pleural cavity that extends into the root of the neck above the first rib.

      The costomediastinal recess is the junction at which the costal pleura becomes the mediastinal pleura.

      The middle mediastinum is the part of the mediastinum that is occupied by the heart.

      The hilar reflection is the point where the mediastinal pleura is reflected to continue on as the visceral pleura.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      13.3
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 27 year old women had developed a darker complexion following a vacation...

    Correct

    • A 27 year old women had developed a darker complexion following a vacation to India. She had no erythema or tenderness. Her skin colour returned to normal over a period of 1 month. Which of the these substances is related to the biochemical change mentioned above?

      Your Answer: Tyrosine

      Explanation:

      The tanning process can occur due to UV light exposure as a result of oxidation of tyrosine to dihydrophenylalanine with the help of the tyrosinase enzyme within the melanocytes. Hemosiderin can impart a brown colour due to breakdown of RBC but its usually due to a trauma and is known as haemochromatosis.

      Lipofuscin gives a golden brown colour to the cell granules not the skin.

      Homogentisic acid is part of a rare disease alkaptonuria, with characteristic black pigment deposition within the connective tissue.

      Copper can impart a brown golden colour, but is not related to UV light exposure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Injury & Wound Healing
      • Pathology
      24.8
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Infection to all of the following will lead to enlargement of the superficial...

    Correct

    • Infection to all of the following will lead to enlargement of the superficial inguinal lymph nodes, except for:

      Your Answer: Ampulla of the rectum

      Explanation:

      The superficial inguinal lymph nodes form a chain immediately below the inguinal ligament. They receive lymphatic supply from the skin of the penis, scrotum, perineum, buttock and abdominal wall below the level of the umbilicus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      14.5
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 70-year-old female who underwent coronary artery bypass graft developed post-operative acute renal...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old female who underwent coronary artery bypass graft developed post-operative acute renal failure. Her urinary catheter was left in place to monitor urine output. 6 days later she developed fever and chills. She also complained of suprapubic and left flank pain. She is found to have developed acute ascending pyelonephritis. Which of the following organism was most likely isolated during urine culture?

      Your Answer: Escherichia coli with pili

      Explanation:

      The most common cause of urinary tract infection is Escherichia coli. Pilated strains of E. coli ascend the urethra to infect the kidney and the bladder. Catheters have been associated with an increased risk of UTIs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathology
      13.3
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Chest X-ray of a 45-year old gentleman with a week history of pleurisy...

    Correct

    • Chest X-ray of a 45-year old gentleman with a week history of pleurisy showed a small pneumothorax with moderate-sized pleural effusion. Arterial blood gas analysis showed p(CO2) = 23 mmHg, p(O2) = 234.5 mmHg, standard bicarbonate = 16 mmol/l. What are we most likely dealing with?

      Your Answer: Compensated respiratory alkalosis

      Explanation:

      Normal pH with low p(CO2) and low standard bicarbonate could indicate either compensated respiratory alkalosis or a compensated metabolic acidosis. However, the history of hyperventilation for 5 days (pleurisy) favours compensated respiratory alkalosis. Compensated metabolic acidosis would have been likely in a diabetic patient with fever, vomiting and high glucose (diabetic ketoacidosis).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory
      14.7
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - What percentage of cardiac output is delivered to the skin? ...

    Correct

    • What percentage of cardiac output is delivered to the skin?

      Your Answer: 2%

      Explanation:

      Making up 4-5% of total body weight, the skin receives approximately 2% of cardiac output.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      5.1
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - The proximal tubule is the portion of the ductal system of the nephron of the kidney which leads from Bowman's capsule to the loop...

    Correct

    • The proximal tubule is the portion of the ductal system of the nephron of the kidney which leads from Bowman's capsule to the loop of Henle. Which of the following is most likely to be seen in a sample of fluid leaving the proximal tubule?

      Your Answer: It will have no amino acids

      Explanation:

      The proximal tubule is the portion of the duct system of the nephron leading from Bowman’s capsule to the loop of Henlé. The most distinctive characteristic of the proximal tubule is its brush border (or ‘striated border’). The luminal surface of the epithelial cells of this segment of the nephron is covered with densely packed microvilli forming a border which greatly increases the luminal surface area of the cells, presumably facilitating their reabsorptive function. Glucose, amino acids, inorganic phosphate, and some other solutes are100% reabsorbed via secondary active transport through co-transporters driven by the sodium gradient out of the nephron.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal
      16.6
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - Which of the following foramina provides a passage through which the vestibulocochlear nerve,...

    Correct

    • Which of the following foramina provides a passage through which the vestibulocochlear nerve, passes?

      Your Answer: Internal acoustic meatus

      Explanation:

      The internal auditory meatus is a canal within the petrous part of the temporal bone of the skull between the posterior cranial fossa and the inner ear. It provides a passage through which the vestibulocochlear nerve, the facial nerve, and the labyrinthine artery (an internal auditory branch of the basilar artery) can pass from inside the skull to structures of the inner ear and face.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      11.3
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - In order to arrest sudden bleeding during pericardiectomy that started after accidental injury...

