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Question 1
Correct
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Which the following features is most suggestive of megaloblastic anaemia?
Your Answer: Hypersegmented neutrophils in peripheral blood film
Explanation:Hypersegmented neutrophils in the peripheral blood film is suggestive of megaloblastic changes in bone marrow.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 33-year-old man presents with recurrent episodes of abdominal pain associated with weakness of his arms and legs.
Which one of the following urine tests would best indicate lead toxicity?Your Answer: Ham test
Correct Answer: Coproporphyrin
Explanation:Lead poisoning is characterised by abdominal pain, fatigue, constipation, peripheral neuropathy (mainly motor), and blue lines on gum margin in 20% of the adult patients (very rare in children).
For diagnosis, the level of lead in blood is usually considered with levels greater than 10 mcg/dL being significant. Furthermore, the blood film shows microcytic anaemia and basophilic stippling of red blood cells. Urinary coproporphyrin is increased (urinary porphobilinogen and uroporphyrin levels are normal to slightly increased). Raised serum and urine levels of delta-aminolaevulinic acid may also be seen, making it sometimes difficult to differentiate from acute intermittent porphyria.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman with lung cancer develops deep vein thrombosis (DVT). She is reviewed in the hospital clinic and started on low-molecular-weight heparin (LMWH).
Which of the following should be the most appropriate treatment plan?Your Answer: Switch to warfarin, continue for 3 months
Correct Answer: Continue on LMWH for 6 months
Explanation:Patients with active cancer are at a continuous risk of having venous thromboembolism (VTE), such as DVT. Therefore, a six-month course of an anticoagulant such as LMWH is recommended. LMWH is the drug of choice since its side effects can be reversed and it can be stopped easily in case of a cancer-related bleed, for example, massive haemoptysis in a patient with lung cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 4
Correct
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A 65-year-old male patient is found to have an elevated serum paraprotein level of 35 g/L. Bone marrow aspirate reveals 32% monoclonal plasma cell infiltrate. He has no evidence of anaemia, renal impairment, hypercalcaemia, or lytic lesions.
What should be the next step in management?Your Answer: Observe and monitor
Explanation:The patient is asymptomatic but matches the diagnostic criteria for multiple myeloma (MM). Therefore, the underlying diagnosis of this condition is smouldering multiple myeloma (SMM). SMM is an early precursor to MM. Its treatment is typically to watch and wait.
MM is a neoplasm of the bone marrow plasma cells. Peak incidence is in patients aged 60-70 years.
Clinical features of MM include:
1. Ostealgia, osteoporosis, pathological fractures (typically vertebral), and osteolytic lesions
2. Lethargy
3. Infections
4. Hypercalcaemia
5. Renal failure
6. Other features: amyloidosis e.g. macroglossia, carpal tunnel syndrome; neuropathy; hyperviscosityDiagnosis of MM is based on the confirmation of (a) one major criterion and one minor criterion or (b) three minor criteria in an individual who has signs or symptoms of multiple myeloma.
Major criteria:
1. >30% plasma cells on bone marrow biopsy
2. Monoclonal band of paraprotein on electrophoresis: >35g/L for IgG, 20g/L for IgA, or >1g of light chains excreted in the urine per dayMinor criteria:
1. 10-30% plasma cells on bone marrow biopsy
2. Abnormal monoclonal band but levels less than listed above
3. Lytic bone lesions observed radiographically
4. Immunosuppression -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 5
Correct
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A 55-year-old woman with established metastatic breast cancer is admitted to the A&E with hypercalcemia. She has a clear medical history, doesn't smoke and works in an office based job. At the A&E she's given intravenous fluids and bisphosphonates. She's finally discharged after normalization of her calcium levels. However, before leaving the hospital she's sent to the endocrinology department for consultation regarding outpatient care and serum calcium monitoring. What is the most appropriate and useful advice for this patient?
