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Question 1
Correct
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Regarding the female breast how many lobes does the typical breast contain?
Your Answer: 15-20
Explanation:The basic components of the mammary gland are the alveoli. These are lined with milk-secreting cuboidal cells surrounded by myoepithelial cells. The alveoli join to form groups known as lobules. The lobules form lobes. Each lobe has a lactiferous duct that drains into openings in the nipple. Each breast typically contains 15-20 lobes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 2
Incorrect
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Which of the following leaves the pelvis via the greater sciatic foramen?
Your Answer: Obturator Nerve
Correct Answer: Pudendal Nerve
Explanation:The pudendal nerve arises from the S2-S4 nerve roots and it lies medial to the internal pudendal artery while exiting the pelvis via the greater sciatic foramen. It curves around the sacrospinous ligament and re-enters the pelvis via the lesser sciatic foramen and from there it runs medial to the ischial tuberosity over the obturator internus in the pudendal canal to the deep perineal pouch.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 3
Correct
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Pelvic ligaments can change at term resulting in?
Your Answer: Enlargement of the pelvic cavity
Explanation:The pelvis is supported by a variety of ligaments. At term, these ligaments allow for variation in its structure such that the overall size of the pelvic cavity is increased in order to accommodate the upcoming foetus into the cavity.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 4
Correct
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Which of the following statements regarding the vaginal artery is typically TRUE?
Your Answer: It arises from the Internal iliac artery
Explanation:The vaginal artery is the homolog to the inferior vesical artery in males. In most of the cases it arises from the internal iliac artery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 5
Correct
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Regarding the rectus sheath which of the following statements are true?
Your Answer: Above the arcuate line the internal oblique divides into two lamellae
Explanation:The rectus sheath is formed by the aponeurosis of the internal and external oblique muscles and the transversus abdominus muscle. The internal oblique divides into two lamellae and encloses the rectus muscle. Anteriorly it fuses with the aponeurosis of the external oblique and posteriorly with that of the transverus abdominus. Below the arcuate line the aponeurosis of all the flat muscles lies anteriorly and posteriorly it is only enclosed by the transveralis fascia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 6
Incorrect
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From which of the following spinal segments do both the internal and external anal sphincters receive their innervation?
Your Answer: S5
Correct Answer: S4
Explanation:The anal sphincters are responsible for closing the anal canal to the passage of faeces and flatus. The smooth muscle of the involuntary internal sphincter sustains contraction to prevent the leakage of faeces between bowel movements and is innervated by the pelvic splanchnic nerves, which are a branch of the spinal segment 4. The external sphincter is made up of skeletal muscle and can therefore contract and relax voluntarily. Its innervation comes from the inferior rectal branch of the pudendal nerve, and the perineal branch of S4 nerve roots.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 7
Correct
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Question 8
Correct
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Which of the following leaves the pelvis via the greater sciatic foramen?
Your Answer: Pudendal Nerve
Explanation:The pudendal nerve is formed by sacral nerve roots S2, S3 and S4 almost immediately as they exit the spinal foramina. The pudendal nerve exits the pelvis via the greater sciatic foramen, travels behind the sacrospinous ligament before re-entering the pelvis via the lesser sciatic foramen. It is an important nerve to be aware of as it supplies sensation to the genitalia and can also be damaged/compressed at a number of places along its course. Image sourced from Wikipedia
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 9
Correct
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You see a patient who is 32 weeks pregnant. She complains of tingling to the right buttock and shooting pain down the leg. You suspect Piriformis syndrome. Regarding Piriformis which of the following statements are true?
Your Answer: Insertion is onto the greater trochanter
Explanation:The proximal attachment of the piriformis muscles is from the anterior surface of sacrum and it attaches distally to the superior border of the greater trochanter of the femur. It is innervated by the anterior rami of S1 and S2.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 10
Correct
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The normal lining of the fallopian tube is:
Your Answer: Columnar epithelium with cilia
Explanation:The Fallopian tubes, also known as, uterine tubes, and salpinges, are two very fine tubes lined with ciliated columnar epithelia, leading from the ovaries of female mammals into the uterus, via the uterotubal junction.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 11
Correct
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The arterial blood supply to the bladder is via branches of which artery?
