00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Mins)
  • Question 1 - A 24-year-old college student comes to your clinic for contraception guidance. For the...

    Correct

    • A 24-year-old college student comes to your clinic for contraception guidance. For the past three months, she has had migraine-like headaches once or twice a month. For the past two years, she has been taking combined oral contraceptive pills.

      Which of the following suggestions is the most appropriate?

      Your Answer: Stopping the combined oral contraceptive pills and starting progesterone only pills (POP)

      Explanation:

      Combined oral contraceptives are a safe and highly effective method of birth control, but they can also raise problems of clinical tolerability and/or safety in migraine patients. It is now commonly accepted that, in migraine with aura, the use of combined oral contraceptives is always contraindicated, and that their intake must also be suspended by patients suffering from migraine without aura if aura symptoms appear.

      Discontinuation of contraception could risk in pregnancy. Barrier methods can be used but aren’t as effective as pills.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      25
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 27-year-old woman would usually take her oral contraceptive pill (ethinyl oestradiol 30µg,...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old woman would usually take her oral contraceptive pill (ethinyl oestradiol 30µg, levonorgestrel 150 µg) each night at around 11 pm. One day, she presents at 7pm and says that she had forgotten to take her pill the evening before and would like some advice as to what she should do. Last sexual intercourse was last night and she is now on day-27 of her cycle. She is due to take her last pill tonight and then start the first of seven lactose tablets tomorrow night.

      What would be the best advice to give her?

      Your Answer: Take her next contraceptive pill tonight and forget about the one she missed.

      Correct Answer: Stop the current course of contraceptive pills, and start the next course of hormone tab lets in five days’ time.

      Explanation:

      Taking into consideration that she had only missed one pill and that they were going to be stopped the next day anyway, the rate of pregnancy would be low; hence all of the responses would be acceptable and effective. However, the most appropriate step would be to initiate her hormone-free interval starting from the time she missed her pill i.e. 11pm the night before. This would make tonight the 2nd lactose pill day and hence she should commence the next course of hormone pills on the 5 nights from tonight. In doing this, her hormone-free period would be the usual length of 7 days. Although the risk of pregnancy is low after missing only one pill, this opposite occurs when the missed pill causes a longer than normal hormone-free duration between the end of the current cycle and the starting of the subsequent one.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      48.7
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 32 year old mother is in her first trimester of pregnancy with...

    Incorrect

    • A 32 year old mother is in her first trimester of pregnancy with her second child. She is worried about infections in this pregnancy as her daughter was born with a 'blueberry muffin rash' and was soon found to have sensorineural deafness due to an infection. Which of the following infections is most likely?

      Your Answer: CMV

      Correct Answer: Rubella

      Explanation:

      Congenital infections can be the cause of various congenital abnormalities. Infection with the Rubella virus, part of the TORCH infections (toxoplasmosis, other organisms, rubella, cytomegalovirus, and herpes simplex), can lead to cardiac abnormalities, ophthalmic defects, sensorineural deafness and neurodevelopmental delays. At birth congenital rubella syndrome presents with a petechial rash characteristically dubbed a blueberry muffin rash, and hepatosplenomegaly with jaundice. Immunization of the mother against measles is an effective way of reducing the occurrence of congenital rubella syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      15.2
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 6-year-old girl is brought to the emergency department for evaluation of vaginal...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old girl is brought to the emergency department for evaluation of vaginal discharge.  She has had malodorous vaginal discharge and small amounts of vaginal bleeding for about a week. Her mother called the patient’s primary care provider and instructed to stop giving bubble baths to the child, however, the symptoms have not improved. Aside from the discharge, the girl is normal, she was toilet trained at age 2 and has had no episodes of incontinence.  She started kindergarten a month ago. Mother informed that patient has no fever, abdominal pain, or dysuria. 

      On examination, the labia appear normal but a purulent, malodorous vaginal discharge is noted.  Visual inspection with the child in knee-chest position shows a whitish foreign body inside the vaginal introitus. 

      Which among the following is the best next step in management of this patient?