    Incorrect

    • In order to arrest sudden bleeding during pericardiectomy that started after accidental injury to a major vasculature in the pericardium; the surgeon inserted his left index finger through the transverse pericardial sinus, pulled forward on the two large vessels lying ventral to his finger, and compressed these vessels with his thumb to control the bleeding. Which vessels were these?

      Your Answer: Pulmonary trunk and superior vena cava

      Correct Answer: Pulmonary trunk and aorta

      Explanation:

      Transverse pericardial sinus: located behind two great vessels (aorta and pulmonary trunk) and in front of the superior vena cava and is accessed from above as in this case. The brachiocephalic trunk is located above the pericardium and the right pulmonary artery is above the pericardial reflections.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      29
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - Which muscle is most likely to be affected following an injury to the...

    Correct

    • Which muscle is most likely to be affected following an injury to the thoracodorsal nerve (C6-C8)?

      Your Answer: Latissimus dorsi

      Explanation:

      Latissimus dorsi is a triangular, flat muscle that covers the lumbar region and the lower half of the thoracic region. It is supplied by the sixth, seventh and eighth cervical nerves through the thoracodorsal (long subscapular) nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      15.2
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - What is the chief ligament preventing posterior sliding of the tibia on the...

    Incorrect

    • What is the chief ligament preventing posterior sliding of the tibia on the femur ?

      Your Answer: Anterior cruciate

      Correct Answer: Posterior cruciate

      Explanation:

      The posterior cruciate ligament is attached to the posterior intercondyloid fossa of the tibia and the lateral and front part of the medial condyle of the femur. It resists sliding of the tibia posteriorly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      24.1
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - What is the pH of freshly formed saliva at ultimate stimulation? ...

    Correct

    • What is the pH of freshly formed saliva at ultimate stimulation?

      Your Answer: 8

      Explanation:

      Saliva has four major components: mucus (lubricant), α-amylase (enzyme that initiates digestion of starch), lingual lipase (enzyme that begins fat digestion), and a slightly alkaline electrolyte solution for moistening food. As the secretion rate of saliva increases, its osmolality increases. Moreover, the pH changes from slightly acidic (at rest) to basic (pH 8) at ultimate stimulation. This occurs due to increase of HCO3-. Amylase and mucus also increase in concentration after stimulation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      • Physiology
      3.7
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A teacher had varicosities in the region of the small saphenous vein. Which...

    Correct

    • A teacher had varicosities in the region of the small saphenous vein. Which of the following is true about that vein?

      Your Answer: Has nine to twelve valves

      Explanation:

      It is known that the small saphenous vein has nine to twelve valves along its course. This vein begins as a direct continuation of the lateral marginal vein posterior to the lateral malleolus. It is superficially situated but closer to its termination, perforates the deep fascia in the lower part of the popliteal fossa to end in the popliteal vein.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      6.5
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 55-year-old woman complains of pain in the proximal and distal interphalangeal joins,...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman complains of pain in the proximal and distal interphalangeal joins, and back pain which has increased over the last 4 years and worsens after activity. X-rays reveal Heberden’s and Bouchard’s nodes in her interphalangeal joints and the presence of osteophytes in her spine. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Rheumatoid arthritis

      Correct Answer: Osteoarthritis

      Explanation:

      Osteoarthritis is most common in older adults, predominating in women between the ages of 40 and 70; after this age, men and women are affected equally. It affects an entire joint, with disruption and potential loss of joint cartilage, along with other joint changes, including bone hypertrophy (osteophyte formation). The pain is usually gradual and is worse after activity, with occasional joint swelling. X-ray findings include marginal osteophytes, narrowing of the joint space, increased density of the subchondral bone, subchondral cyst formation, bony remodelling and joint effusions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      • Pathology
      16.2
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - Which of the following enzymes is secreted by the small intestinal mucosa? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following enzymes is secreted by the small intestinal mucosa?

      Your Answer: Cholecystokinin

      Correct Answer: Lactase

      Explanation:

      Lactase, an enzyme belonging to β-galactosidase family of enzymes, brings about the hydrolysis of the disaccharide lactose into galactose and glucose. In humans, it is present along the brush border membrane of the cells lining the small intestinal villi. Deficiency of lactase causes lactose intolerance.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      • Physiology
      6
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Microbiology (2/2) 100%
Pathology (6/8) 75%
Cardiovascular (3/3) 100%
Physiology (6/11) 55%
Anatomy (8/11) 73%
Thorax (3/5) 60%
Inflammation & Immunology (1/1) 100%
Fluids & Electrolytes (0/1) 0%
Women's Health (0/1) 0%
Neurology (0/3) 0%
Pelvis (1/1) 100%
Haematology (1/1) 100%
Lower Limb (3/4) 75%
Orthopaedics (1/2) 50%
Cell Injury & Wound Healing (1/1) 100%
Respiratory (1/1) 100%
Renal (1/1) 100%
Head & Neck (1/1) 100%
Gastroenterology (1/2) 50%
Passmed