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Question 1
Correct
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All the following are possible causes of polyhydramnios, EXCEPT:
Your Answer: IUGR
Explanation:An underlying disease is only found in 17 % of cases in mild polyhydramnios. In contrast, an underlying disease is detected in 91 % of cases in moderate to severe polyhydramnios. The literature lists the following potential aetiologies: fetal malformations and genetic anomalies (8–45 %), maternal diabetes mellitus (5–26 %), multiple pregnancies (8–10 %), fetal anaemia (1–11 %), other causes, e.g. viral infections, Bartter syndrome, neuromuscular disorders, maternal hypercalcemia. Viral infections which can lead to polyhydramnios include parvovirus B19, rubella, and cytomegalovirus. Other infections, e.g. toxoplasmosis and syphilis, can also cause polyhydramnios.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 2
Correct
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Which of the following is correct in the treatment of a case of threatened abortion:
Your Answer: Bed rest
Explanation:Patients with a threatened abortion should be managed expectantly until their symptoms resolve. Patients should be monitored for progression to an inevitable, incomplete, or complete abortion. Analgesia will help relieve pain from cramping. Bed rest has not been shown to improve outcomes but commonly is recommended. Physical activity precautions and abstinence from sexual intercourse are also commonly advised. Repeat pelvic ultrasound weekly until a viable pregnancy is confirmed or excluded. A miscarriage cannot be avoided or prevented, and the patients should be educated as such. Intercourse and tampons should be avoided to decrease the chance of infection. A warning should be given to the patient to return to the emergency department if there is heavy bleeding or if the patient is experiencing light-headedness or dizziness. Heavy bleeding is defined as more than one pad per hour for six hours. The patient should also be given instructions to return if they experience increased pain or fever. All patients with vaginal bleeding who are Rh-negative should be treated with Rhogam. Because the total fetal blood volume in less than 4.2 mL at 12 weeks, the likelihood of fetal blood mixture is small in the first trimester. A smaller RhoGAM dose can be considered in the first trimester. A dose of 50 micrograms to 150 micrograms has been recommended. A full dose can also be used. Rhogam should ideally be administered before discharge. However, it can also be administered by the patient’s obstetrician within 72 hours if the vaginal bleeding has been present for several days or weeks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 3
Correct
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Polyhydramnios is associated with which one of the following conditions?
Your Answer: Tracheo-oesophageal fistula
Explanation:Oesophageal atresia/TE fistula may be suspected prenatally with ultrasound findings of polyhydramnios, absence of fluid in the stomach, small sized abdomen, or the presence of a dilated proximal oesophageal pouch. An underlying disease is only found in 17 % of cases in mild polyhydramnios. In contrast, an underlying disease is detected in 91 % of cases in moderate to severe polyhydramnios. The literature lists the following potential aetiologies: fetal malformations and genetic anomalies (8–45 %), maternal diabetes mellitus (5–26 %), multiple pregnancies (8–10 %), fetal anaemia (1–11 %), other causes, e.g. viral infections, Bartter syndrome, neuromuscular disorders, maternal hypercalcemia. Viral infections which can lead to polyhydramnios include parvovirus B19, rubella, and cytomegalovirus. Other infections, e.g. toxoplasmosis and syphilis, can also cause polyhydramnios.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 4
Correct
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A 24 week pregnant patient complains of itching over the past 6 weeks particularly to the hands and feet which is worse at night. She has taken cetirizine but this hasn't settled her symptoms. Examination is unremarkable with no rash. What is the likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Intrahepatic Cholestasis of Pregnancy
Explanation:The history is typical of Intrahepatic Cholestasis of Pregnancy, also known as obstetric cholestasis and prurigo gravidarum. It is characterised by itching without rash and abnormal LFTs beyond normal pregnancy ranges. Itching affects around 23% of pregnancies and can occur before biochemical changes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 5
Correct
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A patient attends the maternity unit as her waters have broken but she hasn't had contractions. She is 39+6 weeks gestation. Speculum examination confirms prelabour rupture of membranes (PROM). What is the risk of serious neonatal infection with PROM?