Your Answer: Increase fluid intake
Explanation:NICE guidelines on hypercalcemia recommend that maintaining good hydration equals drinking 3-4 L of fluid/day, provided there are no contraindications. A low calcium diet is not necessary because intestinal absorption of calcium is reduced. The patient should avoid any other drugs or vitamins that could worsen the hypercalcemia. Mobilization is encouraged and any symptoms of hypercalcemia should be reported.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 23-year-old woman presents with lethargy. Her bloods show: Hb: 10.4 g/dL Plts: 278 x 10^9/L WCC: 6.3 x 10^9/L MCV: 68 fL Blood film: Microcytic hypochromic RBCs, marked anisocytosis and basophilic stippling noted HbA2: 3.9% What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Lead poisoning
Correct Answer: Beta-thalassaemia trait
Explanation:Individuals with thalassemia major usually develop symptoms within the first two years of life. These infants may fail to thrive and often have difficulty feeding, tire easily and suffer from severe anemia.
The infants may also suffer from diarrhea, irritability, recurrent episodes of fever, and other intestinal problems. These children have trouble gaining weight and growing at the rate expected for their age. Other complications include enlarged spleen, heart and liver and misshapen bones.
In many cases, the symptoms are severe enough to warrant regular blood transfusion to replenish the blood with healthy red blood cells. However, these regular transfusions can lead to a build up of iron in the blood that can damage the heart, liver and endocrine system and chelation therapy may be needed to remove this iron from the body.
Individuals with beta thalassemia trait usually have evidence of microcytosis and increased levels of hemoglobin A2. Hemoglobin F is sometimes elevated as well. Individuals with alpha thalassemia trait usually have evidence of microcytosis and normal levels of hemoglobin A2 and F.
In thalassemia major, the hemoglobin (Hb) level is usually less than 7 g/dl; the mean corpuscolar volume (MCV) less than 70 fl and the mean corpuscolar Hb (MCH) is over 20 pg.
In thalassemia intermedia, the hemoglobin level is between 7 and 10 g/dl; the MCV between 50 and 80 fl and MCH between 16 and 24 pg.
Thalassemia minor is characterized by a reduced MCV and MCH and an increased haemoglobin A2 level.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 7
Correct
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A 51-year-old man was admitted with right-sided hemiparesis and right upper motor neuron facial nerve palsy. He was known to be on warfarin for a mitral valve replacement and had been adequately anticoagulated. He was also taking furosemide and had recently been started on St John's wort for low mood.
On examination, his pulse was 90 bpm and regular, and his blood pressure was 150/80 mmHg. Cardiac examination demonstrated normal prosthetic valve sounds with an ejection systolic murmur at the left sternal edge. CT scan showed evidence of a left middle cerebral artery infarction.
What is the possible explanation for the presentation?Your Answer: St John's wort reduces the activity of warfarin
Explanation:St John’s wort interferes with warfarin by increasing its breakdown and decreasing its effectiveness. This leads to the need for adjustment in the dose of warfarin and careful attention to monitoring if the patient decides to continue with the drug. Ideally, an alternative antidepressant should also be considered.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 8
Correct
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A 4-year-old boy is admitted to the hospital after developing hemarthrosis in his right knee whilst playing in the garden.
Following blood results are obtained:
Plts: 220 x 10^9/L
PT: 11 secs
APTT: 76 secs
Factor VIIIc activity: Normal
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Haemophilia B
Explanation:A grossly elevated APTT may be caused by heparin therapy, haemophilia, or antiphospholipid syndrome. A normal factor VIIIc activity, however, points towards the diagnosis of haemophilia B, which is the deficiency of factor IX in the blood.
Haemophilia is an X-linked recessive disorder of coagulation. Up to 30% of patients have no family history of the condition. Haemophilia A is due to the deficiency of clotting factor VIII and is more common than haemophilia B, accounting for 90% of the cases. In haemophilia B (Christmas disease), there is a deficiency of clotting factor IX.
