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  • Question 1 - To reach the oral vestibule, the parotid duct must pierce this muscle: ...

    Correct

    • To reach the oral vestibule, the parotid duct must pierce this muscle:

      Your Answer: Buccinator muscle

      Explanation:

      The parotid duct or Stensen duct is a duct and the route that saliva takes from the major salivary gland, the parotid gland into the mouth. The parotid duct is formed when several interlobular ducts—the largest ducts inside the parotid gland join. It emerges from the gland and runs forward along the lateral side of the masseter muscle. In this course, the duct is surrounded by the buccal fat pad. It takes a steep turn at the border of the masseter and passes through the buccinator muscle, opening into the vestibule of the mouth, between the cheek and the gums, at the parotid papilla, which lies across the second superior molar tooth.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      116.8
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - An abdominal aortogram shows occlusion of the inferior mesenteric artery. Which of the...

    Correct

    • An abdominal aortogram shows occlusion of the inferior mesenteric artery. Which of the following segments of bowel is most likely to have preserved arterial supply?

      Your Answer: Caecum

      Explanation:

      The inferior mesenteric artery supplies blood to the end of the transverse colon and all distal structures in the gastrointestinal tract i.e. splenic flexure, descending colon, sigmoid colon and rectum would all be deprived of blood if it were occluded. The caecum receives blood from the superior mesenteric artery so it would not be affected.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      151.8
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 60-year-old woman complains of left sided headaches which have been recurring for...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old woman complains of left sided headaches which have been recurring for several years. She recently suffered from a focal seizure for the first time a few days ago. A CT scan shows a mass in the left hemisphere of the brain. The most likely diagnosis is:

      Your Answer: Schwannoma

      Correct Answer: Meningioma

      Explanation:

      Meningiomas are a common benign intracranial tumour, and their incidence is higher in women between the ages of 40-60 years old. Many of these tumours are asymptomatic and are diagnosed incidentally, although some of them may have malignant presentations (less than 2% of cases). These benign tumours can develop wherever there is dura, over the convexities near the venous sinuses, along the base of the skull, in the posterior fossa and, within the ventricles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Pathology
      369.6
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 36-year old gentleman with a history of cough for 4 weeks came...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year old gentleman with a history of cough for 4 weeks came to the hospital. Examination revealed multiple lymphadenopathy with splenomegaly. Investigations revealed haemoglobin 11 g/dl, haematocrit 32.4%, mean corpuscular volume (MCV) 93 fl, white blood cell count 63 × 109/l, and platelet count 39 × 109/l; along with characteristic Auer rods on peripheral blood smear. What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Hodgkin's lymphoma

      Correct Answer: Acute myelogenous leukaemia (AML)

      Explanation:

      AML, or acute myeloid leukaemia is the commonest acute leukaemia affecting adults. increasing in incidence with age. It is a malignancy of the myeloid line of white blood cells. It results in rapid proliferation of abnormal cells, which accumulate in the marrow. Interference with normal cell production leads to a drop in red blood cells, white blood cells and platelets. This causes symptoms such as tiredness, shortness of breath, tendency to bleed or bruise easily and recurrent infections. AML is known to progress quickly and can lead to death in weeks and months if not treated. Leukemic blasts of AML show presence of Auer rods. These are clumps of azurophilic granular material that form needles in the cytoplasm. Composed of fused lysosomes, these contain peroxidase, lysosomal enzymes and crystalline inclusions. Auer rods are classically present in myeloid blasts of M1, M2, M3 and M4 acute leukaemia. They also help to distinguish the preleukemia myelodysplastic syndromes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      37.3
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 62-year-old man presented with a persistent cough and weight loss. Chest x-ray...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old man presented with a persistent cough and weight loss. Chest x-ray demonstrated widespread nodular opacities. After a bronchoalveolar lavage, atypical cells were detected. Which is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Sarcoidosis

      Correct Answer: Bronchioalveolar carcinoma

      Explanation:

      Bronchioloalveolar carcinoma (BAC) is a term used to define a particular subtype of adenocarcinoma which develops in cells near the alveoli, in the outer regions of the lungs. On a chest X-ray it can appear as a single peripheral spot or as scattered spots throughout the lungs. Symptoms include cough, haemoptysis, chest pain, dyspnoea and loss of weight.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Respiratory
      31.5
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - The operating surgeon notices a structure lying alongside a herniated mass whilst repairing...

    Correct

    • The operating surgeon notices a structure lying alongside a herniated mass whilst repairing an indirect inguinal hernia in a female patient. Which structure could this be?

      Your Answer: Round ligament of the uterus

      Explanation:

      The main structure traversing the inguinal canal in women is the round ligament. In men, it is the spermatic cord.

      The iliohypogastric nerve innervates the abdominal wall and runs between the transversus abdominis and internal oblique muscles before piercing the internal oblique at the anterior superior iliac spine to run between the internal and external obliques.

      The inferior epigastric artery is between the peritoneum and the transversus abdominis creating the lateral umbilical fold.