Your Answer: 1 in 100
Explanation:Prelabour Rupture of Membranes:
– Risk of serious neonatal infection 1% (vs 0.5% for women with intact membranes)
– 60% of patients with PROM will go into labour within 24 hrs
– Induction appropriate if >34 weeks gestation and >24 hours post rupture and patients labour hasn’t started.
– If <34 weeks induction of labour should not be carried out unless there are additional obstetric indications e.g. infection -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 6
Correct
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Regarding the diagnosis of Gestational Diabetes which of the following tests is recommended by the WHO for diagnosis?
Your Answer: 75g OGTT with 2 hour glucose
Explanation:Gestational diabetes (GDM) occurs in 2–9 per cent of all pregnancies. Screening for diabetes in pregnancy can be justify ed to diagnose previously unrecognized cases of pre-existing diabetes and to identify a group of women who are at risk of developing NIDDM later in life. No single screening test has been shown to be perfect in terms of high sensitivity and specific city for gestational diabetes. Urinary glucose is unreliable, and most screening tests now rely on blood glucose estimation, with an oral 75g glucose tolerance test commonly used. The aim of glucose control is to keep fasting levels between 3.5 and 5.5 mmol/L and postprandial levels 7.1 mmol/L, with insulin treatment usually indicated outside these ranges.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 7
Correct
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A 33 year old pregnant lady was brought into the emergency department with per vaginal bleeding. She has been having labour pains for the last 2 hours. O/E: her cervix was 2cm dilated. Which stage of labour is she in now?
Your Answer: First stage
Explanation:There are 3 stages of labour. The 1st stage of labour starts from labour contractions till the time the cervix is fully dilated. Stage 2 is from complete cervical dilatation until the baby is born. The 3rd stage is from the birth of the baby, until the time the placenta is expelled.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 8
Correct
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A 29-year-old obese lady weighing 130 kilograms, is requesting for a prescription for the oral contraceptive pill (OCP). She has hirsutism and acne. She has also expressed that she occasionally suffers from migraines along with pins and needles in her left arm.
Which is the best contraceptive for her?Your Answer: A barrier method of contraception.
Explanation:OCPs which contain oestrogen and progesterone are contraindicated in women who have migraines associated with a neurological deficit or aura (pins and needles in this case). In such cases, the alternative would be Implanon (etonogestrel), however, there are mixed reviews and opinions regarding whether or not there is a decreased efficacy in heavier women. The absolute contraindication for Implanon is active breast cancer. Therefore, the best advice for her case would be some form of barrier contraceptive.
When choosing a COCP (combined oral contraceptive pill), it is recommended that a formulation containing 20-30ug of ethinyl oestradiol is chosen. The progestogen part is responsible for prevention of conception and can be norgestrel or any other progestogens although the formulations containing norgestrel tend to be cheaper than more novel progestins such as cyproterone acetate as well as drospirenone. If the patient is known to have issues with excessive fluid retention, OCPs that has drospirenone would be the most suitable. However, if the patient is suspected to have PCOS, the best choice would be one that contains cyproterone acetate.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 9
Correct
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HPV genotypes 6 and 11 are associated with which of the following?
Your Answer: Low grade squamous intraepithelial lesions of the cervix (LSIL)
Explanation:6 and 11 are considered low risk and are commonly associated with genital warts and low-grade squamous intraepithelial lesions of the cervix (can correspond cytologically to CIN 1)
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 39-year-woman visits a gynaecological clinic for fertility advice. She is unable to conceive for the last 2 years. Pelvic ultrasound shows 3-4 follicles in both ovaries. An endocrinological profile is ordered showing low oestrogen, elevated FSH, and LH.
What is the most suitable advice for her?Your Answer: Clomiphene
Correct Answer: In-vitro fertilization
Explanation:Premature menopause has been diagnosed biochemically in this patient. Menopause is considered premature when it happens without warning in a woman under the age of 40.