Characteristic features of haemophilia include hemarthrosis, haematomas, and prolonged bleeding following trauma or surgery. Coagulation profile of a haemophiliac person shows prolonged bleeding time, activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT), thrombin time (TT), but a normal prothrombin time (PT).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A woman with breast cancer develops urinary frequency. Which part of the brain has metastasis potentially spread to?
Your Answer: Cerebral cortex
Correct Answer: Diencephalon
Explanation:Diencephalon consists of four structures; thalamus, subthalamus, hypothalamus and epithalamus. The hypothalamus has a crucial role in controlling urinary frequency.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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Tumour suppressor genes MLH1 and MSH2 are affected in which familial cancer?
Your Answer: Ataxia telangiectasia
Correct Answer: Hereditary non-polyposis colonic carcinoma (HNPCC)
Explanation:In hereditary non-polyposis colonic carcinoma (HNPCC), mutations in MSH2, MSH6, PMS2 or MLH1 genes are found.
Ataxia telangiectasia – ATM gene is affected.
Familial adenomatous polyposis – APC gene is affected.
Li-Fraumeni syndrome – mutation of the TP53 tumour suppressor gene. Neurofibromatosis – mutation in or a deletion of the NF1 gene -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 11
Correct
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A 28-year-old man is investigated for lethargy. His full blood count (FBC) report shows:
Hb: 8.6 g/dL
Plts: 42 x 10^9/L
WCC: 36.4 x 10^9/L
His blood film report reveals 30% myeloblasts with Auer rods. Given the likely diagnosis, which one of the following is associated with a good prognosis?Your Answer: Translocation between chromosome 15 and 17
Explanation:A translocation between chromosome 15 and 17 is seen in acute promyelocytic leukaemia (APL), which is known to carry a good prognosis.
Acute myeloid leukaemia (AML) is the acute expansion of the myeloid stem line, which may occur as a primary disease or follow the secondary transformation of a myeloproliferative disorder. It is more common over the age of 45 and is characterized by signs and symptoms largely related to bone marrow failure such as anaemia (pallor, lethargy), frequent infections due to neutropenia (although the total leucocyte count may be very high), thrombocytopaenia (bleeding), ostealgia, and splenomegaly. The disease has poor prognosis if:
The disease has poor prognosis if:
1. Age of the patient >60 years
2. >20% blasts seen after the first course of chemotherapy
3. Chromosomal aberration with deletion of part of chromosome 5 or 7.APL is an aggressive form of AML. It is associated with t(15;17) and has a good prognosis. The general age of presentation is less than that in other types of AML (average age is 25 years old). On blood film, abundant Auer rods are seen with myeloperoxidase staining. Thrombocytopaenia or DIC is seen in patients presenting with this disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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Which of the following is mostly associated with thymomas?
Your Answer: Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia
Correct Answer: Red cell aplasia
Explanation:Red cell aplasia is commonly associated with thymomas.
Thymoma is the most common tumour of the anterior mediastinum and is usually detected between the sixth and seventh decades of life. It is associated with myasthenia gravis (30-40% of patients), red cell aplasia, and dermatomyositis. Compression of airway and cardiac tamponade are the common causes of death in thymoma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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Which one of the following features is most helpful in distinguishing beta thalassaemia trait from iron deficiency anaemia?
Your Answer: Target cells on peripheral blood film examination
Correct Answer: Haemoglobin A2 levels
Explanation:Elevated haemoglobin A2 level is seen in beta thalassaemia trait, whereas, it is typically low in iron deficiency anaemia unless the patient has received a recent blood transfusion.
Low mean corpuscular volume (MCV) and reduced haematocrit (Ht) are encountered in both conditions. Peripheral blood smear is grossly abnormal in both beta thalassaemia and severe iron deficiency anaemia, showing bizarre morphology, target cells, and a small number of nucleated red blood cells.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 14
Correct
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A 52-year-old woman who is a known case of breast cancer is being reviewed six months after she had a mastectomy following the diagnosis.