      The ovarian artery and the ovarian vein are branches from the descending aorta and inferior vena cava that supply the ovary in the pelvic cavity.

      The pectineal ligament is a thick fascial layer over the pectineal line of the pubis. It doesn’t traverse the canal.

      The broad ligament if found on the lateral sides of the uterus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      282.8
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A syndrome responsible for failure to absorb vitamin B12 from the GIT is...

    Correct

    • A syndrome responsible for failure to absorb vitamin B12 from the GIT is called?

      Your Answer: Pernicious anaemia

      Explanation:

      Pernicious anaemia is a type of autoimmune disease in which antibodies form against the parietal cells or intrinsic factor. Intrinsic factor is required for the absorption of vitamin B12. Blood testing typically shows a macrocytic, normochromic anaemia and low levels of serum vitamin B12. A Schilling test can then be used to distinguish between pernicious anaemia, vitamin B12 malabsorption and vitamin B12 deficiency. Symptoms include shortness of breath, pallor and diarrhoea etc.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      13.2
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Which of the following is a true statement regarding secretion of gastric acid?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is a true statement regarding secretion of gastric acid?

      Your Answer: Somatostatin increases gastric acid secretion

      Correct Answer: Acetylcholine increases gastric acid secretion

      Explanation:

      Gastric acid secretion is increased by acetylcholine, histamine and gastrin, with the help of cAMP as a secondary messenger. They increase H+ and Cl- secretion by increasing the number of H+/K+ ATPase molecules and Cl- channels. In contrast, gastric acid secretion is decreased by somatostatin, epidermal growth factor and prostaglandins.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      • Physiology
      211.8
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 35-year old lady presents to her GP with vague abdominal symptoms. Examination...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year old lady presents to her GP with vague abdominal symptoms. Examination reveals a normal size spleen. Which of the following is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Myelofibrosis

      Correct Answer: Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura

      Explanation:

      Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) is a disease caused due to development of an antibody against a platelet antigen (autoantibody). In childhood disease, the autoantibody gets triggered by binding of viral antigen to the megakaryocytes. Presentation includes unexplained thrombocytopenia, petechiae and bleeding from mucosal surfaces. The spleen usually does not enlarge in size. However, splenomegaly can occur due to coexisting viral infection. Marrow examination reveals normal or increased number of megakaryocytes. Diagnosis is by exclusion of other thrombocytopenic disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      43.1
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Gastric acid secretion is stimulated by which of the following? ...

    Correct

    • Gastric acid secretion is stimulated by which of the following?

      Your Answer: Gastrin

      Explanation:

      Gastric acid secretion is stimulated by three factors:

      – Acetylcholine, from parasympathetic neurones of the vagus nerve that innervate parietal cells directly

      – Gastrin, produced by pyloric G-cells

      – Histamine, produced by mast cells.

      Gastric acid is inhibited by three factors:

      – Somatostatin

      – Secretin

      – Cholecystokinin

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine
      • Physiology
      6.4
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - The pudendal nerve is derived from? ...

    Correct

    • The pudendal nerve is derived from?

      Your Answer: S2, S3, S4

      Explanation:

      The pudendal nerve derives it’s fibres from the ventral branches of the second, third and fourth sacral nerves (S2,3,4)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Pelvis
      4.5
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 36-year-old woman suddenly suffers from a generalized seizure. She was previously healthy....

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old woman suddenly suffers from a generalized seizure. She was previously healthy. An emergency CT scan reveals a mass in the posterior fossa, with distortion of the lateral ventricles. After removing the tumour, the biopsy reveals it contains glial fibrillary acidic protein (GEAP). What's the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Neuroblastoma

      Correct Answer: Astrocytoma

      Explanation:

      Astrocytomas are primary intracranial tumours derived from astrocyte cells of the brain. They can arise in the cerebral hemispheres, in the posterior fossa, in the optic nerve and, rarely, in the spinal cord. These tumours express glial fibrillary acidic protein (GFAP). In almost half of cases, the first symptom of an astrocytoma is the onset of a focal or generalised seizure. Between 60% and 75% of patients will have recurrent seizures during the course of their illness. Secondary clinical sequelae may be caused by elevated intracranial pressure (ICP) cause by the direct mass effect, increased blood volume, or increased cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) volume. CT will usually show distortion of the third and lateral ventricles, with displacement of the anterior and middle cerebral arteries. Histological diagnosis with tissue biopsy will normally reveal an infiltrative character suggestive of the slow growing nature of the tumour.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Pathology
      39.1
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - What is the innervation of the tensor tympani muscle? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the innervation of the tensor tympani muscle?

      Your Answer: Glossopharyngeal nerve

      Correct Answer: Trigeminal nerve

      Explanation:

      The tensor veli palatini is innervated by the medial pterygoid nerve, a branch of mandibular nerve, the third branch of the trigeminal nerve (CN V3) – the only muscle of the palate not innervated by the pharyngeal plexus, which is formed by the vagal and glossopharyngeal nerves.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      18203
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 30 year old female presented in the emergency with an irregular pulse....

