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Question 1
Correct
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A 28-year-old woman presents in early labour. She is healthy and at full-term.
Her pregnancy has progressed well without any complications.
She indicates that she would like to have a cardiotocograph (CTG) to assess her baby as she has read about its use for foetal monitoring during labour.
What advice would you give her while counselling her regarding the use of CTG compared to intermittent auscultation during labour and delivery?Your Answer: There is no evidence to support admission CTG.
Explanation:In high-risk pregnancies, continuous monitoring of foetal heart rate is considered mandatory.
However, in low-risk pregnancies, cardiotocograph (CTG) monitoring provides no benefits over intermittent auscultation.
A significant issue with CTG monitoring is that apparent abnormalities are identified that usually have minimal clinical significance, but can prompt the use of several obstetric interventions such as instrumental deliveries and Caesarean section. In low risk patients, such interventions may not even be required.
CTG monitoring has not been shown to reduce the incidence of cerebral palsy or other neonatal developmental abnormalities, nor does it accurately predict previous foetal oxygenation status unless the CTG is significantly abnormal when it is first connected.
Similarly, CTG cannot accurately predict current foetal oxygenation unless the readings are severely abnormal.
Therefore, there is no evidence to support routine admission CTG (correct answer).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 2
Correct
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A 21-year old female, gravida 1 para 0, term pregnancy, comes in due to labour for eight hours. Two hours prior to onset of contractions, her membranes have allegedly ruptured. Fetal heart rate is at 144/min. Contractions are of good quality, noted every 2-3 minutes, with a duration of 45 seconds. On examination, her cervix is fully dilated and the patient has been pushing all throughout. Vertex is palpated in the occipito-anterior (OA) position and has descended to station 2 cm below the ischial spines in the previous hour. Which of the following most likely depicts the current condition of the patient?
Your Answer: Normal progress.
Explanation:The patient’s condition can be described as a normal progress of labour. The scenario shows a normal descent of the head in the pelvic cavity, with a favourable position, and occurring within an hour of the second stage of labour. A normal second stage of labour in a nulliparous individual occurs at a maximum of two hours, which is consistent with this patient. Hence, there is no delay in the second stage.
There is evident progress of labour in this patient, hence, obstructed labour or cephalopelvic disproportion is ruled out.
No signs of maternal distress such as tachycardia or pyrexia is described in this patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 3
Correct
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A 32-year-old woman, gravida 2 para 1, at 40 weeks gestation is admitted to the hospital due to contractions and spontaneous rupture of membranes. Patient underwent a cesarean delivery with her first child due to breech presentation, but this pregnancy has been uncomplicated. She has no chronic medical conditions and is taking only a prenatal vitamin.
Her pre-pregnancy BMI was 20 kg/m2 and she has gained 15.9 kg (35 lb) during pregnancy. On examination her blood pressure is found to be 130/80 mm Hg.
The patient is admitted and epidural anesthesia is administered with an intrauterine pressure catheter in place. She quickly dilates to 10 cm with the fetal vertex at 0 station, occiput transverse. Four hours later, the pelvic examination is unchanged but there is molding and caput on the fetal head. Fetal monitoring is category I. Contractions occur every 2-3 minutes and the patient pushes with each contraction. The contraction strength is an average of 210 MVU every 10 minutes.
Which among the following is most likely the etiology for this patient’s clinical presentation?Your Answer: Fetal malposition
Explanation:Condition where there is insufficient fetal descent after pushing for ≥3 hours in nulliparous and ≥2 hours if multiparous women is defined as Second stage arrest of labor. Common risk factors for this presentation are maternal obesity, excessive weight gain during pregnancy and diabetes mellitus. Cephalopelvic disproportion, malposition, inadequate contractions and maternal exhaustion are the common etiologies of Second stage arrest of labor. Management includes Operative vaginal delivery or cesarean delivery as indicated in the case.
The second stage of labor begins with the dilatation of cervix to 10 cm and will end with fetal delivery. Parity and use of neuraxial anesthesia are the two factors which will affect the duration of second stage of labor and fetal station, which measures the descent of the fetal head through the pelvis determines its progression.
When there is no fetal descent after pushing for ≥3 hours or ≥2 hours in in nulliparous and multiparous patients respectively the condition is called an arrested second stage of labor. As her first delivery was a cesarean session due to breech presentation, this patient in the case is considered as nulliparous.
Most common cause of a protracted or arrested second stage is fetal malposition, which is the relation between the fetal presenting part to the maternal pelvis. Occiput anterior is the optimal fetal position as it facilitates the cardinal movements of labor, any deviations from this position like in occiput transverse position, can lead to cephalopelvic disproportion resulting in second stage arrest.