Which of the following tumour markers is the most useful in monitoring her disease?Your Answer: CA 15-3
Explanation:Tumour marker CA 15-3 is mostly associated with breast cancer.
Tumour markers can be divided into:
1. Monoclonal antibodies
CA 125: Ovarian cancer, primary peritoneal cancer
CA 19-9: Pancreatic cancer
CA 15-3: Breast cancer2. Tumour specific antigens
Prostate specific antigen (PSA): Prostatic carcinoma
Alpha-feto protein (AFP): Hepatocellular carcinoma, teratoma
Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA): Colorectal cancer
S-100: Melanoma, schwannomas
Bombesin: Small cell lung carcinoma, gastric cancer3. Enzymes
Alkaline phosphatase (ALP)
Neuron specific enolase (NSE)4. Hormones
Calcitonin
Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 15
Correct
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A 60-year-old woman presents to the oncology clinic with a general feeling of being unwell and temperature of 38.1°C. She is a known case of neuroendocrine cancer of the cervix, treated with carboplatin and etoposide. Her last treatment was eight days ago.
Blood cultures are taken and she is started on neutropenic sepsis protocol.
What will gram-staining of the blood cultures most likely show?Your Answer: Gram-positive cocci
Explanation: -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 16
Correct
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A 50-year-old woman is investigated for weight loss and anaemia. Clinical examination reveals splenomegaly associated with pale conjunctivae.
Her full blood count (FBC) report shows:
Hb: 10.9 g/dL
Plts: 702 x 10^9/L
WCC: 56.6 x 10^9/L
Moreover, all stages of granulocyte maturation are seen on her blood film.
Given the likely diagnosis, what should be the most appropriate treatment?Your Answer: Imatinib
Explanation:This patient is a case of chronic myeloid leukaemia (CML) and should be started on imatinib as the first-line drug of choice.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 17
Correct
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A 30-year-old female who was on chemotherapy developed a high-grade fever and productive cough over 2 days. On examination, there was evidence of a chest infection. Her WBC was 2100/ml. What is the most suitable treatment for this condition?
Your Answer: Piperacillin+tazobactam
Explanation:This patient has leukopenia following chemotherapy and she is more prone to severe bacterial infections. Neutropenic sepsis is common among cancer patients and it is one of the main reasons for death amongst these patients. As the first line monotherapy for high-risk patients, Piperacillin-tazobactam, Cefepime, Meropenem and Imipenem-cilastatin can be started as they all have antipseudomonal activity.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A young man complains of dyspnoea and tiredness. His blood film shows spherocytes and 6% reticulocytes. What test would you perform next?
Your Answer: Genetic Analysis
Correct Answer: Coomb's Test
Explanation:A Coomb’s test should be performed to test for autoimmune haemolytic anaemia. Spherocytes and reticulocytes in the blood film are indications for haemolytic anaemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 41-year-old male patient presents with dysphagia, haemoptysis and vocal hoarseness. He's been smoking for 25 years and has a past history of regular cannabis use. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Pharyngeal carcinoma
Correct Answer: Squamous cell laryngeal cancer
Explanation:Progressive hoarseness of the voice is a very typical and early finding in people suspected to have squamous cell laryngeal cancer. Due to mechanical compression, patients might experience dysphagia as well as pain. The ‘lump in the throat sensation is not uncommon too. Haemoptysis might be present, together with respiratory symptoms such as dyspnoea. Other symptoms consist of constitutional complaints, such as weight loss or fatigue.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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Regarding haemochromatosis, which of the following is true?
Your Answer: Haemochromatosis may by treated with iron chelation treatment with drugs such as desferrioxamine
Correct Answer: Haemochromatosis may be treated with therapeutic phlebotomy
Explanation:Haemochromatosis is an abnormally high rate of the production of haemoglobin. It is an autosomal recessive disease copied on chromosome 6. It is associated with hepatic disorders, cardiac diseases and skin pigmentation. It is treated by regular venesection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old female patient presents with massive haemorrhage. After grouping, her blood sample comes out to be B RhD negative.
