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Question 1
Correct
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A 60-year-old male presented with ventricular tachycardia which was successfully cardioverted. To check whether he had prolonged QT interval, which of the following is the most appropriate method to measure the QT interval in ECG?
Your Answer: Time between the start of the Q wave and the end of the T wave
Explanation:The QT interval is the time from the start of the Q wave to the end of the T wave. It represents the time taken for ventricular depolarisation and repolarisation. The QT interval should be measured in either lead II or V5-6.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 2
Correct
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A 60-year-old male smoker and a known hypertensive presented with central chest pain radiating to the back. On examination he was tachycardic and hypotensive. His ECG showed inferior ST elevation and his transoesophageal echocardiogram showed a double lumen in the ascending aorta. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Dissecting aortic aneurysm
Explanation:The classic history in this high risk patient is suggestive of a dissecting aortic aneurysm. His transoesophageal echocardiogram confirms the diagnosis. ST elevation in ECG is probably due to the extension of the dissection of the aorta which results in compromised coronary blood supply.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 3
Correct
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The conductive system of the heart anatomically includes the:
Your Answer: Atrioventricular node
Explanation:The cardiac conduction system is a collection of nodes and specialised cells including the:
Sinoatrial node
Atrioventricular node
Atrioventricular bundle (bundle of His)
Purkinje fibres -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 4
Correct
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Which of the following is not associated with right axis deviation?
Your Answer: Wolf-Parkinson-White syndrome with right-sided accessory pathway
Explanation:Causes for right axis deviation:
-Right ventricular hypertrophy and Left posterior fascicular block
-Lateral myocardial infarction.
-Acute or chronic lung diseases: Pulmonary embolism, pulmonary hypertension, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), cor pulmonale.
-Congenital heart disease (e.g., dextrocardia, secundum atrial septal defect).
-Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome.
-Ventricular ectopic rhythms (e.g., ventricular tachycardia). -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 13-year-old girl is brought by her mother to the A&E with breathlessness, fatigue and palpitations. Anamnesis does not reveal any syncope or chest pain in the past. on the other hand, these symptoms were present intermittently for a year. Clinical examination reveals a pan-systolic murmur associated with giant V waves in the jugular venous pulse. Chest auscultation and resting ECG are normal. 24 hour ECG tape shows a short burst of supraventricular tachycardia. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Arrhythmogenic right ventricular cardiomyopathy
Correct Answer: Ebstein's anomaly
Explanation:Ebstein’s anomaly is characterised by apical displacement and adherence of the septal and posterior leaflets of the tricuspid valve to the underlying myocardium, thereby displacing the functional tricuspid orifice apically and dividing the right ventricle into two portions. The main haemodynamic abnormality leading to symptoms is tricuspid valve incompetence. The clinical spectrum is broad; patients may be asymptomatic or experience right-sided heart failure, cyanosis, arrhythmias and sudden cardiac death (SCD). Many Ebstein’s anomaly patients have an interatrial communication (secundum atrial septal defect (ASD II) or patent foramen ovale). Other structural anomalies may also be present, including a bicuspid aortic valve (BAV), ventricular septal defect (VSD), and pulmonary stenosis. The morphology of the tricuspid valve in Ebstein anomaly, and consequently the clinical presentation, is highly variable. The tricuspid valve leaflets demonstrate variable degrees of failed delamination (separation of the valve tissue from the myocardium) with fibrous attachments to the right ventricular endocardium.
The displacement of annular attachments of septal and posterior (inferior) leaflets into the right ventricle toward the apex and right ventricular outflow tract is the hallmark finding of Ebstein anomaly. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 62-year-old obese female presented with dilated veins over the lateral aspect of her right ankle. Which of the following is most responsible for her presentation?
Your Answer: Long saphenous vein
Correct Answer: Short saphenous vein
Explanation:Varicose veins (venous insufficiency syndrome) are dilated, tortuous veins due to reverse venous flow. All the given veins can be affected from this condition. As the patient has varicose veins over lateral aspect of ankle, the short saphenous vein is affected. The great or long saphenous vein travels along the medial aspect of the ankle
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 7
Correct
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A 65-year-old male presented with acute ST elevation myocardial infarction and thrombolysis was planned. Which of the following is an absolute contraindication for thrombolysis?
Your Answer: Intracerebral Haemorrhage
Explanation:Absolute contraindications for fibrinolytic use in STEMI
Prior intracranial haemorrhage (ICH)
Known structural cerebral vascular lesion
Known malignant intracranial neoplasm
Ischemic stroke within 3 months
Suspected aortic dissection
Active bleeding or bleeding diathesis (excluding menses)
Significant closed head trauma or facial trauma within 3 months
Intracranial or intraspinal surgery within 2 months
Severe uncontrolled hypertension (unresponsive to emergency therapy)
For streptokinase, prior treatment within the previous 6 months -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 8
Incorrect
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Which of the following is not an indication for an implantable cardiac defibrillator?