Your Answer: Internal Iliac
Explanation:The bladder is supplied by branches of the internal iliac artery, including the superior vesical artery, branches of the gluteal and obturator arteries and the inferior vesical artery in males and the vaginal and the uterine arteries in females.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 12
Correct
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Which of the following muscles does NOT receive innervation from the pudendal nerve?
Your Answer: Internal anal sphincter
Explanation:The internal anal sphincter is innervated by the splanchnic nerves. Sympathetic nerve supply from the inferior hypogastric plexus (for contraction) and parasympathetic supply from nervi erigentes (for relaxation).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 13
Correct
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You are reviewing a patient who is complaining of pain and numbness to the right anterior aspect of her labia following abdominal hysterectomy. You suspect ilioinguinal nerve injury. What spinal segment is the ilioinguinal nerve derived from?
Your Answer: L1
Explanation:Ilioinguinal nerve injury is one of the most common nerve injuries associated with pelvic surgery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 14
Correct
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Question 15
Correct
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What is the anterior boundary of the pelvic outlet?
Your Answer: pubic arch
Explanation:Pelvic Outlet Boundaries Anteriorly: Pubic arch Laterally: Ischial tuberosities Posterolaterally: Inferior margin of the sacrotuberous ligament Posteriorly: Tip of the coccyx Note: The pelvis outlet is also called the inferior aperture. The pelvic brim is the superior aperture
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 16
Incorrect
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Regarding lymph drainage of the lower vagina where does the majority of lymph drain to?
Your Answer: Internal iliac node
Correct Answer: Inguinal nodes
Explanation:Lymphatic vessels from the vagina drain from the parts of the vagina as follows:
• Superior part: to the internal and external iliac lymph nodes.
• Middle part: to the internal iliac lymph nodes.
• Inferior part: to the sacral and common iliac nodes. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 17
Correct
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You are reviewing a patient who is complaining of pain and numbness to the proximal medial thigh following abdominal hysterectomy. You suspect genitofemoral nerve injury. What spinal segment(s) is the genitofemoral nerve derived from?
Your Answer: L1,L2
Explanation:The genitofemoral nerves takes its origin from the L1 and L2 spinal segments.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 18
Correct
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Presence of which one of the following features at term makes spontaneous delivery incompatible?
Your Answer: Mentum posterior
Explanation:When face presentation is diagnosed, around 60% of cases are in the mentum anterior position, 25% are mentum posterior and 15% are mentum transverse; most malpositions rotate spontaneously into mentum anterior. A vaginal birth at term is possible only if the foetus is in the mentum anterior position.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 19
Correct
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Regarding lymph drainage of the breast where does the majority of lymph drain to?
Your Answer: Axillary nodes
Explanation:Lymphatic drainage of the breast.
The lateral two thirds of the breast drains into the axillary lymph nodes. This constitute about 75% of the lymphatic drainage of the breast. The medial third of the breast drains into the parasternal lymph nodes and these communicate with the ipsilateral lymph nodes from the opposite breast. The superior part of the breast drains into the infraclavicular lymph nodes and inferior part drains into the diaphragmatic lymph nodes. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 20
Correct
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Regarding the pubic symphysis, what type of joint is it
Your Answer: Secondary Cartilaginous
Explanation:The pubic symphysis is a cartilaginous joint. The cartilaginous joints are divided further into primary and secondary joints. The primary joint is called the synchondrosis. It articulates with the pubis of the other side.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 21
Correct
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Regarding the Pituitary gland which of the following statements is true?
Your Answer: It is surrounded by the sella turcica
Explanation:The Sella turcica is composed of three parts:
1. The tuberculum sellae (horn of saddle): a variable slight to prominent median elevation forming the posterior
boundary of the prechiasmatic sulcus and the anterior boundary of the hypophysial fossa.
2. The hypophysial fossa (pituitary fossa): a median depression (seat of saddle) in the body of the sphenoid that accommodates the pituitary gland (L. hypophysis).