      Your Answer: Notify Child Protective Services immediately

      Correct Answer: Irrigate with warmed fluid after local anesthetic application

      Explanation:

      Vaginal spotting, malodorous vaginal discharge and no signs of trauma like lacerations are the clinical features of vaginal foreign bodies in prepubertal girls. The most common object found as foreign body is toilet paper and its management includes warm irrigation and vaginoscopy under sedation/anesthesia.

      Common cause of vulvovaginitis in prepubertal girls are vaginal foreign bodies. Although other objects like small toys, hair bands, etc can be occasionally found, the most common vaginal foreign body is toilet paper. Symptoms like malodorous vaginal discharge, intermittent vaginal bleeding or spotting and urinary symptoms like dysuria are caused due to the chronic irritation caused by the foreign body (the whitish foreign body in this case) on the vaginal tissue.

      An external pelvic examination is performed with the girl in a knee-chest or frog-leg position in cases of suspected vaginal foreign body. An attempt at removal, after application of a topical anesthetic in the vaginal introitus, using vaginal irrigation with warm fluid or a swab can be done in case of an easily visualized small foreign body like toilet paper. In cases were the age of the girl or the type of foreign body prohibit adequate clinical evaluation the patient should be sedated or given a general anesthesia for examination using a vaginoscope and the foreign body should be removed.

      In cases where child abuse or neglect is suspected Child Protective Services should be contacted. Vaginal or rectal foreign bodies can be the initial presentation of sexual abuse; however in otherwise asymptomatic girls with no behavioral changes, urinary symptoms and vulvar or anal trauma, presence of toilet paper is not of an immediately concerning for abuse.

      To evaluate pelvic or ovarian masses CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis can be used; but it is not indicated in evaluation of a vaginal foreign body.

      Patients in there prepubertal age have a narrow vaginal introitus and sensitive hymenal tissue due to low estrogen levels, so speculum examinations should not be performed in such patients as it can result in significant discomfort and trauma.

      Topical estrogen can be used in the treatment of urethral prolapse, which is a cause of vaginal bleeding in prepubertal girls. This diagnosis is unlikely in this case as those with urethral prolapse will present with a beefy red protrusion at the urethra and not a material in the vagina.

      Prepubertal girls with retained toilet paper as a vaginal foreign body will present with symptoms like malodorous vaginal discharge and vaginal spotting secondary to irritation. Initial management is topical anaesthetic application and removal of foreign body either by vaginal irrigation with warm fluid or removal with a swab.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      61.1
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Which one of the following statements is related to testicular feminization syndrome? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements is related to testicular feminization syndrome?

      Your Answer: There's usually very low testosterone levels

      Correct Answer: There are usually normal testes

      Explanation:

      Androgen insensitivity (testicular feminization) syndrome is a rare inherited form of male pseudo hermaphroditism that occurs in phenotypically normal women with adequate breast development, normal external genitalia, a vagina of variable depth, absent uterus, and sparse or absent pubic hair and axillary hair. Testosterone levels are normal or elevated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      6
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - The softening of the cervical isthmus that occurs early in gestation is called:...

    Correct

    • The softening of the cervical isthmus that occurs early in gestation is called:

      Your Answer: Hegar's sign

      Explanation:

      Hegar’s sign: softening of womb (uterus) due to its increased blood supply, perceptible on gentle finger pressure on the neck (cervix). This is one of the confirmatory signs of pregnancy and is usually obvious by the 16th week.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      9.3
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - All of the following statements is considered incorrect regarding the management of deep...

    Correct

    • All of the following statements is considered incorrect regarding the management of deep vein thrombosis in pregnancy, except:

      Your Answer: Warfarin therapy is contraindicated throughout pregnancy but safe during breast feeding

      Explanation:

      Anticoagulant therapy is the standard treatment for deep vein thrombosis (DVT) but is mostly used in non-pregnant patients. In pregnancy, unfractionated heparin (UFH) and low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) are commonly used. Warfarin therapy is generally avoided in pregnancy because of its fetal toxicity.