Follicular development is common in ultrasonography investigations of women with primary ovarian failure, but ovulation is rare. So this woman isn’t ovulating.Exogenous oestrogen treatment in physiologic amounts does not appear to improve the rate of spontaneous ovulation.
Women with primary ovarian failure from any cause may be candidates for donor oocyte in vitro fertilisation (IVF).Oestrogens, clomiphene citrate, and danazol are examples of treatment approaches that have been shown to be ineffective in patients with premature ovarian failure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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What kind of biochemical changes occur during the luteal phase of menstrual cycle?
Your Answer: Proliferative changes in the endometrium
Correct Answer: High progesterone levels
Explanation:Menstrual cycle can be divided into the follicular phase and luteal phase. In the luteal phase, there is an increase in progesterone secretion and LH levels are low. If the ova is fertilized, it is implanted in the endometrium. In case of failure in fertilization, there is gradual decrease in progesterone and LH levels.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 12
Correct
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What is the maximum normal diameter of the yolk sac on transvaginal ultrasound?
Your Answer: 6mm
Explanation:The yolk sac increases in size up until the 10th week reaching a maximum diameter of 6mm in normal pregnancy. After the 10th week the yolk sac will gradually disappear. It is usually sonographically undetectable by 20 weeks. A yolk sac greater than 6mm diameter is suspicious of failed pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Biophysics
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Question 13
Correct
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During the inflammatory phase of wound healing what is the predominant cell type found in the wound during days 3-4?
Your Answer: Macrophages
Explanation:Wound healing is initiated when inflammation begins. Macrophages predominate after neutrophils and peak 3-4 days after inflammation begins. They destroy and phagocytose the organism and debris using enzymes. The next step is the resolution of inflammation and healing of the wound.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 14
Correct
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During the filling phase of micturition. At what bladder volume is the first urge to void felt?
Your Answer: 150ml
Explanation:The normal functional bladder capacity is around 400-600ml. First urge to void is typically felt when the bladder is approximately 150ml full.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 15
Correct
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A 25-year-old woman comes to your clinic for advice as she is 20 weeks pregnant and was found to have thyrotoxicosis with mild enlargement of the thyroid gland.
What other investigation will you consider to be done in this patient?Your Answer: Ultrasound thyroid gland
Explanation:A 20 weeks pregnant patient has developed goitre along with thyrotoxicosis, where the diagnosis of thyrotoxicosis has already been established.
Ultrasound of the thyroid and a radioisotope scan to differentiate between “hot” and “cold” nodules are the confirming investigations for goitre. A nodule composed of cells that do not make thyroid hormone and the nodule which produces too much thyroid hormone are respectively called as cold and “hot” nodules.Due to the risk of fetal uptake of the isotope which leads to the damage of fetal thyroid, radioisotope or radionuclide Technetium uptake scan is contraindicated in pregnancy.
Fine needle aspiration cytology is required to establish a histopathological diagnosis in case of all cold nodules.
So ultrasound of the thyroid gland is the mandatory investigation to be done in this case as it will show diffuse enlargement, characteristic of the autoimmune disease, or multinodularity, which is suggestive of autonomous multinodular goitre.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 16
Correct
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A patient undergoes oophorectomy and the ovarian veins are ligated. Which vein does the right ovary drain into?
Your Answer: Inferior vena cava
Explanation:The right ovarian vein travels through the suspensory ligament of the ovary and generally joins the inferior vena cava whereas the left ovarian vein drains into the left renal vein.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 17
Correct
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Rubella belongs to which of the following family of viruses?
Your Answer: Togaviruses
Explanation:The Rubella virus, also known as German measles, is found in the Togavirus family and is a single-stranded RNA virus. The virus, which is acquired through contact with respiratory secretions, primarily replicates in the nasopharynx and lymph nodes, and produces a mild and self-limiting illness. Congenital infection, however, is associated with several anomalies including sensorineural deafness, cataracts and cardiac abnormalities.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
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Question 18
Correct
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Which of the following has been shown to improve pruritus and liver function in patients with obstetric cholestasis?