Inadequate contractions, that is less than 200 MVU averaged over 10 minutes, can lead to labor arrest but contractions are adequate in case of the patient mentioned.
Second stage arrest can be due to maternal obesity and excessive weight gain during pregnancy but this patient had a normal pre-pregnancy BMI of 20 kg/m2 and an appropriate weight gain of 15.9 kg 35 lb. So this also cannot be the reason.Maternal expulsive efforts will change the fetal skull shape. This process called as molding helps to facilitate delivery by changing the fetal head into the shape of the pelvis. Whereas prolonged pressure on head can result in scalp edema which is called as caput, presence of both molding and caput suggest cephalopelvic disproportion, but is not suggestive of poor maternal effort.
Patients with a prior history of uterine myomectomy or cesarean delivery are at higher risk for uterine rupture. In cases of uterine rupture, the patient will present with fetal heart rate abnormalities, sudden loss of fetal station (eg, going from +1 to −3 station) along with fetal retreat upward and into the abdominal cavity through the uterine scar due to decreased intrauterine pressure. In the given case patient’s fetal heart rate tracing is category 1 and fetal station has remained 0 which are non suggestive of uterine rupture.
When there is insufficient fetal descent after pushing ≥3 hours in nulliparous patients or ≥2 hours in multiparous patients is considered as second stage arrest of labor. The most common cause of second stage arrest is cephalopelvic disproportion, were the fetus presents in a nonocciput anterior position called as fetal malposition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 4
Correct
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During difficult labour, mediolateral episiotomy is favoured to midline episiotomy because?
Your Answer: Less extension of the incision
Explanation:Mediolateral episiotomy is favoured to midline episiotomy because there is less extension of the incision and decreased chances of injury to the anal sphincter and rectum.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 5
Correct
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A 21-year-old woman has been stable on medicating with lamotrigine after developing epilepsy 2 years ago. She is planning to conceive but is concerned about what her medications may do to her baby.
Which of the following is considered to reduce the incidence of neural tube defects?Your Answer: High dose folic acid for one month before conception and during first trimester
Explanation:CDC urges all women of reproductive age to take 400 micrograms (mcg) of folic acid each day, in addition to consuming food with folate from a varied diet, to help prevent some major birth defects of the baby’s brain (anencephaly) and spine (spina bifida).
The use of lamotrigine during pregnancy has not been associated with an increased risk of neural tube defects; however, the recommendation regarding higher doses of folic acid supplementation is often, but not always, broadened to include women taking any anticonvulsant, including lamotrigine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 43-year-old multigravida woman (gravida 4, para 3) presents with severe varicose veins in her legs and vulva.
She is 28 weeks pregnant and reports that she feels quite uncomfortable due to the varicose veins.
She has never had a similar problem in her previous pregnancies.
What is the best method to provide symptomatic relief to this woman?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Surgical ligation and stripping of the affected veins.
Explanation:The best method to provide symptomatic relief to this woman is to use pressure stockings and a vulval pad (correct answer). This will provide relief without causing any adverse effects.
In order to prevent ulceration, care is required to avoid trauma.
Since the patient is pregnant, surgical ligation or injecting of sclerosing solutions cannot be considered and are contraindicated.
Development of varices is often exacerbated in subsequent pregnancies; and therefore surgery should be eschewed until child-bearing is complete,
Bed rest in hospital would reduce the symptoms of the varicose veins; however this should be avoided as it can increase the risk of developing deep vein thrombosis.
Anticoagulant therapy has not been shown to be beneficial for treatment of varicosities that only affect the superficial venous system and should therefore not be used.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old female at 28 weeks of pregnancy presented with heavy vaginal bleeding. On examination, she was tachycardic, hypotensive and her uterus was tender. She was resuscitated. Which of following is the most important investigation to arrive at a diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: US
Explanation:The presentation is antepartum haemorrhage. Ultrasound should be performed to find the reason for bleeding and assess the fetal well being.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 33-year-old nulliparous pregnant female at the 21st week of pregnancy came to the gynaecological clinic for evaluation of vulval ulcer. A swab was taken revealing the herpes simplex type 2 virus. There is no prior history of such lesions and her partners of the last decade had no history of the infection. She's anxious about how she got the condition and the potential consequences for her and her unborn kid. Which of the following suggestions is the most appropriate?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The primary infection is commonly asymptomatic.
Explanation:Despite the fact that this question includes many true-false options, the knowledge examined is particularly essential in the treatment of women who have genital herpes.
