00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Secs)
Retry this test Dashboard

  • Question 1 - At rest, skeletal muscle accounts for between 15-20% of cardiac output and accounts...

    Correct

    • At rest, skeletal muscle accounts for between 15-20% of cardiac output and accounts for around 50% of body weight. This can increase to nearly 80% of cardiac output during exercise. Skeletal muscle circulation is highly controlled and has a number of specialized adaptations as a result of this high degree of disparity during exercise, in combination with the diversity in the size of skeletal muscle around the body.

      What is the primary mechanism for boosting skeletal muscle blood flow during exercise?

      Your Answer: Metabolic hyperaemia

      Explanation:

      In skeletal muscle, blood flow is closely related to metabolic rate. Due to the contraction of precapillary sphincters, most capillaries are blocked off from the rest of the circulation at rest and are not perfused. This causes an increase in vascular tone and vessel constriction. As metabolic activity rises, this develops redundancy in the system, allowing it to cope with greater demand. During exercise, metabolic hyperaemia, which is induced by the release of K+, CO2, and adenosine, recruits capillaries. Sympathetic vasoconstriction in the active muscles is overridden by this. Simultaneously, blood flow in non-working muscles is restricted, preserving cardiac output. During exercise, muscle contractions pump blood through the venous system, raising the pressure differential between arterioles and venules and boosting blood flow via capillaries.

      Capillary angiogenesis is evident when muscles are used repeatedly (e.g. endurance training). It is a long-term effect, not a quick fix for increased blood flow.

      The local partial pressure of alveolar oxygen is the primary intrinsic control of pulmonary blood flow (pAO2). Low pAO2 promotes arteriole vasoconstriction and vice versa. The hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction (HPV) reflex allows blood flow to be diverted away from poorly ventilated alveoli and towards well-ventilated alveoli in order to maximize gaseous exchange.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Physiology
      • Physiology
      32.3
      Seconds

  • Question 2 - Which of the following ions normally has the highest concentration in intracellular fluid: ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following ions normally has the highest concentration in intracellular fluid:

      Your Answer: K +

      Explanation:

      Potassium (K+) is the principal intracellular ion; approximately 4 mmol/L is extracellular (3%) and 140 mmol/L intracellular (97%).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Cellular
      • Physiology
      12.9
      Seconds

  • Question 3 - What is the direct mechanism of action of digoxin as a positive inotrope:...

    Correct

    • What is the direct mechanism of action of digoxin as a positive inotrope:

      Your Answer: Inhibition of Na+/K+ ATPase pump

      Explanation:

      Digoxin directly inhibits membrane Na+/K+ ATPase, which is responsible for Na+/K+ exchange across the myocyte cell membrane. This increases intracellular Na+ and produces a secondary increase in intracellular Ca2+ that increases the force of myocardial contraction. The increase in intracellular Ca2+ occurs because the decreased Na+ gradient across the membrane reduces the extrusion of Ca2+ by the Na+/Ca2+ exchanger that normally occurs during diastole. Digoxin and K+ ions compete for the receptor on the outside of the muscle cell membrane, and so the effects of digoxin may be dangerously increased in hypokalaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Pharmacology
      15
      Seconds

  • Question 4 - Which of the following is NOT a typical electrolyte disturbance caused by furosemide:...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is NOT a typical electrolyte disturbance caused by furosemide:

      Your Answer: Hypercalcaemia

      Explanation:

      Adverse effects of loop diuretics include:
      Mild gastrointestinal disturbances, pancreatitis and hepatic encephalopathy
      Hyperglycaemia
      Acute urinary retention
      Water and electrolyte imbalance
      Hyponatraemia, hypocalcaemia, hypokalaemia, hypomagnesaemia, hypochloraemiaHypotension, hypovolaemia, dehydration, and venous thromboembolism
      Metabolic alkalosis
      Hyperuricaemia
      Blood disorders (bone marrow suppression, thrombocytopenia, and leucopenia)
      Visual disturbance, tinnitus and deafness
      Hypersensitivity reactions

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Pharmacology
      32.4
      Seconds

  • Question 5 - Regarding renal clearance, which of the following statements is CORRECT: ...

