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  • Question 1 - A 37-year-old man presents with breathlessness on exertion and dry cough, fever for...

    Correct

    • A 37-year-old man presents with breathlessness on exertion and dry cough, fever for the past 2 days and bilateral pleuritic chest pain.

      He had been diagnosed with HIV and commenced on HAART but due to side effects, his compliance has been poor over the last few months.

      On examination you note scattered crackles and wheeze bilaterally, cervical and inguinal lymphadenopathy, and oral thrush. At rest his oxygen saturation is 97% but this drops to 87% on walking. There is perihilar fluffy shadowing seen on his chest X-ray.

      Which of these organisms is the most likely causative organism?

      Your Answer: Pneumocystis jirovecii

      Explanation:

      All of the organisms listed above can cause pneumonia in immunocompromised individuals but the most likely cause in this patient is Pneumocystis jirovecii.

      It is a leading AIDS-defining infection in HIV-infected individuals and causes opportunistic infection in immunocompromised individuals. HIV patients with a CD4 count less than 200 cells/mm3 are more prone.

      The clinical features of pneumonia caused by Pneumocystis jirovecii are:
      Fever, chest pain, cough (usually non-productive), exertional dyspnoea, tachypnoea, crackles and wheeze.
      Desaturation on exertion is a very sensitive sign of Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia.

      Chest X-ray can show perihilar fluffy shadowing (as is seen in this case) but can also be normal.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      27.8
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 10-month-old boy is brought to clinic. His parents are concerned because two...

    Correct

    • A 10-month-old boy is brought to clinic. His parents are concerned because two days ago, he met another child with mumps. What is the most appropriate management for this child?

      Your Answer: Do nothing now but give MMR at the appropriate age

      Explanation:

      Mumps is a viral infection that primarily affects the salivary glands, causing swelling and pain. It is most common in children, but can also affect adults who have not been vaccinated. In this case, the 10-month-old boy was exposed to another child with mumps, which raises concerns about his risk of contracting the infection.

      The most appropriate management for this child would be to do nothing now but give the MMR (measles, mumps, rubella) vaccine at the appropriate age. The reason for this is that immunity against mumps takes time to develop after vaccination. By following the recommended vaccination schedule, the child will receive protection against mumps and other diseases included in the MMR vaccine.

      The other options, such as assessing mumps serology or giving mumps immunoglobulin, are not necessary in this case. It is important to follow the standard vaccination guidelines to ensure the child’s long-term protection against mumps and other preventable diseases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology
      20.7
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 34-year-old man who is HIV positive has started treatment for Burkitt lymphoma....

    Correct

    • A 34-year-old man who is HIV positive has started treatment for Burkitt lymphoma. His chemotherapy regime includes cyclophosphamide, vincristine, methotrexate, and prednisolone. After one day of starting chemotherapy, he becomes confused and complains of muscle cramps in his legs.

      Which one of the following is most likely to have occurred?

      Your Answer: Tumour lysis syndrome

      Explanation:

      The 34-year-old man who is HIV positive has started treatment for Burkitt lymphoma with chemotherapy. After one day of starting treatment, he becomes confused and complains of muscle cramps in his legs. These symptoms are most likely due to tumour lysis syndrome (TLS), which is a potentially fatal condition that can occur as a complication during the treatment of high-grade lymphomas and leukaemias.

      TLS occurs when there is a rapid breakdown of tumour cells, leading to the release of chemicals into the bloodstream. This can result in electrolyte imbalances such as hyperkalaemia and hyperphosphatemia, along with hyponatraemia. The symptoms of TLS can include confusion, muscle cramps, and other neurological symptoms.

      In this case, the introduction of chemotherapy likely triggered the development of TLS in the patient. It is important to be aware of this condition and to take steps for its prophylactic management. One such measure is the administration of rasburicase prior to chemotherapy, which helps reduce the risk of TLS by metabolizing uric acid to a more soluble form for renal excretion.

      Burkitt lymphoma is a high-grade B-cell neoplasm associated with the c-myc gene translocation, usually t(8;14). The Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) is also implicated in the development of Burkitt lymphoma. Treatment for Burkitt lymphoma involves chemotherapy, which can lead to a rapid response and potentially trigger TLS.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      31.1
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Which of the following is correct regarding toxoplasmosis? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is correct regarding toxoplasmosis?

      Your Answer: Prophylactic immunoglobulins should be given to pregnant women if their IgM anti-toxoplasma antibodies detected

      Correct Answer: Can present with fits in patients with AIDS

      Explanation:

      Toxoplasmosis is a parasitic infection caused by the Toxoplasma gondii parasite. It can be transmitted through ingestion of contaminated food or water, handling cat litter, or from mother to fetus during pregnancy.