3. The dorsum sellae (back of saddle): a square plate of bone projecting superiorly from the body of the sphenoid.
It forms the posterior boundary of the Sella turcica, and its prominent superolateral angles make up the posterior clinoid processes. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 22
Correct
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The rectus sheath is formed by which of the following?
Your Answer: aponeuroses of transversus abdominis, external and internal oblique
Explanation:The rectus sheath is formed by the decussation and interweaving of the aponeuroses of the fl at abdominal muscles. The external oblique aponeurosis contributes to the anterior wall of the sheath throughout its length. The superior two thirds of the internal oblique aponeurosis splits into two layers (laminae) at the lateral border of the rectus abdominis; one lamina passing anterior to the muscle and the other passing posterior to it. The anterior lamina joins the aponeurosis of the external oblique to form the anterior layer of the rectus sheath. The posterior lamina joins the aponeurosis of the transversus abdominis to form the posterior layer of the rectus sheath.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 23
Correct
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The inguinal canal is reinforced posteriorly by which structure?
Your Answer: Conjoint tendon
Explanation:The Conjoint tendon AKA Inguinal falx reinforces the posterior wall of the inguinal canal. The inguinal and lacunar ligaments are part of the floor The aponeurosis of external oblique is the major component of the anterior wall with fibres of internal oblique reinforcing the lateral part
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 24
Correct
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The inferior 1/3 of the rectum is principally supplied by which artery?
Your Answer: Middle rectal artery
Explanation:Remember the inferior rectal artery supplies the anus. The middle rectal artery is the principle supply to the lower 1/3 rectum. The rectal arteries do form an anastomosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 25
Correct
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The joint between the two pubic bones is called the:
Your Answer: Pubis symphysis
Explanation:The pubic symphysis or symphysis pubis is the midline cartilaginous joint (secondary cartilaginous) uniting the superior rami of the left and right pubic bones. It is located anterior to the urinary bladder and superior to it.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 26
Correct
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Which one of the following dimensions relates to the greatest diameter of the fetal head?
Your Answer: Occipitomental
Explanation:Occipitomental diameter is the greatest diameter of the fetal scalp and runs from chin to the prominent portion on the occiput. It measure about 12.5cm in diameter.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 27
Correct
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A patient who is 36 weeks pregnant comes to see you as she has developed tingling to the right lateral thigh over the past 3 weeks. On examination there are no skin changes and no muscle weakness. What is the likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Meralgia Paraesthetica
Explanation:Raised pressure with the pelvis can cause a number of nerve entrapment syndromes. This is entrapment of the lateral cutaneous nerve of the thigh (or lateral femoral cutaneous nerve) also known as Meralgia Paraesthetica. Pregnancy is a risk factor. Shingles can effect this nerve but the rash would usually present itself within 14days.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 28
Correct
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The pelvis includes which of the following bones:
Your Answer: Ilium, ischium, pubis, sacrum & coccyx
Explanation:The pelvic skeleton is formed posteriorly (in the area of the back), by the sacrum and the coccyx and laterally and anteriorly (forward and to the sides), by a pair of hip bones. Each hip bone consists of 3 sections, ilium, ischium, and pubis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 29
Incorrect
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The inguinal canal is reinforced anterolaterally by which structure?
Your Answer: Conjoint tendon
Correct Answer: Internal oblique
Explanation:The Conjoint tendon AKA Inguinal falx reinforces the posterior wall of the inguinal canal. The inguinal ligament is part of the floor.
The aponeurosis of external oblique is the major component of the anterior wall with fibres of internal oblique reinforcing the lateral part -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 30
Correct
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Which one of the following statements regarding the fetal head is true?
Your Answer: Considered to be engaged when the biparietal diameter passes the level of the pelvic inlet
Explanation:The fetal head is engaged when the head of the foetus or the presenting part enters the pelvic inlet or pelvic brim. It usually occurs at 38 weeks of gestation.
The Spalding sign refers to the overlapping of the fetal skull bones caused by collapse of the fetal brain. It appears usually a week or more after fetal death in utero.
In brow presentation the scalp is deflexed as the foetus is looking upward. Normally the head is inflexed such that the chin is touching the chest. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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