    Correct

    • Regarding renal clearance, which of the following statements is CORRECT:

      Your Answer: The MDRD equation uses plasma creatinine to estimate the GFR making an adjustment for age, sex and race.

      Explanation:

      Clearance is defined as the volume of plasma that is cleared of a substance per unit time. Inulin clearance is the gold standard for measurement of GFR but creatinine clearance is typically used instead. Creatinine is freely filtered and not reabsorbed, but there is a little creatinine tubular secretion. In practice, GFR is usually estimated from the plasma creatinine using a formula e.g. the MDRD equation making an adjustment for age, sex and race.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal
      26.4
      Seconds

  • Question 6 - Which of the following is NOT a typical effect caused by adrenaline: ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is NOT a typical effect caused by adrenaline:

      Your Answer: Bronchoconstriction

      Explanation:

      Actions of adrenaline:
      Cardiovascular system
      – Increased rate and force of cardiac contraction
      – Vasoconstriction of vessels in skin, mucous membranes and splanchnic bed
      – Vasodilation of skeletal muscle vessels
      – Increased cardiac output and blood pressure
      Respiratory system
      – Bronchodilation
      – Increased ventilation rate
      Gastrointestinal system
      – Smooth muscle relaxation
      – Contraction of sphincters
      – Metabolism
      – Decreased insulin release
      – Increased glucagon release
      – Increased thermogenesis
      – Increased glycolysis
      – Increased lipolysis
      Eye
      – Pupillary dilation

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine
      • Physiology
      35.5
      Seconds

  • Question 7 - You are seeing a child with known mitochondrial disease who has presented breathlessness...

    Correct

    • You are seeing a child with known mitochondrial disease who has presented breathlessness and cough. Which of the following best describes the function of mitochondria:

      Your Answer: Energy production

      Explanation:

      Mitochondria are membrane-bound organelles that are responsible for the production of the cell’s supply of chemical energy. This is achieved by using molecular oxygen to utilise sugar and small fatty acid molecules to generate adenosine triphosphate (ATP). This process is known as oxidative phosphorylation and requires an enzyme called ATP synthase. ATP acts as an energy-carrying molecule and releases the energy in situations when it is required to fuel cellular processes. Mitochondria are also involved in other cellular processes, including Ca2+homeostasis and signalling. Mitochondria contain a small amount of maternal DNA.
      Mitochondria have two phospholipid bilayers, an outer membrane and an inner membrane. The inner membrane is intricately folded inwards to form numerous layers called cristae. The cristae contain specialised membrane proteins that enable the mitochondria to synthesise ATP. Between the two membranes lies the intermembrane space, which stores large proteins that are required for cellular respiration. Within the inner membrane is the perimitochondrial space, which contains a jelly-like matrix. This matrix contains a large quantity of ATP synthase.
      Mitochondrial disease, or mitochondrial disorder, refers to a group of disorders that affect the mitochondria. When the number or function of mitochondria in the cell are disrupted, less energy is produced and organ dysfunction results.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Cellular
      • Physiology
      33.1
      Seconds

  • Question 8 - You evaluate a 80-year-old man who has a history of persistent heart failure...

    Correct

    • You evaluate a 80-year-old man who has a history of persistent heart failure and discover that he has generalised oedema.

      Which of the following claims regarding capillary hydrostatic pressure (P c) is false?

      Your Answer: P c increases along the length of the capillary, from arteriole to venule

      Explanation:

      The capillary hydrostatic pressure (Pc) is normally between 15 and 30 millimetres of mercury. Pc Decreases along the capillary’s length, mirroring the arteriolar and venule pressures proximally and distally.
      Pc is determined by the ratio of arteriolar resistance (RA) to venular resistance (RV).