      The correct statement regarding toxoplasmosis is that it can present with fits in patients with AIDS. This is because individuals with weakened immune systems, such as those with AIDS, are more susceptible to developing symptoms of toxoplasmosis, including seizures or fits.

      Infection in the first trimester of pregnancy is actually very harmful to the fetus, as it can lead to serious complications such as intracranial calcifications, hydrocephalus, and blindness. Prophylactic immunoglobulins should be given to pregnant women if their IgM anti-toxoplasma antibodies are detected to help prevent transmission to the fetus.

      Toxoplasmosis is usually acquired through ingestion of contaminated food or water, not through respiration. Raw eggs are not a common source of infection for toxoplasmosis, as it is typically associated with cat feces or raw/undercooked meat.

      Overall, toxoplasmosis can have serious consequences, especially for pregnant women and individuals with weakened immune systems. It is important to take precautions to prevent infection and seek medical treatment if symptoms develop.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      20.8
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - How often should women living with HIV be screened for evidence of precancerous...

    Correct

    • How often should women living with HIV be screened for evidence of precancerous changes in the cervix?

      Your Answer: Every three years

      Explanation:

      Women living with HIV are at a higher risk of developing cervical cancer due to their compromised immune system. Regular screening for precancerous changes in the cervix is crucial in order to detect any abnormalities early on and prevent the progression to cervical cancer.

      The recommended frequency of screening for women living with HIV is every three years, regardless of their ART status or CD4 count. This is because HIV-positive individuals have a higher likelihood of developing cervical abnormalities, and more frequent screening may be necessary to detect any changes in a timely manner.

      By screening every three years, healthcare providers can closely monitor the cervical health of women living with HIV and provide appropriate interventions if any abnormalities are detected. This regular screening schedule helps to ensure early detection and treatment of precancerous changes, ultimately reducing the risk of developing cervical cancer in this vulnerable population.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology
      5.6
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - What is the acceptable level of estimated Glomerular Filtration Rate (eGFR) for TDF...

    Correct

    • What is the acceptable level of estimated Glomerular Filtration Rate (eGFR) for TDF use in adults and adolescents?

      Your Answer: > 50 mL/min/1.73m2

      Explanation:

      The estimated Glomerular Filtration Rate (eGFR) is a measure of how well the kidneys are functioning. Tenofovir disoproxil fumarate (TDF) is a medication used to treat HIV and hepatitis B, but it can be harmful to the kidneys if they are not functioning properly. Therefore, it is important to monitor a patient’s eGFR before starting TDF therapy.

      An eGFR using the Modification of Diet in Renal Disease (MDRD) equation of > 50 mL/min/1.73m2 is considered an acceptable level for TDF use in adults and adolescents. This level indicates that the kidneys are functioning well enough to safely metabolize and excrete the medication without causing harm.

      The other options provided in the question, such as > 80 mL/min/1.73 m2, < 10 and < 16 years of age, < 85 μmol/L, and > 120 IU/L, are not directly related to the acceptable eGFR level for TDF use. It is important to follow the specific guidelines and recommendations for eGFR levels when considering TDF therapy to ensure the safety and effectiveness of the treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      8.8
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - What should be done if a woman has indeterminate or discrepant HIV test...

    Incorrect

    • What should be done if a woman has indeterminate or discrepant HIV test results during labor?

      Your Answer: Treat the baby with a low-risk HIV-exposed infant protocol

      Correct Answer: Communicate clearly to the mother and document the results and plan of action

      Explanation:

      When a woman has indeterminate or discrepant HIV test results during labor, it is important to communicate clearly with the mother about the situation. This will help ensure that she understands the uncertainty surrounding her HIV status and the potential risks to her baby. By documenting the results and plan of action, healthcare providers can also ensure that there is a record of the steps taken to address the situation.

      Treating the baby with a low-risk HIV-exposed infant protocol is a proactive measure that can help reduce the risk of transmission if the mother does have HIV. Offering immediate partner testing can also help determine the mother’s HIV status and inform appropriate care for both the mother and baby.

      Providing routine labor and delivery management is important to ensure the safety and well-being of both the mother and baby during the birth process. Administering a stat single dose of NVP can also help reduce the risk of transmission if the mother does have HIV.

      Overall, clear communication, documentation, and proactive measures are key when dealing with indeterminate or discrepant HIV test results during labor. This approach can help ensure the best possible outcomes for both the mother and baby.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Evaluation
      19.9
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - What action is recommended if a client develops signs of immune reconstitution inflammatory...