      Warfarin is contraindicated during pregnancy, but is safe to use postpartum and is compatible with breastfeeding. Low-molecular-weight heparin has largely replaced unfractionated heparin for prophylaxis and treatment in pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      121.4
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 30-year-old woman, gravida 2 para 1, at 10 weeks of gestation comes...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old woman, gravida 2 para 1, at 10 weeks of gestation comes to your office for an initial prenatal visit. Patient has had no vaginal bleeding or cramping and her first pregnancy was uncomplicated which ended with a spontaneous term vaginal delivery. She has no chronic medical conditions and has had no previous surgeries. Patient takes a daily dose of prenatal vitamin and does not use tobacco, alcohol, or any other illicit drugs. 

      On examination her blood pressure is 122/80 mm of Hg and pulse is 70/min and BMI is 24 kg/m2.  The uterine fundus is palpated above the pubic symphysis. 
      Pelvic ultrasound shows 2 viable intrauterine gestations, a single fundal placenta, and a thin intertwin membrane that meets the placenta at a 90-degree angle. 

      Among the below mentioned complications, this patient is at highest risk for which one to occur?

      Your Answer: Twin-twin transfusion syndrome

      Explanation:

      Twin gestations are generally at increased risk of complications and this risk is further stratified based on the chorionicity ie. number of placentas and amnionicity, the number of amniotic sacs of the gestation. In the given case patient has monochorionic diamniotic twins, which means 1 placenta and 2 amniotic sacs, based on the presence of 2 embryos, a single placenta and a thin intertwin membrane composed of 2 amniotic sacs that meets the placenta at a 90-degree angle (“T sign”). In patients who appear to have a single placenta, the base shape of the intertwin membrane distinguishes between a monochorionic (“T sign”) and fused dichorionic (“lambda sign”) gestation.
      Monochorionic twins are at high risk for twin-twin transfusion syndrome (TTTS), which is a complication that can result in heart failure and fetal
      eonatal mortality in both twins. In TTTS, unbalanced arteriovenous anastomoses are present between the shared placental vessels that supply the twins, because of these anastomoses, blood from the placental arteries from one twin (donor), which is of high resistance/pressure, is shunted into the placental veins of the other twin (recipient) with low resistance/pressure. This shunting of blood away from the donor twin causes anemia that leads to renal failure, oligohydramnios, low-output heart failure, and fetal growth restriction. In contrast, the shunting of blood toward the recipient twin causes polycythemia, which leads to polyhydramnios, cardiomegaly, high-output heart failure and hydrops fetalis. This in turn makes both twins at high risk for intrauterine and neonatal death.
      Mild TTTS is expectantly managed with serial ultrasounds to evaluate for worsening clinical features, whereas moderate-to-severe cases are treated with laser coagulation of the placental anastomoses.

      In monozygotic twins, placentation type is determined by timing of the twinning.  Twinning that occurs shortly after fertilization yields a dichorionic diamniotic gestation.  In contrast, the incomplete division (ie, fission) that can lead to conjoined twins occurs later in development and yields a monochorionic monoamniotic gestation. As the twins are in the same sac, monochorionic monoamniotic gestations can be complicated by cord entanglement but not possible in the given case as this patient has diamniotic twins.

      Risk factors for placenta accreta, implantation of the placenta directly into the myometrium, include placenta previa and prior uterine surgeries like cesarean delivery, myomectomy, etc

      Twin pregnancies are at increased risk of placenta previa (placental tissue that covers the internal cervical os); however, this patient has a fundal placenta, making this complication unlikely.

      Monochorionic twin gestations can be complicated by twin-twin transfusion syndrome, which is potentially a fatal condition that results from unbalanced vascular anastomoses between the vessels supplying umbilical cords of each twin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      66.5
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Which of the following will require Anti-D administration post partum? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following will require Anti-D administration post partum?

      Your Answer: Rhesus negative mother, non-sensitised, fetal cord blood Rh positive

      Explanation:

      Rhesus positive mothers should not get anti-D. They have Rhesus antigens and the anti-D would result in maternal blood being bound and removed from her circulation. The danger is to children born to mothers who are rhesus negative. As the mother may develop antibodies against Rhesus positive fetal blood. Therefore if the baby is Rhesus negative then there is no risk of alloimmunisation (sensitisation)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology
      23.5
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - At what gestation does a mother typically first become aware of fetal movements?...