      When the RA/RV ratio is high, the pressure drop across the capillary is modest, and Pcis is close to venule pressure.

      When the ratio of RA/RV is low, the pressure drop across the capillary is considerable, and Pcis is close to arteriolar pressure.

      Pcis closer to the venule pressure and thus more responsive to changes in venous pressure than arteriolar pressure when RA/RV is high.

      Pcis the major force behind fluid pushing out of the capillary bed and into the interstitium.
      It is also the most variable of the forces affecting fluid transport at the capillary, partly because sympathetic-mediated arteriolar vasoconstriction varies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Physiology
      • Physiology
      49
      Seconds

  • Question 9 - Where does carbohydrate digestion begin: ...

    Correct

    • Where does carbohydrate digestion begin:

      Your Answer: Mouth

      Explanation:

      Carbohydrate digestion begins in the mouth, by alpha-amylase produced in saliva.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Physiology
      5.5
      Seconds

  • Question 10 - Monoamine oxidase is primarily involved in the degradation of which of the following:...

    Correct

    • Monoamine oxidase is primarily involved in the degradation of which of the following:

      Your Answer: Noradrenaline

      Explanation:

      Catecholamines are broken down extracellularly and in the liver by catechol-O-methyltransferase (COMT) and intracellularly by monoamine oxidase (MAO).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine
      • Physiology
      10.9
      Seconds

  • Question 11 - Pre-oxygenation is done prior to intubation to extend the ‘safe apnoea time’.

    Which lung...

    Correct

    • Pre-oxygenation is done prior to intubation to extend the ‘safe apnoea time’.

      Which lung volume or capacity is the most important store of oxygen in the body?

      Your Answer: Functional residual capacity

      Explanation:

      The administration of oxygen to a patient before intubation is called pre-oxygenation and it helps extend the ‘safe apnoea time’.

      The Functional residual capacity (FRC) is the volume of gas that remains in the lungs after normal tidal expiration. It is the most important store of oxygen in the body. The aim of pre-oxygenation is to replace the nitrogen in the FRC with oxygen.

      Apnoea can be tolerated for longer periods before critical hypoxia develops if the FRC is large. Patients with reduced FRC reach critical hypoxia more rapidly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory Physiology
      19.8
      Seconds

  • Question 12 - The normal range of arterial HCO3- is: ...

    Correct

    • The normal range of arterial HCO3- is:

      Your Answer: 24 - 30 mmol/L

      Explanation:

      Normal ranges:
      pH = 7.35 – 7.45
      pO2(on air) = 11 -14 kPa
      pCO2= 4.5 – 6.0 kPa
      HCO3-= 24 – 30 mmol/L
      BE = +/- 2 mmol/L

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal
      7.7
      Seconds

  • Question 13 - A patient presents with a history of renal problems, generalised weakness and palpitations....

    Correct

    • A patient presents with a history of renal problems, generalised weakness and palpitations. Her serum potassium levels are measured and come back at 6.2 mmol/L. An ECG is performed, and it shows some changes that are consistent with hyperkalaemia.
      Which of the following ECG changes is usually the earliest sign of hyperkalaemia? Select ONE answer only.

      Your Answer: Peaked T waves

      Explanation:

      Hyperkalaemia causes a rapid reduction in resting membrane potential leading to increased cardiac depolarisation and muscle excitability. This in turn results in ECG changes which can rapidly progress to ventricular fibrillation or asystole. Very distinctive ECG changes that progressively change as the K+level increases:
      K+>5.5 mmol/l – peaked T waves (usually earliest sign of hyperkalaemia), repolarisation abnormalities
      K+>6.5 mmol/l – P waves widen and flatten, PR segment lengthens, P waves eventually disappear
      K+>7.0 mmol/l – Prolonged QRS interval and bizarre QRS morphology, conduction blocks (bundle branch blocks, fascicular blocks), sinus bradycardia or slow AF, development of a sine wave appearance (a pre-terminal rhythm)
      K+>9.0 mmol/l – Cardiac arrest due to asystole, VF or PEA with a bizarre, wide complex rhythm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal Physiology
      21.2
      Seconds

  • Question 14 - Regarding saliva, which of the following statements is CORRECT: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding saliva, which of the following statements is CORRECT:

      Your Answer: When stimulated, the submandibular glands produce a higher proportion of total saliva than at rest.