Your Answer: Ursodeoxycholic acid
Explanation:Intrahepatic cholestasis characterized by reversible cholestasis typically occurring in the second or third trimester of pregnancy, elevated serum aminotransferases and bile acid level and resolution of symptoms by 2 to 3 weeks after delivery. Ursodeoxycholic acid has shown to reduce the symptoms of this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 19
Correct
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In a pregnant lady with polyhydramnios, the cause could be:
Your Answer: Foetus with oesophageal-atresia
Explanation:An underlying disease is only found in 17 % of cases in mild polyhydramnios. In contrast, an underlying disease is detected in 91 % of cases in moderate to severe polyhydramnios. The literature lists the following potential aetiologies: fetal malformations and genetic anomalies (8–45 %), maternal diabetes mellitus (5–26 %), multiple pregnancies (8–10 %), fetal anaemia (1–11 %), other causes, e.g. viral infections, Bartter syndrome, neuromuscular disorders, maternal hypercalcemia. Viral infections which can lead to polyhydramnios include parvovirus B19, rubella, and cytomegalovirus. Other infections, e.g. toxoplasmosis and syphilis, can also cause polyhydramnios.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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Which one of the following statements is true regarding androgen insensitivity syndrome?
Your Answer: Genotype is 46 XX
Correct Answer: They have no uterus
Explanation:Androgen insensitivity syndrome means that patients are phenotypically males but they are resistant or insensitive to male androgen hormones. They do not have a uterus. Due to insensitivity to androgens these patients often have female traits but their genetic makeup is of male, 46XY.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Embryology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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Your 64-year-old patient has come to you with a uterine prolapse complaint.
Which of the following ligaments plays the most critical role in uterine prolapse pathophysiology?Your Answer: Broad ligament
Correct Answer: Uterosacral ligament
Explanation:The uterus needs support in order to remain centered inside the pelvic cavity. The support it receives comes in two forms: dynamic and passive. The ligaments of the uterus have an important role in both.
Dynamic support is provided by the pelvic diaphragm through tonic contractions while standing and sitting and active contractions during moments of increased abdominal pressure, such as coughing or sneezing. During these moments, the ligaments of the uterus transmit the force of the diaphragm towards the organ itself, maintaining its position.
The ligaments are also crucial in providing passive support. By minimizing movement of the body and the cervix, they maintain the uterus in the typical anteverted and anteflexed position directly on top of the bladder. This provides a support for the uterus when the abdominal pressure increases.
Hence, even though the broad ligament, round ligament and ovarian ligament have some role in the suspension of the uterus, the uterosacral ligament plays the most significant role. It is also the ligament used for surgical suspension of POP.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old nulligravid woman comes to the office due to persistent abnormal uterine bleeding. Patient’s menstrual periods previously occurred monthly, which lasts of 4 days with moderate bleeding and light cramping. However, for the past 8 months, she has had intermenstrual spotting and bleeding which have occurred at varying intervals and last for 3-7 days.
Patient had started combination oral contraceptives 4 months ago, which has not improved the bleeding pattern.
On examination her temperature is 37.2 C (99 F), blood pressure is 126/76 mm Hg, pulse is 86/min and BMI is 29 kg/m2.
Speculum examination shows dark red blood in the posterior vaginal vault but no cervical or vaginal lesions. Remainder of the pelvic examination was normal.
Her laboratory results are as follows:
- Hemoglobin: 12.2 g/dL
- Prolactin: 5 ng/mL
- TSH: 1.8 µU/mL
- Urine pregnancy test is negative.
Pelvic ultrasound shows an anteverted uterus without any adnexal masses.