    Incorrect

    • What action is recommended if a client develops signs of immune reconstitution inflammatory syndrome (IRIS) after initiating ART?

      Your Answer: Discontinue all ART medications

      Correct Answer: Manage with disease-specific therapies and anti-inflammatories

      Explanation:

      Immune reconstitution inflammatory syndrome (IRIS) is a condition that can occur in some HIV-infected individuals shortly after starting antiretroviral therapy (ART). It is characterized by an exaggerated inflammatory response to previously acquired opportunistic infections or malignancies as the immune system begins to recover.

      In the case of a client developing signs of IRIS after initiating ART, it is important to manage the condition with disease-specific therapies and anti-inflammatories. This approach aims to address the underlying cause of the inflammatory response while also providing symptomatic relief to the client. Discontinuing all ART medications or starting corticosteroid therapy immediately may not be appropriate as they can interfere with the effectiveness of the ART regimen or have potential side effects.

      Referring the client to a third-line review committee or switching to an NNRTI-based regimen may not be necessary in the management of IRIS, as the focus should be on treating the inflammatory response and providing supportive care. By managing IRIS with disease-specific therapies and anti-inflammatories, healthcare providers can help alleviate symptoms and prevent further complications associated with this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Evaluation
      14.1
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A patient with known human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) presents at her booking visit...

    Correct

    • A patient with known human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) presents at her booking visit at 38 weeks’ gestation. Her booking blood tests include a CD4 count of 480 and a viral load of 40 copies/ml. She is not currently on any antiretrovirals. She wishes to have a vaginal delivery if possible.
      Which of the following best describes this patient’s HIV management during her pregnancy?

      Your Answer: Combined antiretroviral therapy starting by 24 weeks and continuing lifelong

      Explanation:

      Antiretroviral Therapy Options for Pregnant Women with HIV

      The British HIV Association recommends that all pregnant women who are HIV-positive should be started on combined antiretroviral therapy in the second trimester and continue it lifelong. This therapy consists of three agents. Even if the viral load is low, antiretroviral therapy is still recommended.

      For women who refuse combined antiretroviral therapy, zidovudine monotherapy can be offered if the patient has a CD4 count of > 350 and a viral load of < 10 000 copies/ml and agrees to a Caesarean section. This option is less effective than combined therapy but can still be considered. If zidovudine monotherapy is chosen, it should be started in the second trimester and continued until delivery. During delivery, a zidovudine infusion should be running. If the viral load remains < 50 copies/ml, a planned vaginal delivery can be considered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      40.7
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - What is the recommended action if a pregnant woman tests positive for syphilis...

    Correct

    • What is the recommended action if a pregnant woman tests positive for syphilis during antenatal care?

      Your Answer: Treat all women with a positive syphilis screening test, irrespective of titer

      Explanation:

      Syphilis is a sexually transmitted infection that can be passed from a pregnant woman to her unborn child, leading to serious health complications. Therefore, it is crucial to treat syphilis in pregnant women to prevent transmission to the fetus.

      If a pregnant woman tests positive for syphilis during antenatal care, the recommended action is to treat all women with a positive syphilis screening test, irrespective of the titer. This is because even if the titer is low, the infection can still pose a risk to the fetus. Treatment with antibiotics is safe and effective in reducing the risk of transmission to the baby and preventing complications such as stillbirth, prematurity, and congenital syphilis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      14.8
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 29-year-old pregnant woman in her first trimester of pregnancy presented to the...

    Correct

    • A 29-year-old pregnant woman in her first trimester of pregnancy presented to the medical clinic for routine antenatal care. Upon interview and history taking, it revealed that she is positive for Hepatitis C virus antibody (HCV Ab). She is now concerned about transmitting the virus to her baby.

      Which of the following is considered correct about the patient's condition?

      Your Answer: Fetal scalp blood sampling should be avoided

      Explanation:

      Hepatitis C virus (HCV) can be transmitted from mother to baby during pregnancy and childbirth, although the risk is relatively low compared to other bloodborne viruses like HIV. Fetal scalp blood sampling is an invasive procedure that can increase the risk of vertical transmission of HCV, especially if the mother has a high viral load at the time of delivery. Therefore, it is recommended to avoid this procedure in pregnant women with HCV.

      Caesarean section has not been shown to significantly reduce the risk of HCV transmission from mother to baby, so it is not considered a preventive measure in this case. However, the baby should be screened for hepatitis C shortly after delivery to determine if transmission has occurred.

      The co-existence of HIV can increase the risk of HCV transmission, so it is important for the pregnant woman to be tested for HIV as well. Breastfeeding is generally considered safe for women with HCV, as long as there are no cracks or bleeding in the nipples that could potentially expose the baby to infected blood.