You work in the hospital's blood bank and are asked to prepare two units each of red blood cells (RBCs) and fresh frozen plasma (FFP). You manage to obtain the RBCs but not the Group B FFP as it is unavailable. Therefore, out of the following, FFP from a donor of which blood group would be best to transfuse?Your Answer: A RhD negative
Correct Answer: AB RhD negative
Explanation:Group AB donors are the universal donors of FFP. This is because they produce neither anti-A nor anti-B antigens in their plasma and are, therefore, compatible with all ABO groups.
The aforementioned patient’s blood group is B meaning, thereby, she naturally produces anti-A antigens in her plasma and would need to receive plasma that does not have anti-B antigens in it. Hence, she can only receive FFP from donors of group B or AB. Moreover, as she is of childbearing age, she must receive RhD negative blood in order to avoid problems with future pregnancies if her foetus would be RhD positive.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 22
Correct
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A 4-year-old girl is diagnosed with acute lymphoblastic leukaemia after presenting with lethargy and easy bruising. Which of the following is a marker of a bad prognosis in this disease?
Your Answer: Philadelphia chromosome positive
Explanation:Philadelphia translocation, t(9;22), is a marker of poor prognosis in acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL).
ALL is the malignancy of lymphoid progenitor cells affecting B or T cell lineage. This results in the arrest of lymphoid cell maturation and proliferation of immature blast cells (lymphoblasts), leading to bone marrow and tissue infiltration.
ALL is the most common type of childhood cancers. Its peak incidence is between two to three years of age.
Acute B lymphoblastic leukaemia (B-ALL) is the most common type of ALL, involving overproduction of B-cell lymphoblasts. It is manifested by low initial WCC and is associated with a good prognosis.
Poor prognostic factors for ALL include:
1. Pre-B cell or T-cell ALL (T-ALL)
2. Philadelphia translocation, t(9;22)
3. Age <2 years or >10 years
4. Male sex
5. CNS involvement
6. High initial WBC (e.g. >100 x 10^9/L)
7. non-Caucasian -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 23
Correct
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Which one of the following is the most common type of Hodgkin lymphoma?
Your Answer: Nodular sclerosing
Explanation:The most common type of Hodgkin’s lymphoma (HL) is nodular sclerosing.
HL is a malignant proliferation of lymphocytes characterised by the presence of distinctive giant cells known as Reed-Sternberg cells. It has a bimodal age distribution being most common in the third and seventh decades of life.
According to the histological classification, there are four types of HL:
1. Nodular sclerosing: most common (around 70%), more common in women, associated with lacunar cells, good prognosis
2. Mixed cellularity: Around 20%, associated with a large number of Reed-Sternberg cells, good prognosis
3. Lymphocyte-predominant: Around 5%, Reed-Sternberg cells with nuclei surrounded by a clear space found, best prognosis
4. Lymphocyte-depleted: rare, worst prognosis
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 52-year-old woman is diagnosed as having acute myeloid leukaemia. What is the single most important test in determining her prognosis?
Your Answer: Gene expression profiling
Correct Answer: Cytogenetics
Explanation:All of the aforementioned options may be important however cytogenetics, for detecting chromosomal abnormalities, is the single most important test to determine her disease prognosis.
Acute myeloid leukaemia (AML) is the acute expansion of the myeloid stem line, which may occur as a primary disease or follow the secondary transformation of a myeloproliferative disorder. It is more common over the age of 45 and is characterized by signs and symptoms largely related to bone marrow failure such as anaemia (pallor, lethargy), frequent infections due to neutropenia (although the total leucocyte count may be very high), thrombocytopaenia (bleeding), ostealgia, and splenomegaly.