Which of the following is considered the best next step in management of this patient?Your Answer: Hysterosalpingogram
Correct Answer: Endometrial biopsy
Explanation:Uncontrolled endometrial proliferation due to excess and unregulated estrogen is the reason for intermenstrual bleeding and irregular menses along with abnormal uterine bleeding (AUB) in this patient. The condition is mostly associated with an increased risk of endometrial hyperplasia
ancer.
The absolute risk of endometrial hyperplasia
ancer is very low in women aged <45, therefore they can be started on combination medication with estrogen/progestin contraception (ie, medical management) without the evaluation of endometrium. The estrogen component of medication regulates the menstrual cycle by build up the endometrium; whereas the progestin component helps in shedding of the endometrium.
However, patients who have continued irregular menstrual bleeding even while on combination contraceptives require further evaluation as they have failed to improve with medical management. In such patients, the endometrial lining will be too thick for the progestin to completely shed during menstruation and this unshed endometrium continues to undergo dysregulated proliferation, leading to an increased risk of endometrial hyperplasia
ancer. Therefore, patients age below 45 with AUB who have failed medical management require an endometrial biopsy.
AUB persistent above 6 months, obesity, and/or tamoxifen therapy are the other indications for endometrial biopsy in women age <45, as all of these will increase the amount of unopposed endometrial estrogen exposure. In patients with heavy menstrual bleeding and anemia, coagulation studies are performed to evaluate for bleeding disorders like von Willebrand disease. It is not necessary in this patient as she have a normal hemoglobin level. In patients with heavy, but regular (ovulatory) bleeding an endometrial ablation, which is a procedure used to remove the excess endometrium, can be considered as the treatment option. Endometrial ablation is contraindicated in undiagnosed cases of AUB as it prevents evaluation of the endometrium in patients with possible endometrial hyperplasia
ancer.To check for abnormalities of the uterus like didelphys or of the Fallopian tube like scarring, a hysterosalpingogram is used but it is not useful to evaluate AUB. In addition, as the procedure could spread cancerous endometrial cells into the abdominal cavity, hysterosalpingogram is contraindicated in cases of undiagnosed AUB.
To evaluate secondary amenorrhea, ie. absence of menses for >6 months in a patient with previously irregular menses, a progesterone withdrawal test is used to determine whether amenorrhea is from low estrogen level, in negative cases there will be no bleeding after progesterone. This test is not indicated or relevant in this case as patient had continued bleeding while on oral contraceptives suggestive of high estrogen levels.
Evaluation for endometrial hyperplasia
ancer with an endometrial biopsy is required for those women age <45 with abnormal uterine bleeding who have failed medical management with oral contraceptives. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 23
Correct
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Examination of endometrial tissue obtained from a biopsy reveals simple columnar epithelium with no sub-nuclear vacuoles. The stroma is oedematous, & a tortuous gland contains secretions. These findings are consistent with which stage of the menstrual cycle?
Your Answer: Mid-secretory
Explanation:During mid secretory phase, the endometrium cells undergo distension, become more tortuous and are lined by columnar cells.
In the early proliferative phase, the glandular epithelium is cubo-columnar, while in the late proliferative phase, the glands increase in size, becoming tortuous and there is pseudostratification of the epithelium. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 24
Correct
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Among the following presentations during pregnancy, which is not associated with maternal vitamin D deficiency?
Your Answer: Large for gestational age
Explanation:Retarded skeletal growth resulting in small for gestational age babies are the usual outcomes of an untreated vitamin D deficiency in pregnancy.
Symptoms associated with maternal vitamin D deficiency during pregnancy are:
– Hypocalcemia in newborn.
– Development of Rickets later in life.
– Defective tooth enamel.
– Small for gestational age due to its effect on skeletal growth
– Fetal convulsions or seizures due to hypocalcemia. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 25
Correct
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Presence of anisocytosis, poikilocytosis and hyperchromatism on cervical smear indicates?