      Correct Answer: Saliva production is decreased by inhibition of the parasympathetic nervous system.

      Explanation:

      At rest, saliva is predominantly produced by the submandibular gland (65%) but when stimulated, the parotid glands produce a higher proportion of the total saliva production (50%) than at rest. Saliva is alkaline and hypotonic to plasma. The predominant digestive enzymes in saliva are alpha-amylase and lingual lipase; lingual lipase is not functionally very important, but alpha-amylase is important for the initiation of starch digestion. Saliva production is decreased by inhibition of the parasympathetic nervous system e.g. by sleep, dehydration, anticholinergic drugs and fear.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Physiology
      40.9
      Seconds

  • Question 15 - What is the approximate lifespan of the mature erythrocyte: ...

    Correct

    • What is the approximate lifespan of the mature erythrocyte:

      Your Answer: 120 days

      Explanation:

      Erythrocytes have a normal lifespan of about 120 days. Mature erythrocytes are biconcave discs with no nucleus, ribosomes or mitochondria but with the ability to generate energy as ATP by the anaerobic glycolytic pathway. The red cell membrane consists of a bipolar lipid layer with a membrane skeleton of penetrating and integral proteins anchoring carbohydrate surface antigens. The shape and flexibility of red cells allows them to deform easily and pass through capillaries.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Cellular
      • Physiology
      6.2
      Seconds

  • Question 16 - Which of the following conditions manifests hyperkalaemia as one of its symptoms? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following conditions manifests hyperkalaemia as one of its symptoms?

      Your Answer: Type 1 renal tubular acidosis

      Correct Answer: Congenital adrenal hyperplasia

      Explanation:

      Plasma potassium greater than 5.5 mmol/L is hyperkalaemia or elevated plasma potassium level. Among the causes of hyperkalaemia include congenital adrenal hyperplasia.

      Congenital adrenal hyperplasia is a general term referring to autosomal recessive disorders involving a deficiency of an enzyme needed in cortisol and/or aldosterone synthesis. The level of cortisol and/or aldosterone deficiency affects the clinical manifestations of congenital adrenal hyperplasia. When it involves hypoaldosteronism, it can result in hyponatremia and hyperkalaemia. While hypercortisolism can cause hypoglycaemia.

      The other causes of hyperkalaemia may include renal failure, excess potassium supplementation, Addison’s disease (adrenal insufficiency), renal tubular acidosis (type 4), rhabdomyolysis, burns, trauma, Tumour lysis syndrome, acidosis, and medications such as ACE inhibitors, angiotensin receptor blockers, NSAIDs, beta-blockers, digoxin, and suxamethonium.

      Bartter’s syndrome is characterized by hypokalaemic alkalosis with normal to low blood pressure.

      Type 1 and 2 renal tubular acidosis both cause hypokalaemia.

      Gitelman’s syndrome is a defect of the distal convoluted tubule of the kidney. It causes metabolic alkalosis with hypokalaemia and hypomagnesemia.

      And excessive liquorice ingestion causes hypermineralocorticoidism and hypokalaemia as well. Thus, among the choices, only congenital adrenal hyperplasia can cause hyperkalaemia

      .

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal Physiology
      32
      Seconds

  • Question 17 - For a tachyarrhythmia caused by hypovolaemic shock, which of the following is the...

