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  • Question 1 - You review a 56-year-old man who has recently been prescribed antibiotics for a...

    Correct

    • You review a 56-year-old man who has recently been prescribed antibiotics for a chest infection. He suffers from COPD and is currently prescribed salbutamol and Seretide inhalers, and Phyllocontin continus. Since starting the antibiotics, he has been experiencing nausea, vomiting and abdominal pain.
      Which of the following antibiotics is he MOST LIKELY to have been prescribed for his chest infection? Select ONE answer only .

      Your Answer: Levofloxacin

      Explanation:

      Phyllocontin continus contains aminophylline (a mixture of theophylline and ethylenediamine), a bronchodilator used in the management of COPD and asthma.
      This patient is exhibiting symptoms of theophylline toxicity, which may have been triggered by the prescription of the antibiotic. Quinolone antibiotics, such as ciprofloxacin and levofloxacin, and macrolide antibiotics, such as erythromycin, increase the plasma concentration of theophyllines and can lead to toxicity.
      The drugs that commonly affect the half-life and the plasma concentration of theophylline are summarised in the table below:
      Drugs increasing plasma concentration of theophylline
      Drugs decreasing plasma concentration of theophylline
      Calcium channel blockers, e.g. Verapamil
      Cimetidine
      Fluconazole
      Macrolides, e.g. erythromycin
      Quinolones, e.g. ciprofloxacin
      Methotrexate
      Barbiturates
      Carbamazepine
      Phenobarbitol
      Phenytoin (and fosphenytoin)
      Rifampicin
      St. John’s wort

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      • Respiratory Pharmacology
      11
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 25-year-old female arrives at the emergency room with a severe case of asthma....

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old female arrives at the emergency room with a severe case of asthma. When she doesn't seem to be improving after initial treatment, you decide to start an aminophylline infusion.

      From the options below, which is Aminophylline's main mechanism of action?

      Your Answer: Phosphodiesterase inhibition

      Explanation:

      Theophylline and Ethylenediamine are combined in a 2:1 ratio to form Aminophylline. Its solubility is improved by the addition of Ethylenediamine. It has a lower potency and a shorter duration of action than Theophylline.
      It is used to treat the following conditions:
      Heart failure
      It is used to treat the following conditions:
      COPD
      Bradycardias

      Aminophylline has the following properties:
      Phosphodiesterase inhibitor that increases intracellular cAMP and relaxes smooth muscle in the bronchial airways and pulmonary blood vessels.
      Mast cell stabilization is achieved by using a non-selective adenosine receptor antagonist.
      It has slight positive inotropic and chronotropic effects, increasing cardiac output and decreasing systemic vascular resistance, lowering arterial blood pressure. It has been used historically in the treatment of refractory heart failure and is indicated by the current ALS guidelines as a substitute treatment for bradycardia.

      The daily oral dose for adults is 900 mg, divided into 2-3 doses. For severe asthma or COPD, a loading dosage of 5 mg/kg over 10-20 minutes is given, followed by a continuous infusion of 0.5 mg/kg/hour. The therapeutic range is small (10-20 microgram/ml), hence assessments of aminophylline plasma concentrations are useful during long-term treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      • Respiratory Pharmacology
      17
      Seconds

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Pharmacology (2/2) 100%
Respiratory Pharmacology (2/2) 100%
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