Your Answer: Previous myocardial infarction with non-sustained VT on 24 hr monitoring
Correct Answer: Wolff-Parkinson White syndrome
Explanation:Class I indications (i.e., the benefit greatly outweighs the risk, and the treatment should be administered): -Structural heart disease, sustained VT
-Syncope of undetermined origin, inducible VT or VF at electrophysiologic study (EPS)
-Left ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF) ≤35% due to prior MI, at least 40 days post-MI, NYHA class II or III
-LVEF ≤35%, NYHA class II or III
-LVEF ≤30% due to prior MI, at least 40 days post-MI
-LVEF ≤40% due to prior MI, inducible VT or VF at EPSClass IIa indications (i.e., the benefit outweighs the risk and it is reasonable to administer the treatment):
-Unexplained syncope, significant LV dysfunction, nonischaemic cardiomyopathy
-Sustained VT, normal or near-normal ventricular function
-Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy with 1 or more major risk factors
-Arrhythmogenic right ventricular dysplasia/cardiomyopathy (ARVD/C) with 1 or more risk factors for sudden cardiac death (SCD)
-Long QT syndrome, syncope or VT while receiving beta-blockers
-Nonhospitalized patients awaiting heart transplant
-Brugada syndrome, syncope or VT
-Catecholaminergic polymorphic VT, syncope or VT while receiving beta-blockers
-Cardiac sarcoidosis, giant cell myocarditis, or Chagas disease -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 9
Correct
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A 54-year-old man presents to the physician complaining of chest pain and fever. He underwent hemicolectomy a few days back. Echocardiography is done which shows a systolic murmur. Which other investigation would be required?
Your Answer: Blood culture
Explanation:Infective endocarditis (IE) is an infectious inflammation of the endocardium that affects the heart valves. The condition is a result of bacteraemia, which is most commonly caused by dental procedures, surgery, distant primary infections, and nonsterile injections. IE clinically presents with either an acute or subacute course. Acute disease is usually caused by Staphylococcus aureus and causes rapid endocardium destruction. Subacute progression is most commonly caused by viridans streptococci species and generally affects individuals with pre-existing damage to the heart valves, structural heart defects, or the presence of prosthetic valves. Clinical features include constitutional symptoms (fatigue, fever/chills, malaise) in combination with signs of pathological cardiac changes (e.g., new or changed heart murmur, heart failure signs) and possibly manifestations of subsequent damage to other organs (e.g., glomerulonephritis, septic embolic stroke). Diagnosis is made based on the Duke criteria, whose main features include positive blood cultures and evidence of endocardial involvement in echocardiography. Initial treatment of IE consists of empiric IV antibiotic therapy, which is then adapted to blood culture results and continued for four to six weeks. Prophylaxis is only administered in specific circumstances, e.g., in patients with pre-existing heart conditions undergoing dental or surgical procedures. If left untreated, infective endocarditis can be fatal within a few weeks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 10
Correct
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A 54-year-old female presents with shortness of breath that has been going on for the last 10 months. Physical examination shows that she has an irregularly irregular pulse and a loud P2 with fixed splitting accompanied by a systolic ejection murmur in the 2nd left intercostal space. Which of the following would be the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Atrial septal defect (ASD)
Explanation:Atrial septal defect (ASD) is one of the more commonly recognized congenital cardiac anomalies presenting in adulthood. ASD is characterized by a defect in the interatrial septum allowing pulmonary venous return from the left atrium to pass directly to the right atrium. Depending on the size of the defect, size of the shunt, and associated anomalies, this can result in a spectrum of disease ranging from no significant cardiac sequelae to right-sided volume overload, pulmonary arterial hypertension, and even atrial arrhythmias.