The disease has a poor prognosis if:
1. Age of the patient >60 years
2. >20% blasts seen after the first course of chemotherapy
3. Chromosomal aberration with deletion of part of chromosome 5 or 7.Acute promyelocytic leukaemia (APL) is an aggressive form of AML.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 25
Correct
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A 50-year-old female patient is started on cyclophosphamide for vasculitis associated with Wegener's granulomatosis. Which of the following adverse effects is most characteristically associated with cyclophosphamide use?
Your Answer: Haemorrhagic cystitis
Explanation:Cyclophosphamide is a cytotoxic alkylating agent that acts by causing cross-linking of DNA strands. Its major adverse effects include haemorrhagic cystitis, myelosuppression, and transitional cell carcinoma.
Cardiomyopathy is caused by doxorubicin and ototoxicity is caused by cisplatin. Alopecia and weight gain are associated with a variety of chemotherapeutic agents especially those that treat breast cancers (e.g. paclitaxel).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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Which of the following is least likely to cause warm autoimmune haemolytic anaemia?
Your Answer: Methyldopa
Correct Answer: Mycoplasma infection
Explanation:Mycoplasma infection causes cold autoimmune haemolytic anaemia (AIHA). The rest of the aforementioned options cause warm AIHA.
AIHA may be divided into ‘warm’ and ‘cold’ types, according to the temperature at which the antibodies best cause haemolysis. It is most commonly idiopathic but may be secondary to a lymphoproliferative disorder, infection, or drugs.
1. Warm AIHA:
In warm AIHA, the antibody (usually IgG) causes haemolysis best at body temperature and tends to occur in extravascular sites, for example, spleen. Management options include steroids, immunosuppression, and splenectomy. It is caused by autoimmune diseases such as SLE (rarely causes mixed-type AIHA), cancers such as lymphomas and CLL, and drugs such as methyldopa.2. Cold AIHA:
The antibody in cold AIHA is usually IgM and causes haemolysis best at 4°C and occurs more commonly intravascularly. Features may include symptoms of Raynaud’s disease and acrocyanosis. Patients do not respond well to steroids. Cold AIHA is caused by cancers such as lymphomas, and infections such as mycoplasma and EBV. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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An 82-year-old man is reviewed in the haematology clinic. He has been referred due to weight loss, lethargy, and a significantly elevated IgM level.
His recent blood results show:
Hb: 13.8 g/dL
Plts: 127 x 10^9/L
ESR: 45 mm/hr
IgM: 2150 mg/dL (50-330 mg/dL)
Given the probable diagnosis, which one of the following complications is he most likely to develop?Your Answer: Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia
Correct Answer: Hyperviscosity syndrome
Explanation:The patient is most likely suffering from Waldenström’s macroglobulinemia in which IgM paraproteinemia is found. Hyperviscosity syndrome can occur in the patients accounting for 10-15% of the cases.
Waldenström’s macroglobulinemia (also called lymphoplasmacytic lymphoma) is an uncommon type of non-Hodgkin lymphoma seen in older people. It is a lymphoplasmacytoid malignancy characterised by the secretion of a monoclonal IgM paraprotein. Its features include monoclonal IgM paraproteinemia; hyperviscosity syndrome leading to bilateral central retinal vein occlusion (CRVO) and hence, visual disturbances; weight loss and lethargy; hepatosplenomegaly and lymphadenopathy; and cryoglobulinemia. It is not, however, associated with bone pain.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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Which of the following is not a recognised feature of methemoglobinemia?
Your Answer: Chocolate' cyanosis
Correct Answer: Decreased pO2 but normal oxygen saturation
Explanation:Normal pO2 but decreased oxygen saturation is characteristic of methemoglobinemia.
Methemoglobinemia is a rare condition in which the haemoglobin iron is in oxidized or ferric state (Fe3+) and cannot reversibly bind oxygen. Normally, the conversion of ferrous form of iron (Fe2+) to its ferric form (Fe3+) is regulated by NADH methaemoglobin reductase, which results in the reduction of methaemoglobin to haemoglobin. Disruption in the enzyme leads to increased methaemoglobin in the blood. There is tissue hypoxia as Fe3+ cannot bind oxygen, and hence the oxygen-haemoglobin dissociation curve is shifted to the left.