    Correct

    • For a tachyarrhythmia caused by hypovolaemic shock, which of the following is the first-line treatment:

      Your Answer: Synchronised DC shock

      Explanation:

      If there are any adverse symptoms, immediate cardioversion with synchronized DC shock is recommended. If cardioversion fails to stop the arrhythmia and the symptoms persist, amiodarone 300 mg IV over 10–20 minutes should be administered before attempting another cardioversion. The loading dosage of amiodarone is followed by a 24-hour infusion of 900 mg administered into a large vein.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Pharmacology
      0.7
      Seconds

  • Question 18 - Regarding the phases of gastric secretion, which of the following statements is INCORRECT:...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding the phases of gastric secretion, which of the following statements is INCORRECT:

      Your Answer: The gastric phase is triggered by distension of mechanoreceptors in the stomach wall .

      Correct Answer: A high pH in the stomach inhibits gastrin secretion.

      Explanation:

      A low pH in the stomach inhibits gastrin secretion, therefore when the stomach is empty or when acid has been secreted for some time after food has entered it, there is inhibition of acid secretion. However, when food first enters the stomach, the pH rises, and this leads to release of the inhibition and causes a maximum secretion of gastrin. Thus gastric acid secretion is self-regulating.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Physiology
      36.4
      Seconds

  • Question 19 - Regarding cardiac excitation-contraction coupling, which of the following statements is CORRECT: ...

    Correct

    • Regarding cardiac excitation-contraction coupling, which of the following statements is CORRECT:

      Your Answer: The Treppe effect refers to an increase in contractility secondary to an increase in heart rate.

      Explanation:

      Although Ca2+entry during the action potential (AP) is essential for contraction, it only accounts for about 25% of the rise in intracellular Ca2+. The rest is released from Ca2+stores in the sarcoplasmic reticulum (SR). In relaxation, about 80% of Ca2+is rapidly pumped back into the SR (sequestered) by Ca2+ATPase pumps. The Ca2+that entered the cell during the AP is transported out of the cell primarily by the Na+/Ca2+exchanger in the membrane. When more action potentials occur per unit time, more Ca2+enters the cell during the AP plateau, more Ca2+is stored in the SR, more Ca2+is released from the SR and thus more Ca2+is left inside the cell and greater tension is produced during contraction. Increased heart rate increases the force of contraction in a stepwise fashion as intracellular [Ca2+] increases cumulatively over several beats; this is the Treppe effect. Cardiac glycosides such as digoxin have a positive inotropic effect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      34.4
      Seconds

  • Question 20 - Which of the following does NOT predispose to digoxin toxicity in a patient...

    Correct

    • Which of the following does NOT predispose to digoxin toxicity in a patient taking digoxin:

      Your Answer: Hyponatraemia

      Explanation:

      Hypoxia, hypercalcaemia, hypokalaemia and hypomagnesaemia predispose to digoxin toxicity. Care should also be taken in the elderly who are particularly susceptible to digoxin toxicity. Hypokalaemia may be precipitated by use of diuretics. Although hyponatremia can result in the development of other pathological disturbances, it does not potentiate digoxin toxicity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Pharmacology
      17.9
      Seconds

  • Question 21 - Which one of these equations best defines lung compliance? ...

    Correct

    • Which one of these equations best defines lung compliance?

      Your Answer: Change in volume / change in pressure

      Explanation:

      Lung compliance is defined as change in volume per unit change in distending pressure.

      Lung compliance is calculated using the equation:
      Lung compliance = ΔV / ΔP
      Where:
      ΔV is the change in volume
      ΔP is the change in pleural pressure.

      Static compliance is lung compliance in periods without gas flow, and is calculated using the equation:
      Static compliance = VT / Pplat − PEEP
      Where:
      VT = tidal volume
      Pplat = plateau pressure
      PEEP = positive end-expiratory pressure

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory Physiology
      12.7
      Seconds

  • Question 22 - You examine a child who has been admitted to the paediatric emergency department...

    Correct

    • You examine a child who has been admitted to the paediatric emergency department with a flu-like illness. His parents tell you that he was born with an inborn defect of steroid metabolism and that he was treated for it with hormone replacement therapy.