      In conclusion, fetal scalp blood sampling should be avoided in pregnant women with HCV to reduce the risk of vertical transmission to the baby. Other measures such as screening the baby after delivery and testing for HIV should also be taken to ensure the health of both the mother and the baby.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology
      16.9
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 36-year-old Afro-Caribbean woman presents to the Emergency Department complaining of shortness of...

    Correct

    • A 36-year-old Afro-Caribbean woman presents to the Emergency Department complaining of shortness of breath, fever and a productive cough. She has suffered multiple severe infections over the past five years; however, she has no other past medical history.
      On examination, you note intercostal recessions and the use of accessory muscles of respiration. She has significant coarse crepitations in her right lower lobe.
      You take some basic observations, which are as follows:
      Temperature: 39.8 °C
      Heart rate: 120 bpm
      Respiratory rate: 26 breaths/min
      Blood pressure: 150/94 mmHg (lying) 146/90 mmHg (standing)
      Oxygen saturation: 86% on room air
      Her initial investigation findings are as follows:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      White cell count (WCC) 14.4 × 109/l 4–11. × 109/l
      Neutrophils 12800 × 106/l 3000–5800 × 106/l
      Lymphocytes 1400 × 106/l 1500–3000 × 106/l
      Haemoglobin (Hb) 110 g/dl 115–155 g/dl
      Mean corpuscular volume (MCV) 94 fl 76–98 fl
      Platelets 360 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Her chest X-ray shows significant consolidation in the right lower lobe.
      A blood film comes back and shows the following: sickled erythrocytes and Howell–Jolly bodies.
      A sputum culture is grown and shows Streptococcus pneumoniae, and the patient’s pneumonia is managed successfully with antibiotics and IV fluid therapy.
      What condition is predisposing this patient to severe infections?

      Your Answer: Splenic dysfunction

      Explanation:

      The patient has sickle cell disease and a history of recurrent infections, indicating long-term damage to the spleen. The blood film shows signs of splenic disruption, such as Howell-Jolly bodies, and a low lymphocyte level, which may be due to reduced lymphocyte storage capacity in the shrunken spleen. This is different from a splenic sequestration crisis, which is an acute pediatric emergency. The current admission may be an acute chest pain crisis, but it is not the cause of the recurrent infections. The patient does not have acute lymphoblastic leukemia, as there is no evidence of blastic cells or pancytopenia. Advanced HIV is a possibility, but the blood film suggests sickle cell disease. While the patient is at risk of an aplastic crisis, it typically occurs in younger patients after a parvovirus B19 infection, which is not present in this case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      65.1
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - When is resistance testing required for clients failing a DTG-based regimen? ...

    Correct

    • When is resistance testing required for clients failing a DTG-based regimen?

      Your Answer: VL ≥ 1000 c/mL on at least three occasions over two years

      Explanation:

      Resistance testing is required for clients failing a DTG-based regimen when their viral load exceeds 1000 c/mL on at least three occasions over two years. This threshold indicates a consistent failure of the current treatment regimen and suggests the presence of drug resistance mutations. Resistance testing helps healthcare providers identify specific mutations that may be causing treatment failure, allowing for the selection of a more effective alternative regimen. By conducting resistance testing in these cases, healthcare providers can optimize treatment outcomes and prevent further development of drug resistance.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      17.2
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A patient in the first trimester of pregnancy has just learned that her...

    Incorrect

    • A patient in the first trimester of pregnancy has just learned that her husband has acute hepatitis B. She feels well, and her screening test for hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg) was negative last month. She has not been immunized against hepatitis B.

      Which one of the following would be the most appropriate management of this patient?

      Your Answer: Use of condoms for the remainder of the pregnancy, and administration of immunization after delivery

      Correct Answer: Administration of both HBIG and hepatitis B vaccine now

      Explanation:

      This question presents a scenario where a pregnant woman has just learned that her husband has acute hepatitis B. The woman herself tested negative for hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg) last month and has not been immunized against hepatitis B.

      The most appropriate management of this patient would be the administration of both hepatitis B immune globulin (HBIG) and hepatitis B vaccine now. This is because HBIG should be administered as soon as possible to patients with known exposure to hepatitis B. Additionally, the hepatitis B vaccine is a killed-virus vaccine that can be safely used in pregnancy, with no need to wait until after organogenesis.