    Correct

    • At what gestation does a mother typically first become aware of fetal movements?

      Your Answer: 18-20 weeks

      Explanation:

      Typically fetal movements become apparent by 18-20 weeks

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      10.9
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 40-year-old woman who is at 34 weeks of pregnancy presented to the...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old woman who is at 34 weeks of pregnancy presented to the medical clinic for advice since her other two children were diagnosed with whooping cough just 8 weeks ago, she is worried for her newborn about the risk of developing whooping cough.

      Which of the following is considered the most appropriate advice to give to the patient?

      Your Answer: Give Pertussis vaccine booster DPTa after delivery

      Correct Answer: Give Pertussis vaccine booster DPTa now

      Explanation:

      To help protect babies during this time when they are most vulnerable, women should get the tetanus toxoid, reduced diphtheria toxoid, and acellular pertussis vaccine (Tdap) during each pregnancy.

      Pregnant women should receive Tdap anytime during pregnancy if it is indicated for wound care or during a community pertussis outbreak.
      If Tdap is administered earlier in pregnancy, it should not be repeated between 27 and 36 weeks gestation; only one dose is recommended during each pregnancy.

      Optimal timing is between 27 and 36 weeks gestation (preferably during the earlier part of this period) to maximize the maternal antibody response and passive antibody transfer to the infant.
      Fewer babies will be hospitalized for and die from pertussis when Tdap is given during pregnancy rather than during the postpartum period.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      191.6
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - During pregnancy, maternal oestrogen levels increase markedly. Most of this oestrogen is produced...

    Incorrect

    • During pregnancy, maternal oestrogen levels increase markedly. Most of this oestrogen is produced by the:

      Your Answer: Ovaries

      Correct Answer: Placenta

      Explanation:

      The placenta does not have all the necessary enzymes to make oestrogens from cholesterol, or even progesterone. Human trophoblast lack 17-hydroxylase and therefore cannot convert C21-steroids to C19-steroids, the immediate precursors of oestrogen. To bypass this deficit, dehydroisoandrosterone sulphate (DHA) from the fetal adrenal is converted to estradiol-17ί by trophoblasts. In its key location as a way station between mother and foetus, placenta can use precursors from either mother or foetus to circumvent its own deficiencies in enzyme activities.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      41.2
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Regarding the biophysical profile: ...

    Correct

    • Regarding the biophysical profile:

      Your Answer: Includes fetal movement, fetal tone, fetal breathing, fetal heart rate & amniotic fluid

      Explanation:

      The biophysical profile is a composite test that collects 5 indicators of fetal well-being, including fetal heart rate reactivity, breathing movements, gross body movements, muscular tone, and quantitative estimation of amniotic fluid volume. The assessment of fetal heart rate is accomplished by performing a non-stress test, whereas the latter 4 variables are observed using real-time ultra-sonography.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Biophysics
      11.3
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - What frequency is used for trans-vaginal ultrasound? ...

    Incorrect

    • What frequency is used for trans-vaginal ultrasound?

      Your Answer: 10.0 MHz

      Correct Answer: 7.0 MHz

      Explanation:

      The ultrasound used a frequency of 3.5-7 MHz emitted from a transducer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Data Interpretation
      6.2
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 27-year-old woman with primary infertility presents with secondary amenorrhoea that has been...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old woman with primary infertility presents with secondary amenorrhoea that has been ongoing for twelve months. She states that she has been thinking about starting a family and was wondering if ovulation induction therapy was an option for her.

      Which one of the following would be most valuable in predicting a poor response to ovulation induction therapy?

      Your Answer: Serum luteinising hormone.

      Correct Answer: Serum follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH).

      Explanation:

      The tests listed can all be performed during the work-up of a woman with secondary amenorrhoea. They are useful in that they cam diagnosis the most likely cause for the amenorrhoea as well as guide the treatment required if the patient wanted to become pregnant. Of these, the hormone test best able to predict a poor response to ovulation-induction therapy is the follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) assay. If there are high levels of FSH, most of the ovulation-induction therapies are ineffective, although the rare spontaneous pregnancy can occur.