      Which of the following is classified as a steroid hormone?

      Your Answer: Aldosterone

      Explanation:

      Hormones can be classified into three categories depending on their chemical composition: amines, peptides (and proteins), and steroids. Amines are made up of single amino acids (for example, tyrosine), peptide hormones are made up of peptides (or proteins), and steroid hormones are made up of cholesterol.
      The table below lists some prominent instances of each of these three hormone classes:

      1. Peptide hormone:
      Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)
      Prolactin
      Vasopressin
      Oxytocin
      Glucagon
      Insulin
      Somatostatin
      Cholecystokinin

      2. Amine hormone:
      Adrenaline (epinephrine)
      Noradrenaline (norepinephrine)
      Dopamine

      3. Steroid hormone:
      Mineralocorticoids (e.g. aldosterone)
      Glucocorticoids (e.g. cortisol)
      Progestogens
      Androgens
      Oestrogens

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine Physiology
      • Physiology
      40
      Seconds

  • Question 23 - The flow of ions across a cell membrane causes electrical activity in biological...

    Incorrect

    • The flow of ions across a cell membrane causes electrical activity in biological tissues. Excitable tissues are specialized tissues that may generate a significant electrical signal called an action potential, which is followed by a refractory period.

      Which set of ion channels is responsible for the refractory period?

      Your Answer: Potassium channels

      Correct Answer: Sodium channels

      Explanation:

      A refractory period follows each action potential. The absolute refractory time and the relative refractory period are two divisions of refractory periods. Because the sodium channels seal after an AP, they enter an inactive state during which they cannot be reopened regardless of membrane potential, this time occurs.

      The sodium channels slowly come out of inactivation during the relative refractory period that follows. During this time, a stronger stimulus than that required to initiate an action potential can excite the cell. The strength of the stimulus required early in the relative refractory period is relatively high, and it steadily decreases as more sodium channels recover from the inactivation of the refractory period.

      Nodes of Ranvier are periodic holes in a myelinate axon when there is no myelin and the axonal membrane is exposed. There are no gated ion channels in the portion of the axon covered by the myelin sheath, but there is a high density of ion channels in the Nodes of Ranvier. Action potentials can only occur at the nodes as a result of this.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Cellular Physiology
      • Physiology
      51.5
      Seconds

  • Question 24 - Which of the following is typically used in diabetes mellitus as the cut-off...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is typically used in diabetes mellitus as the cut-off to define hypoglycaemia?

      Your Answer: < 4.0 mmol/L

      Explanation:

      Hypoglycaemia is defined as plasma glucose of less than 4 mmol/L.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine
      • Physiology
      14.6
      Seconds

  • Question 25 - You examine a patient's blood tests and discover that her electrolyte levels are...

    Correct

    • You examine a patient's blood tests and discover that her electrolyte levels are abnormal.

      Which of the following is the major extracellular cation?

      Your Answer: Sodium

      Explanation:

      Electrolytes are compounds that may conduct an electrical current and dissociate in solution. Extracellular and intracellular fluids contain these chemicals. The predominant cation in extracellular fluid is sodium, whereas the major anion is chloride. Potassium is the most abundant cation in the intracellular fluid, while phosphate is the most abundant anion. These electrolytes are necessary for homeostasis to be maintained.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Cellular Physiology
      • Physiology
      14.3
      Seconds

  • Question 26 - About what percentage of filtered Na+is reabsorbed in the loop of Henle: ...

    Correct

    • About what percentage of filtered Na+is reabsorbed in the loop of Henle:

      Your Answer: 25%

      Explanation:

      About 25% of filtered sodium is reabsorbed in the the loop of Henle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal
      19.6
      Seconds

  • Question 27 - Gastrin is secreted by which of the following cell types in the stomach:...

    Correct

    • Gastrin is secreted by which of the following cell types in the stomach:

      Your Answer: G-cells

      Explanation:

      Gastrin is secreted by antral G-cells and acts on cholecystokinin B (CCKB) receptors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Physiology
      6
      Seconds

  • Question 28 - Regarding ACE inhibitors, which of the following statements is CORRECT: ...