      The other answer choices are not as appropriate:
      – No further workup or immunization at this time, a repeat HBsAg test near term, and treatment of the newborn if the test is positive: This approach does not address the immediate need for treatment and prevention of hepatitis B transmission to the mother.
      – Use of condoms for the remainder of the pregnancy, and administration of immunization after delivery: Condoms may not be effective in preventing transmission of hepatitis B, and delaying immunization until after delivery may put the mother and newborn at risk.
      – Testing for hepatitis B immunity (anti-HBs), and immunization if needed: Given the patient’s lack of history of hepatitis B infection or immunization, it is unlikely that she is immune to hepatitis B. Immediate treatment is needed in this scenario.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Evaluation
      49.7
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Under what circumstances should ART be delayed? ...

    Incorrect

    • Under what circumstances should ART be delayed?

      Your Answer: If laboratory results are available

      Correct Answer: If concerns about adherence outweigh the risk of HIV disease progression

      Explanation:

      Antiretroviral therapy (ART) is a crucial component of HIV treatment that helps to suppress the virus and prevent disease progression. Therefore, it is generally recommended that ART be initiated as soon as possible after an HIV diagnosis, regardless of the client’s clinical condition or symptoms.

      However, there may be certain circumstances where delaying ART is considered. One such circumstance is when concerns about the client’s ability to adhere to the medication regimen outweigh the risk of HIV disease progression. Adherence to ART is essential for its effectiveness, and if a client is unable or unwilling to adhere to the prescribed regimen, it may be more beneficial to delay starting ART until the client is better able to adhere to the treatment plan.

      In all other cases, including if the client prefers alternative therapies, if the client’s clinical condition is not severe, if the client is asymptomatic, or if laboratory results are available, ART should not be delayed. The benefits of starting ART early and maintaining adherence to the treatment plan far outweigh any potential risks or concerns in these situations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Evaluation
      24.2
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - When diagnosing HIV in neonates born to HIV-positive mothers, what is the correct...

    Correct

    • When diagnosing HIV in neonates born to HIV-positive mothers, what is the correct testing sequence?

      Your Answer: PCR at birth, then PCR at 10 weeks and 6 months, rapid test at 18 months

      Explanation:

      When diagnosing HIV in neonates born to HIV-positive mothers, it is important to follow a specific testing sequence to ensure accurate results. The correct testing sequence involves performing a PCR test at birth, then again at 10 weeks and 6 months. This is because PCR tests are able to detect the presence of HIV genetic material in the blood, even in very young infants.

      After the PCR tests, a rapid test should be performed at 18 months. Rapid tests are able to detect HIV antibodies in the blood, which typically develop within a few months to a year after infection. By combining both PCR and rapid tests at different time points, healthcare providers can accurately diagnose HIV in neonates born to HIV-positive mothers.

      It is important to note that PCR tests are more sensitive and specific in detecting HIV in infants, especially during the early months of life when HIV antibodies may not yet be present. Rapid tests are used at a later stage to confirm the presence of HIV antibodies and provide a final diagnosis.

      Following this testing sequence as per the National consolidated guidelines in South Africa ensures that HIV-positive infants are identified early and can receive appropriate treatment and care to improve their health outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology
      11.2
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  • Question 17 - A 6 year old boy arrives at the clinic seven hours after having...

    Correct

    • A 6 year old boy arrives at the clinic seven hours after having injured his hand with a metal spike. Examination reveals a puncture wound 0.5 cm deep. His immunization schedule is uptodate. How will you manage this patient?

      Your Answer: Tetanus Ig + antibiotics

      Explanation:

      In this case, the best management for the 6-year-old boy who injured his hand with a metal spike would be to administer Tetanus Ig (immunoglobulin) along with antibiotics. Tetanus Ig provides immediate passive immunity against tetanus, while antibiotics help prevent any potential infection from developing in the wound.

      It is important to note that the boy’s immunization schedule is up-to-date, which means he has likely received the tetanus vaccine as part of his routine vaccinations. However, since the wound is considered tetanus-prone due to being a puncture wound and potentially contaminated with debris, it is still recommended to administer Tetanus Ig as an extra precaution.

      In summary, the appropriate management for this patient would be Tetanus Ig along with antibiotics to prevent tetanus infection and promote healing of the wound.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Evaluation
      23.3
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 24-year-old male comes to his doctor complaining of pain and swelling in...

    Correct

    • A 24-year-old male comes to his doctor complaining of pain and swelling in his left testis for the past week. He is sexually active and has had multiple partners of both genders in the last year. During the examination, the doctor finds that the left testis is tender and swollen, but the patient has no fever. The doctor takes urethral swabs to determine the most probable causative organism.