    Incorrect

    • A 30 year old female presented in the emergency with an irregular pulse. Her ECG showed absent P-waves with irregular RR interval. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Atrial flutter

      Correct Answer: Atrial fibrillation

      Explanation:

      Atrial fibrillation is one of the most common cardiac arrhythmias. It is often asymptomatic but may present with symptoms of palpitations, fainting, chest pain and heart failure. Characteristic findings are: absence of P-waves, unorganised electrical activity in their place, irregularity of RR interval due to irregular conduction of impulses to the ventricles and if paroxysmal AF is suspected, episodes may be documented with the use of Holter monitoring

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      67
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Pain in the epigastric region occurring typically 2-3 hours after meals and causing...

    Incorrect

    • Pain in the epigastric region occurring typically 2-3 hours after meals and causing the patient to wake up at night is characteristic of which of the following conditions?

      Your Answer: Gastric ulcer

      Correct Answer: Duodenal ulcer

      Explanation:

      The description is typical for duodenal ulcers. There is no pain upon waking in the morning however it appears around mid-morning and is relieved by ingestion of food. The pain also often causes the patient to wake up at night.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal; Hepatobiliary
      • Pathology
      883.9
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A victim of assault in a domestic violence is stabbed in the left...

    Incorrect

    • A victim of assault in a domestic violence is stabbed in the left chest. The tip of the pen knife entered the pleural space just above the cardiac notch. Luckily the lung was spared as it would only occupy this space during deep inspiration. Which of these structures was pierced by the knife?

      Your Answer: Anterior mediastinum

      Correct Answer: Costomediastinal recess

      Explanation:

      The costomediastinal recess is located immediately next to the cardiac notch. The medial aspect of the superior lobe of the left lung, when fully inflated expands to this place. The lung wouldn’t enter the anterior or the posterior mediastinum which are found between the two pleural cavities.

      The costodiaphragmatic recess is the lowest extent of the pleural cavity where the inferior lobes of the lungs would expand into in deep inhalation.

      The cupola, is the part of the pleural cavity that extends above the first rib into the root of the neck. The superior most part of the superior lobe of the lung might extend into this part.

      Pulmonary ligament: pleural fold that is located below the root of the lung where the visceral pleura and the mediastinal pleura are in continuity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      127.3
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - An 18 -year-old female is diagnosed with folliculitis in the left axilla. What...

    Correct

    • An 18 -year-old female is diagnosed with folliculitis in the left axilla. What is the most likely organism that could cause this condition?

      Your Answer: Staphylococcus aureus

      Explanation:

      Folliculitis is the inflammation of the hair follicles. It is usually caused by Staphylococcus infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathology
      71.8
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Which ectopic tissue is usually contained in the Meckel's diverticulum? ...

    Correct

    • Which ectopic tissue is usually contained in the Meckel's diverticulum?

      Your Answer: Gastric

      Explanation:

      The Meckel’s diverticulum is a vestigial remnant of the omphalomesenteric duct. This structure is also referred to as the vitelline and contains two types of ectopic tissue, namely; gastric and pancreatic.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Embryology
      9.1
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - The chest X-ray of a 72 year old patient reveals the presence of...

    Correct

    • The chest X-ray of a 72 year old patient reveals the presence of a round lesion containing an air-fluid level in the left lung. These findings are most probably suggestive of:

      Your Answer: Lung abscess

      Explanation:

      Lung abscesses are collections of pus within the lung that arise most commonly as a complication of aspiration pneumonia caused by oral anaerobes. Older patients are more at risk due to poor oral hygiene, gingivitis an inability to handle their oral secretions due to other diseases. Chest X-ray most commonly reveals the appearance of an irregularly shaped cavity with an air-fluid level.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Respiratory
      5728.1
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Regarding the long head of the biceps femoris, which of the following is...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding the long head of the biceps femoris, which of the following is correct?

      Your Answer: It will extend the leg at the knee

      Correct Answer: It crosses two joints

      Explanation:

      The long head of the biceps femoris arises from the lower and inner impression on the back of the tuberosity of the ischium. It inserts with the short head in an aponeurosis which becomes a tendon and this tendon is inserted into the lateral side of the head of the fibula and the lateral condyle of the tibia, thus crossing two joints.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      516.3
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Anatomy (5/8) 63%
Head & Neck (1/2) 50%
Abdomen (2/2) 100%
Neurology (0/2) 0%
Pathology (2/8) 25%
Haematology (0/2) 0%
Respiratory (1/2) 50%
General (1/1) 100%
Physiology (2/4) 50%
Gastroenterology (0/1) 0%
Endocrine (1/1) 100%
Pelvis (1/1) 100%
Cardiovascular (0/1) 0%
Gastrointestinal; Hepatobiliary (0/1) 0%
Thorax (0/1) 0%
Microbiology (1/1) 100%
Embryology (1/1) 100%
Lower Limb (0/1) 0%
Passmed