With the routine use of echocardiography, the detection and, therefore, the incidence of ASD is increased compared to earlier incidence studies using catheterization, surgery, or autopsy for diagnosis. The subtle physical examination findings and often minimal symptoms during the first 2-3 decades of life contribute to a delay in diagnosis until adulthood, the majority (more than 70%) of which is detected by the fifth decade of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 11
Incorrect
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Which of the following is not associated with atrial myxoma?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: J wave on ECG
Explanation:J waves in an ECG is associated with hypothermia, hypercalcemia, the Brugada syndrome, and idiopathic ventricular fibrillation. The other responses are all associated with atrial myxoma
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 9-year-old boy with central cyanosis underwent cardiac catheterization. His study results were given below
Right atrium 7 mmHg Saturation 60 %
Right ventricle 110/6 mmHg Saturation 55 %
Pulmonary artery 20/5 mmHg Saturation 55 %
Left atrium (mean) 9 mmHg Saturation 98 %
Left ventricle 110/80 mmHg Saturation 87 %
Aorta 110/80 mmHg Saturation 76 %
Which the following abnormalities are present in this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pulmonary stenosis
Explanation:The overall diagnosis is Fallot’s tetralogy. Ventricular septal defect with left to right shunt is indicated by drop of oxygen saturation from left atrium to left ventricle. Pulmonary stenosis is indicated by the pressure difference between the pulmonary artery and the right atrium. There is oxygen saturation drop from the left ventricle to the aorta which can be due to the overriding aorta.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 59-year-old man experienced an acute chest pain, which lasted for 45 mins whilst he was driving. The pain was located centrally and was accompanied by cold sweats and difficulty in speaking. History reveals he is a T1DM patient who's been on antihypertensive medication for 13 years. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Myocardial infarction
Explanation:The patient is diabetic and at major risk for an MI. The duration and location of the pain, the cold sweats and the difficulty in speaking suggest an MI. Pericarditis pain worsens upon inspiration or in a supine position. Patients usually lean forward to relieve the pain. (antalgic position). Pneumothorax pain is pleuritic in regards to location. Pulmonary embolism is accompanied by dyspnoea and pleuritic pain. Costochondritis pain is localized at the costochondral junction and it worsens with movements of the chest such as coughing or sneezing.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old girl's ECG revealed a normal PR interval and QRS while the QT is prolonged. History reveals she has been having frequent fainting attacks since childhood. What is the cause of these syncopal attacks?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Torsade de pointes
Explanation:Patients with a long QT wave syndrome are prone to recurrent syncope if they have Torsade’s de pointes since it degenerates into fibrillation of the ventricles.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old previously well male patient was admitted with acute severe central chest pain associated with excessive sweating and nausea for the past 45 minutes. On examination he was found to have xanthelasma. His blood pressure was 170/100 mmHg and pulse rate was 104 bpm. His ECG showed ST elevation more than 2mm in leads II, III and aVF. His troponin T was 120 ng/ml. His FBC and renal functions were normal. He was given aspirin, clopidogrel, morphine and IV 5 mg of atenolol. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Immediate referral to cardiologist for primary angioplasty
Explanation:The diagnosis is acute inferior ST elevation myocardial infarction so the most appropriate management is primary angioplasty.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man underwent temporary transvenous pacing. While in the coronary care unit he developed presyncope. His pulse rate was 30 bpm. His ECG showed pacing spikes which were not related to QRS complexes. What is the most appropriate action that can be taken?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Increase the pacing voltage to a maximum
Explanation:Pacemaker spikes on the ECG indicate that pacemaker is functioning. The most probable cause for this presentation is the change of the position of the tip of the pacing wire. Increasing the voltage will solve the problem. If it works, repositioning of the pacing wire should be done.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old male was brought in with a history of a stab injury to left chest. He was complaining of chest pain. On examination he was tachycardic, hypotensive and had an elevated JVP, pulsus paradoxus and muffled heart sounds. Respiratory examination was unremarkable. Which of the following is most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cardiac tamponade
Explanation:Becks triad (hypotension, elevated systemic venous pressure, often with jugular venous distention and muffled heart sounds) is a characteristic collection of clinical findings found in cardiac tamponade. Pulsus paradoxus is also associated with it. The history and clinical findings in this scenario are compatible with the diagnosis of cardica tamponade. The normal respiratory examination excludes tension pneumothorax.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old man presented with severe central chest pain for the last 2 hours. He was on insulin for diabetes mellitus and he was dependent on haemodialysis because of end stage renal failure. He had undergone haemodialysis 48 hours prior to this presentation. His ECG showed an acute inferior myocardial infarction. Despite thrombolysis and other appropriate treatment, he continued to have chest pain after 6 hours from the initial presentation. His blood pressure was 88/54 mmHg and he had bibasal crepitations. His investigation results are given below.
Serum sodium 140 mmol/l (137-144)
Serum potassium 6.6 mmol/l (3.5-4.9)
Serum urea 50 mmol/l (2.5-7.5)
Serum creatinine 940 μmol/l (60-110)
Haemoglobin 10.2g/dl (13.0-18.0)
Troponin T >24 g/l (<0.04)
Left ventricular ejection fraction was 20%
What is the most appropriate management for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Coronary angiography and rescue PCI
Explanation:According to the history the patient has cardiogenic shock and pulmonary oedema. On-going ischaemia is indicated by persisting symptoms. So the most appropriate management is coronary angiography and rescue PCI. There are no indications for blood transfusion at this moment and it will aggravate the pulmonary oedema. Haemodialysis, beta blockers and furosemide cannot be given due to low blood pressure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 36-year-old patient who is a known IV drug abuser presented with complaints of sudden onset of sharp excruciating chest pain, which increases on inspiration and is relieved by bending forward. He also complained of shortness of breath for the last few months. The most likely diagnosis would be?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pericarditis
Explanation:The chief symptoms of pericarditis comprise of sudden onset of sharp chest pain, that is relieved by bending forward and is exacerbated by deep inspiration. Symptoms can vary among the individuals but these are the chief symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 41-year-old male was involved in a fight and received a stab wound in the left 4th intercostal space. He was transferred to ER immediately with a BP 80/40 and HR 125. On examination, his neck veins are dilated and his heart sounds are faint. His trachea is central. What is the SINGLE most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cardiac tamponade
Explanation:The cardinal symptom of the cardiac tamponade is a shocked patient with tachycardia and congested neck veins.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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