      What is the likely pathogen responsible for the patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Chlamydia trachomatis

      Explanation:

      Chlamydia trachomatis is the most common cause of acute epididymo-orchitis in sexually active young adults. This patient’s symptoms and signs are consistent with epididymo-orchitis, and the timing suggests this diagnosis over testicular torsion. While mumps can also cause epididymo-orchitis, it is less common and not supported by the absence of other symptoms. In men over 35 years old, E. coli is the most common cause, but given this patient’s age and sexual history, chlamydia is the most likely culprit. Neisseria gonorrhoeae is the second most common cause in this age group.

      Epididymo-orchitis is a condition where the epididymis and/or testes become infected, leading to pain and swelling. It is commonly caused by infections spreading from the genital tract or bladder, with Chlamydia trachomatis and Neisseria gonorrhoeae being the usual culprits in sexually active younger adults, while E. coli is more commonly seen in older adults with a low-risk sexual history. Symptoms include unilateral testicular pain and swelling, with urethral discharge sometimes present. Testicular torsion, which can cause ischaemia of the testicle, is an important differential diagnosis and needs to be excluded urgently, especially in younger patients with severe pain and an acute onset.

      Investigations are guided by the patient’s age, with sexually transmitted infections being assessed in younger adults and a mid-stream urine (MSU) being sent for microscopy and culture in older adults with a low-risk sexual history. Management guidelines from the British Association for Sexual Health and HIV (BASHH) recommend ceftriaxone 500 mg intramuscularly as a single dose, plus doxycycline 100 mg orally twice daily for 10-14 days if the organism causing the infection is unknown. Further investigations are recommended after treatment to rule out any underlying structural abnormalities.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      39.4
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 45-year-old female presented with weight loss, night sweats and abdominal pain for...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old female presented with weight loss, night sweats and abdominal pain for 6 months. Abdominal ultrasound scan showed a tubo-ovarian mass. What is the most likely organism, which is responsible for this presentation?

      Your Answer: Chlamydia trachomatis

      Correct Answer: Mycobacterium tuberculosis

      Explanation:

      The most likely organism responsible for the presentation of weight loss, night sweats, and abdominal pain in a 45-year-old female with a tubo-ovarian mass is Mycobacterium tuberculosis. This is because the constitutional symptoms of weight loss, evening pyrexia, and night sweats are classic signs of tuberculosis. TB can affect any part of the body, including the reproductive organs, leading to the formation of masses such as the tubo-ovarian mass seen on the ultrasound scan.

      Chlamydia trachomatis, Neisseria gonorrhoeae, and Staphylococcus aureus are not typically associated with the symptoms described in this case. Entamoeba histolytica is a parasitic infection that can cause abdominal pain, but it is not commonly associated with weight loss and night sweats.

      Therefore, given the clinical presentation and the presence of a tubo-ovarian mass, Mycobacterium tuberculosis is the most likely organism responsible for this patient’s symptoms. Further testing, such as a biopsy or culture of the mass, may be needed to confirm the diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      14.4
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  • Question 20 - Which organ systems can HIV directly damage besides the immune system? ...

    Correct

    • Which organ systems can HIV directly damage besides the immune system?

      Your Answer: Brain, kidneys, heart, and gonads

      Explanation:

      HIV, or human immunodeficiency virus, primarily targets and damages the immune system by attacking CD4 cells, which are crucial for fighting off infections. However, HIV can also directly damage other organ systems in the body.

      The brain can be affected by HIV through various neurological complications, such as HIV-associated neurocognitive disorders (HAND) which can lead to cognitive impairment and dementia. The kidneys can also be damaged by HIV, leading to conditions like HIV-associated nephropathy (HIVAN) which can result in kidney failure.

      Additionally, HIV can directly damage the heart, leading to cardiomyopathy which is a condition where the heart muscle becomes weakened and cannot pump blood effectively. Lastly, HIV can also affect the gonads, leading to issues with fertility and hormone production.

      Therefore, the correct answer is: Brain, kidneys, heart, and gonads.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      17
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - For PMTCT, when is an HIV PCR test done for neonates born to...

    Correct

    • For PMTCT, when is an HIV PCR test done for neonates born to HIV-positive mothers?

      Your Answer: At birth or immediately for high-risk mothers.

      Explanation:

      For Prevention of Mother-to-Child Transmission (PMTCT) of HIV, it is crucial to identify HIV infection in newborns as early as possible in order to start treatment promptly and prevent the progression of the disease. Therefore, an HIV PCR test is done for neonates born to HIV-positive mothers at birth or immediately for high-risk mothers.

      The option At one year of age is not ideal because delaying the test until one year of age can result in missed opportunities for early intervention and treatment. The option Only if the mother was not on ART during pregnancy is not accurate because all newborns born to HIV-positive mothers should be tested regardless of the mother’s ART status. The option At six weeks during vaccinations is not the recommended timing for the HIV PCR test. The option At nine months is also not the recommended timing for the test.