    Correct

    • Regarding ACE inhibitors, which of the following statements is CORRECT:

      Your Answer: Angiotensin-II receptor blockers are a useful alternative in patients who cannot tolerate ACE-inhibitors due a persistent cough.

      Explanation:

      ACE inhibitors should be used with caution in patients of Afro-Caribbean descent who may respond less well; calcium channel blockers are first line for hypertension in these patients. ACE inhibitors have a role in the management of diabetic nephropathy. ACE inhibitors are contraindicated in pregnant women. ACE inhibitors inhibit the breakdown of bradykinin; this is the cause of the persistent dry cough. Blocking ACE also diminishes the breakdown of the potent vasodilator bradykinin which is the cause of the persistent dry cough. Angiotensin-II receptor blockers do not have this effect, therefore they are useful alternative for patients who have to discontinue an ACE inhibitor because of persistent cough.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Pharmacology
      30.4
      Seconds

  • Question 29 - Continuous capillaries are typically found where in the body: ...

    Correct

    • Continuous capillaries are typically found where in the body:

      Your Answer: Blood-brain barrier

      Explanation:

      Continuous capillaries, found in the skin, lungs, muscles and CNS, are the most selective with low permeability, as junctions between the endothelial cells are very tight, restricting the flow of molecules with MW > 10,000.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      10.9
      Seconds

  • Question 30 - A 42-year-old male patient, presenting with polyuria and polydipsia symptoms had normal blood...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old male patient, presenting with polyuria and polydipsia symptoms had normal blood test results. Upon interview, he had mentioned being in a car accident in which he had a head injury. His polyuria and polydipsia symptoms are most likely associated with which of the following conditions?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cranial diabetes insipidus

      Explanation:

      Polydipsia is the feeling of extreme thirstiness. It is often linked to polyuria, which is a urinary condition that causes a person to urinate excessively. The cycle of these two processes makes the body feel a constant need to replace the fluids lost in urination. In healthy adults, a 3 liter urinary output per day is considered normal. A person with polyuria can urinate up to 15 liters of urine per day. Both of these conditions are classic signs of diabetes.

      The other options are also types of diabetes, except for psychogenic polydipsia (PPD), which is the excessive volitional water intake seen in patients with severe mental illness or developmental disability. However, given the patient’s previous head injury, the most likely diagnosis is cranial diabetes insipidus.

      By definition, cranial diabetes insipidus is caused by damage to the hypothalamus or pituitary gland after an infection, operation, brain tumor, or head injury. And the patient’s history confirms this diagnosis. To define the other choices, nephrogenic diabetes insipidus happens when the structures in the kidneys are damaged and results in an inability to properly respond to antidiuretic hormone.

      Kidney damage can be caused by an inherited (genetic) disorder or a chronic kidney disorder. As with cranial diabetes insipidus, nephrogenic diabetes insipidus can also cause an elevated urine output.

      Diabetes mellitus is classified into two types, and the main difference between them is that type 1 diabetes is a genetic disorder, and type 2 diabetes is diet-related and develops over time. Type 1 diabetes is also known as insulin-dependent diabetes, in which the pancreas produces little or no insulin. Type 2 diabetes is termed insulin resistance, as cells don’t respond customarily to insulin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal Physiology
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Cardiovascular Physiology (2/2) 100%
Physiology (20/24) 83%
Basic Cellular (3/3) 100%
Cardiovascular (7/7) 100%
Pharmacology (5/5) 100%
Renal (3/3) 100%
Endocrine (3/3) 100%
Gastrointestinal (2/4) 50%
Respiratory Physiology (2/2) 100%
Renal Physiology (1/2) 50%
Endocrine Physiology (1/1) 100%
Basic Cellular Physiology (1/2) 50%
Passmed
Retry this test Dashboard