Methemoglobinemia can occur due to congenital or acquired causes. Congenital causes include haemoglobin variants such as HbM and HbH, and deficiency of NADH methaemoglobin reductase. Acquired causes are drugs (e.g. sulphonamides, nitrates, dapsone, sodium nitroprusside, and primaquine) and chemicals (such as aniline dyes).
The features of methemoglobinemia are cyanosis, dyspnoea, anxiety, headache, severe acidosis, arrhythmias, seizures, and loss of consciousness. Patients have normal pO2 but oxygen saturation is decreased. Moreover, presence of chocolate-brown coloured arterial blood (colour does not change with addition of O2) and brown urine also point towards the diagnosis of methemoglobinemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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Which of the following is a good prognostic factor in chronic lymphocytic leukaemia?
Your Answer: Lymphocyte doubling time < 12 months
Correct Answer: Female sex
Explanation:Good prognosis of chronic lymphocytic leukaemia (CLL) is associated with deletion of the long arm of chromosome 13 (del 13q). This is the most common abnormality, seen in around 50% of all CLL patients. Poor prognosis of the disease is related to deletion of part of the short arm of chromosome 17 (del 17p). This is seen in around 5-10% of the patients suffering from CLL.
Poor prognostic factors of CLL include:
1. Male sex
2. Age >70 years
3. Lymphocyte count >50
4. Prolymphocytes comprising more than 10% of blood lymphocytes
5. Lymphocyte doubling time <12 months
6. Raised LDH
7. CD38 expression positive -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 30
Correct
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A 30-year-old female presents to the A&E department with epistaxis, which has now stopped. According to her boyfriend, she has a recent history of mucosal bleeding and has at times been very disorientated. On examination, she has a low-grade fever and appears confused and jaundiced. There is bruising over her legs and arms. A urine pregnancy test is negative. You receive the following blood results from the laboratory:
Hb: 8.5 g/dL
Plts: 8 x 10^9/L
WCC: 4.5 x 10^9/L
MCV: 92 fL
Na+: 138 mmol/L
K+: 4.9 mmol/L
Urea: 10.2 mmol/L
Creatinine: 182 mmol/L
Her coagulation profile is normal.
Given the likely diagnosis, what is the most appropriate management of this patient?Your Answer: Plasma exchange
Explanation:The diagnosis for the aforementioned case is thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP). TTP is classically characterised as a pentad of thrombocytopaenia, microvascular haemolysis, fluctuating neurological signs, renal impairment, and fever.
The differential diagnosis for severe thrombocytopaenia is immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP). ITP is more common than TTP. However, a patient of ITP would not present with the range of symptoms seen in this scenario.
In TTP, there is deficiency of a protease which breaks down large multimers of von Willebrand factor. This leads to abnormally large and sticky multimers of von Willebrand factor which cause platelets to clump within the vessels.
Untreated TTP has a mortality rate of up to 90%. Therefore, rapid plasma exchange (PEX) may be a life-saving intervention. Platelet transfusion in TTP is only indicated if there is an ongoing life-threatening bleed. Intravenous methylprednisolone is indicated after treatment with PEX has been completed. There is no current role of intravenous immunoglobulin in the routine management of TTP. However, there have been reports of its successful use in PEX- and steroid-refractory cases. Intravenous argatroban is indicated in heparin-induced thrombocytopaenia (HIT), but there is no history of recent heparin administration or hospitalisation in this patient nor are the clinical signs consistent with HIT.
Management options for TTP include PEX as the treatment of choice. Steroids and immunosuppressants are also given. Antibiotics are not recommended as they may worsen the outcome of the disease. For cases resistant to PEX and pharmacologic therapy, vincristine is given.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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