      In conclusion, conducting an HIV PCR test at birth or immediately for babies born to high-risk mothers is essential for early detection and management of HIV infection in newborns.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology
      18.5
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - What is the recommended screening frequency for HIV testing among pregnant women during...

    Correct

    • What is the recommended screening frequency for HIV testing among pregnant women during antenatal care visits?

      Your Answer: At every routine antenatal care visit

      Explanation:

      HIV testing is recommended to be offered at every routine antenatal care visit for pregnant women because early detection and treatment of HIV during pregnancy can significantly reduce the risk of mother-to-child transmission of the virus. By testing regularly throughout the pregnancy, healthcare providers can ensure that any potential cases of HIV are identified promptly and appropriate interventions can be implemented to protect both the mother and the baby. Additionally, offering HIV testing at every antenatal care visit helps to normalize the practice and reduce stigma associated with HIV testing, making it more likely that pregnant women will accept testing. This approach aligns with the World Health Organization’s recommendation for universal HIV testing in antenatal care settings.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Evaluation
      11.6
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - What is the recommended dose of Zidovudine (AZT) for infants aged birth to...

    Correct

    • What is the recommended dose of Zidovudine (AZT) for infants aged birth to 6 weeks and weighing between 2.0 to 2.49 kg?

      Your Answer: 1.5 ml (15 mg) once daily

      Explanation:

      Zidovudine (AZT) is a medication commonly used to prevent mother-to-child transmission of HIV. In infants aged birth to 6 weeks and weighing between 2.0 to 2.49 kg, the recommended dose of Zidovudine is 1.5 ml (15 mg) twice daily. This dosage is based on the weight of the infant and is important to ensure the medication is effective and safe for the child.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      7.2
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 35-year-old female presented with complaints of earache and a high-grade fever. During...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old female presented with complaints of earache and a high-grade fever. During examination, numerous small vesicles were found within the ear canal and her ear is very tender. Which one of the following organisms is most likely to be responsible for such a condition?

      Your Answer: Herpes zoster

      Explanation:

      Herpes zoster, also known as shingles, is caused by the reactivation of the varicella zoster virus, which initially causes chickenpox. When the virus reactivates, it can cause painful vesicular lesions in a specific dermatome area, such as the ear canal in this case. The high-grade fever may be present due to the infection.

      Varicella zoster is the virus responsible for chickenpox, not shingles. Measles is caused by the measles virus and presents with a characteristic rash, but not tender lesions in a specific area. Herpes simplex virus can cause cold sores or genital herpes, but not the specific presentation described in the question. HIV is a virus that attacks the immune system and can lead to various opportunistic infections, but it does not typically present with tender lesions in a specific area like herpes zoster.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      21.7
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - Which of the following microbes binds strongly to CD4 antigen: ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following microbes binds strongly to CD4 antigen:

      Your Answer: HIV

      Explanation:

      The question is asking which microbe binds strongly to the CD4 antigen. The correct answer is HIV. HIV, or Human Immunodeficiency Virus, primarily infects CD4+ T helper cells by binding to the CD4 antigen on the surface of these cells. This binding allows the virus to enter the T cells and replicate, leading to progressive depletion of T cells and impaired immune function.

      Plasmodium falciparum is a parasite that causes malaria and does not bind to the CD4 antigen. Mycoplasma tuberculosis is a bacterium that causes tuberculosis and does not bind to the CD4 antigen. Treponema pallidum is a bacterium that causes syphilis and does not bind to the CD4 antigen. Epstein-Barr virus is a virus that causes infectious mononucleosis and does not bind to the CD4 antigen.

      Overall, HIV is the microbe that binds strongly to the CD4 antigen, leading to its ability to infect and replicate within CD4+ T cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      9
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - Which of the following best describe Clostridium infection? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following best describe Clostridium infection?

      Your Answer: Gram negative bacilli

      Correct Answer: Anaerobe

      Explanation:

      Clostridium infection is best described as being caused by anaerobic Gram-positive bacilli. Clostridium bacteria are anaerobes, meaning they thrive in environments without oxygen. They are also Gram-positive, which means they have a thick cell wall that retains a violet dye during the Gram staining process. Clostridium bacteria are typically rod-shaped and are capable of forming endospores, which are resistant structures that allow them to survive in harsh conditions. Some important human pathogens within the Clostridium genus include Clostridium botulinum, which causes botulism, and Clostridium difficile, a common cause of diarrhea.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      11.8
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 32-year-old lady is found to be hepatitis B surface antigen positive. This...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old lady is found to be hepatitis B surface antigen positive. This positive result has persisted for more than six months. Hepatitis B envelope antigen (HBeAg) is negative. HBV DNA is negative. Her liver function tests are all entirely normal.