Your Answer: Dysplasia
Explanation:Dysplasia has 4 microscopic characteristics:
Anisocytosis (unequal cell size)
Poikilocytosis (abnormal cell shape)
Hyperchromatism (pigmentation)
Mitotic figures (increased cells currently dividing)Hyperplasia and hypertrophy is characterised by increase in cell number and increase in cell size respectively, whereas atrophy means decrease in cell size.
Metaplasia is characterised by change of one form of cell to another type e.g. changes of columnar epithelium to squamous epithelium. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathology
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Question 26
Correct
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The femoral triangle is bounded medially by which of the following structures?
Your Answer: Adductor longus
Explanation:The femoral triangle is bounded superiorly by the inguinal ligament which forms the base of the triangle, medially by the lateral border of the adductor longus and laterally by the sartorius muscle.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 27
Correct
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Regarding the ECG, what does the P wave represent?
Your Answer: Atrial depolarisation
Explanation:In an ECG the P wave represents atrial depolarization. The QRS complex represents the ventricular depolarization, T waves represent ventricular repolarization and the U wave represents repolarization of the interventricular septum.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Biophysics
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Question 28
Correct
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Where is Glucagon produced?
Your Answer: Islet alpha cells
Explanation:The alpha cells in the islets of Langerhans are responsible for the production and secretion of glucagon. The B cells secrete insulin, the D cells secrete somatostatin, and the F cells secrete pancreatic polypeptide. The B cells, which are the most common and account for 60–75% of the cells in the islets, are generally located in the centre of each islet.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 29
Correct
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If both parents have beta-thalassaemia minor, what is the chance of their male offspring having beta thalassemia major?
Your Answer: 25%
Explanation:This is not an X-linked condition so the sex of the child makes no difference to the inheritance. Any child will have a 1 in 4 chance of having beta thalassaemia major.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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Question 30
Incorrect
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You're looking after a 24-year-old woman who is experiencing pelvic pain. She has one-sided pain that is widespread and mild, but can be intense at times. Menstruation has been regular. She denies having fever.
With the exception of a smooth movable adnexal mass on the right side, her pelvic examination seems normal.
Which of the following is the most likely reason for your discomfort?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ovarian cyst
Explanation:An ovarian cyst is a sac filled with liquid or semiliquid material that arises in an ovary. Although the discovery of an ovarian cyst causes considerable anxiety in women owing to fears of malignancy, the vast majority of these lesions are benign. Most patients with ovarian cysts are asymptomatic, with the cysts being discovered incidentally during ultrasonography or routine pelvic examination. Some cysts, however, may be associated with a range of symptoms, sometimes severe, including the following:
Pain or discomfort in the lower abdomen
Severe pain from torsion (twisting) or rupture – Cyst rupture is characterized by sudden, sharp, unilateral pelvic pain; this can be associated with trauma, exercise, or coitus. Cyst rupture can lead to peritoneal signs, abdominal distention, and bleeding (which is usually self-limited)
Discomfort with intercourse, particularly deep penetration
Changes in bowel movements such as constipation
Pelvic pressure causing tenesmus or urinary frequency
Menstrual irregularities
Precocious puberty and early menarche in young children
Abdominal fullness and bloating
Indigestion, heartburn, or early satiety
Endometriomas – These are associated with endometriosis, which causes a classic triad of painful and heavy periods and dyspareunia
Tachycardia and hypotension – These may result from haemorrhage caused by cyst rupture
Hyperpyrexia – This may result from some complications of ovarian cysts, such as ovarian torsion
Adnexal or cervical motion tendernessUnderlying malignancy may be associated with early satiety, weight loss
achexia, lymphadenopathy, or shortness of breath related to ascites or pleural effusionThe absence of fever or vaginal discharge rules out PID
The absence of pain on the right lower quadrant, fever, nausea and vomiting rule out appendicitis.
The patient has regular menses, no vaginal bleeding no signs of shock that rules out ectopic pregnancy.
her symptoms are also not consistent with the presentation of leiomyoma. Leiomyoma presents with enlarged uterus, pelvic pressure. It early causes pain when it is complicated with red degeneration which usually occurs in pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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