      To maximise the chance of pregnancy in patients with elevated FSH levels, the most effective technique is an ovum donation from a young woman. The ovum would be fertilised in the laboratory and transferred to the uterus of the woman with the high FSH level after administering hormonal preparation of her uterus.

      If the FSH level is normal, ovulation-induction therapy is usually effective. For these patients, correction of thyroid function will be necessary if the thyroid function is not normal. Dopamine agonist therapy is indicated if the prolactin level is elevated. Clomiphene or gonadotrophin therapy can be used where the luteinising and oestradiol levels are low, normal, or minimally elevated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      17.8
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Which of the following terms best describes the pelvic type of small posterior...

    Correct

    • Which of the following terms best describes the pelvic type of small posterior sagittal diameter, convergent sidewalls, prominent ischial spines, and narrow pubic arch?

      Your Answer: Android

      Explanation:

      There are four types pelvic shapes:
      1) Android pelvis: it has a larger inlet and smaller outlet along with small posterior sagittal diameter, prominent ischial spines and has a two finger arch.
      2) Gynecoid pelvis: it has a transverse or nearly a circular ellipse and it is the most favourable for delivery.
      3) Anthropoid pelvis: the brim is an anteroposterior ellipse.
      4) Platypelloid pelvis: in this type the pelvic brim is kidney shape

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      11.2
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 27 year old women presents with a history of vaginal spotting and...

    Correct

    • A 27 year old women presents with a history of vaginal spotting and cramping abdominal pain. She has an 8 week history of amenorrhoea. On examination urine pregnancy test is positive and the cervix is closed. What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Threatened Miscarriage

      Explanation:

      Miscarriage is a pregnancy that ends spontaneously before the foetus reaches the age of viability i.e. before 24 weeks of gestation. In a threatened miscarriage the USG findings are of a foetus present in the uterus and on speculum examination the cervical OS is closed, in an inevitable miscarriage the cervical OS is opened. In an incomplete miscarriage the uterus contains the retained products of conception and the cervical OS is open. complete miscarriage contains no retained products of conception and the cervix is closed as the bleeding as resolved.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      21.7
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Evidence from a panel of experts is what level of evidence ...

    Incorrect

    • Evidence from a panel of experts is what level of evidence

      Your Answer: I

      Correct Answer: IV

      Explanation:

      Level I: Evidence obtained from at least one properly designed randomized controlled trial. Level II-1: Evidence obtained from well-designed controlled trials without randomization. Level II-2: Evidence obtained from well-designed cohort or case-control analytic studies, preferably from more than one centre or research group. Level II-3: Evidence obtained from multiple time series designs with or without the intervention. Dramatic results in uncontrolled trials might also be regarded as this type of evidence. Level III: Opinions of respected authorities, based on clinical experience, descriptive studies, or reports of expert committees.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology
      5.3
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - The typical female breast contains how many lobes? ...

    Correct

    • The typical female breast contains how many lobes?

      Your Answer: 15-20

      Explanation:

      The female breast is made of about 15 to 20 individual lobes. The lobules each consists of alveoli which drain into a single lactiferous duct. The ductal system leads to lactiferous sinuses and collecting ducts which expel milk from openings in the nipple.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      5.5
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Which of the following is the most accurate estimate of mature breast milk...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is the most accurate estimate of mature breast milk composition?

      Your Answer: Fat 18% Protein 15% Sugar 1%

      Correct Answer: Fat 4%, Protein 1%, Sugar 7%

      Explanation:

      Breast milk contains around 4% fat, 7% sugar and 1% proteins. The rest is water and minerals.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      18
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Gynaecology (1/3) 33%
Microbiology (0/1) 0%
Obstetrics (3/5) 60%
Embryology (0/1) 0%
Immunology (1/1) 100%
Clinical Management (2/3) 67%
Physiology (0/1) 0%
Biophysics (1/1) 100%
Data Interpretation (0/1) 0%
Anatomy (2/2) 100%
Epidemiology (0/1) 0%
Passmed