      Which of the following options would be the best for further management?

      Your Answer: No antiviral therapy but monitor serology

      Explanation:

      In this case, the 32-year-old lady is found to be hepatitis B surface antigen positive for more than six months, with negative HBeAg, negative HBV DNA, and normal liver function tests. This indicates that she has chronic hepatitis B infection. The best option for further management would be to not initiate antiviral therapy but to monitor her serology regularly. This is because her liver function tests are normal, and there is no evidence of active viral replication. Antiviral therapy is typically recommended for patients with evidence of active viral replication or liver inflammation. Additionally, there is no indication for a liver biopsy in this case as her liver function tests are normal and there are no signs of advanced liver disease. Monitoring her serology over time will help determine if there are any changes in her infection status that may warrant treatment in the future.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Evaluation
      39.2
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - Which of the following is true of mother to child transmission in the...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is true of mother to child transmission in the case of a mother with HIV infection?

      Your Answer: The risk of HIV vertical transmission is increased by concurrent maternal Hepatitis C infection

      Explanation:

      Mother to child transmission of HIV can occur during pregnancy, childbirth, or breastfeeding. In the case of a mother with HIV infection, the risk of vertical transmission can be increased by concurrent maternal Hepatitis C infection. This is because Hepatitis C can weaken the immune system and increase the viral load of HIV, making it more likely to be transmitted to the child.

      In the UK, elective caesarean section is not performed in approximately 80% of HIV positive mothers. This is because the risk of transmission during vaginal delivery is low, and with proper management and monitoring, the risk can be minimized.

      HIV positive mothers established on combination antiretroviral therapy (ART) should not be encouraged to breastfeed, as this can increase the risk of transmission to the child. Instead, formula feeding is recommended to reduce the risk of HIV transmission.

      Intrauterine transmission of HIV can occur in up to 40% of untreated maternal infections. This is why it is important for pregnant women with HIV to be on ART to reduce the risk of transmission to the child.

      Serial intrauterine monitoring of HIV viral load can be useful in predicting the risk of transmission to the child. By monitoring the viral load throughout pregnancy, healthcare providers can adjust treatment and interventions to reduce the risk of vertical transmission.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology
      33.7
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - At what interval should viral load monitoring be conducted for newly diagnosed HIV-positive...

    Correct

    • At what interval should viral load monitoring be conducted for newly diagnosed HIV-positive pregnant women already on antiretroviral therapy (ART)?

      Your Answer: Every 3 months

      Explanation:

      Viral load monitoring is crucial for newly diagnosed HIV-positive pregnant women who are already on antiretroviral therapy (ART) because it helps to assess the effectiveness of the treatment in suppressing the virus. Monitoring viral load levels every 3 months allows healthcare providers to closely track the progress of the treatment and make any necessary adjustments to ensure viral suppression is achieved.

      Regular viral load monitoring is important during pregnancy because untreated HIV can lead to serious complications for both the mother and the baby. By monitoring viral load levels every 3 months, healthcare providers can ensure that the mother’s viral load remains undetectable, reducing the risk of mother-to-child transmission of HIV.

      Additionally, frequent viral load monitoring can help identify any potential issues with the treatment regimen early on, allowing for prompt intervention and adjustment if needed. This can help optimize treatment outcomes for both the mother and the baby.

      Overall, conducting viral load monitoring every 3 months for newly diagnosed HIV-positive pregnant women already on ART is essential for ensuring viral suppression, reducing the risk of transmission, and promoting the health and well-being of both the mother and the baby.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Evaluation
      7.1
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - Which of the following serology results is consistent with chronic hepatitis B infection:...

    Correct

    • Which of the following serology results is consistent with chronic hepatitis B infection:

      Your Answer: HBsAg positive and anti-HBc IgG positive

      Explanation:

      Disease state vs Serology
      Acute hepatitis: HBsAg, HBeAg, anti-HBc IgM
      Chronic hepatitis B (low infectivity): HBsAg (>6/12), anti-HBe, anti-HBc IgG
      Chronic hepatitis B (high infectivity): HBsAg (>6/12), HBeAg, anti-HBc IgG
      Cleared infection: Anti-HBs, anti-HBe, anti-HBc IgG
      Vaccinated: Anti-HBs

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Evaluation
      24.5
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Microbiology (4/7) 57%
Epidemiology (6/6) 100%
Pathology (4/4) 100%
Pharmacology (4/4) 100%
Clinical Evaluation (5/9) 56%
Passmed