It answers many of the questions that such women have regarding the disease, how it spreads, how it may be controlled, and how it affects an unborn or recently born child.
All of these issues must be addressed in a counselling question.
Currently, the most prevalent type of genital herpes is type 1, while in the past, type 2 was more common, as confirmed by serology testing.
Type 2 illness is nearly always contracted through sexual contact, but it can go undetected for years.
Acyclovir can be taken during pregnancy, and there are particular reasons for its usage.
Neonatal herpes is most usually diagnosed when the newborn has no cutaneous lesions, and past genital herpes in the mother is protective against neonatal infection, although not always.
Where the genital infection is the initial sign of the disease rather than a relapse of earlier disease, neonatal herpes is far more frequent.
Many patients and doctors are unaware that, while the original infection might be deadly, it is usually asymptomatic.
This explains how the illness spreads between sexual partners when neither has had any previous symptoms of the disease. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 21-year-old primigravida female presents to the emergency department at 41 weeks gestation.
She complains of a nine hour history of irregular painful contractions.
On examination of her pelvis, her cervix is fully effaced, but only 2 - 3 cm dilated. The fetal head is at the level of the ischial spines in a left occipito-posterior (LOP) position. The membranes ruptured an hour ago.
What would be the best next line of management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oxytocic (Syntocinon4) infusion.
Explanation:The best next line of management is to administer an oxytocic (Syntocinon) infusion.
This is because the progress of labour is slow, and it necessary to augment it. As the membranes have already ruptured, the next step is to increase the contractions and induce labour using an infusion of oxytocic (Syntocinon) infusion.
Extra fluid is also required, but this will be administered alongside the Syntocinon infusion.
A lumbar epidural block is indicated in patients with an occipito-posterior (OP) position. This should not be attempted until more pain relief is required and the progress of labour is reassessed.
A Caesarean section may be necessary due to obstructed labour or fetal distress, it is not indicated at this stage.
Taking blood and holding it in case cross-matching is ultimately required is common, but most patients do not have blood cross-matched prophylactically in case there is a need to be delivered by Caesarean section and require a transfusion.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 35 year old primigravida was in labour for 24 hours and delivered after an induction. She developed postpartum haemorrhage. Which of the following is the most likely cause for PPH?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Atonic uterus
Explanation:Uterine atony and failure of contraction and retraction of myometrial muscle fibres can lead to rapid and severe haemorrhage and hypovolemic shock. Poor myometrial contraction can result from fatigue due to prolonged labour or rapid forceful labour, especially if stimulated.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 23-year-old woman, G1PO comes to your clinic at 12 week of pregnancy. She is complaining of mild vaginal bleeding for the past 12 hours, along with bouts of mild cramping lower abdominal pain.
On vaginal examination, the cervical os is closed with mild discharge containing blood clots and an ultrasonography confirms the presence of a live fetus with normal heart rate.
Which among of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Threatened abortion
Explanation:Uterine bleeding in the presence of a closed cervix along with sonographic visualization of an intrauterine pregnancy with detectable fetal cardiac activity are diagnostic of threatened abortion.
Abortion does not always follow a uterine bleeding in early pregnancy, sometimes not even after repeated episodes or large amounts of bleeding, that is why the term “threatened” is used in this case. In about 90 to 96% cases, the pregnancy continues after vaginal bleeding if occured in the presence of a closed os and a detectable fetal heart rate. Also as the gestational age advances its less likely the condition will end in miscarriage.
In cases of inevitable abortion, there will be dilatation of cervix along with progressive uterine bleeding and painful uterine contractions. The gestational tissue can be either felt or seen through the cervical os and the passage of this tissue occurs within a short time.
In case were the membranes have ruptured, partly expelling the products of conception with a significant amounts of placental tissue left in the uterus is called as incomplete abortion. During the late first and early second trimesters this will be the most common presentation of an abortion. Examination findings of this includes an open cervical os with gestational tissues observed in the cervix and a uterine size smaller than expected for gestational age and a partially contracted uterus. The amount of bleeding will vary but can be severe enough to cause hypovolemic shock, with painful contractions and an ultrasound revealing tissues in the uterus.
An in utero death of the embryo or fetus prior to 20 weeks of gestation is called as a missed abortion. In this case the women may notice that the symptoms associated with early pregnancy like nausea, breast tenderness, etc have disappeared and they don’t ‘feel pregnant’ anymore. Vaginal bleeding may occur but the cervix remains closed and the ultrasound done reveals an intrauterine gestational sac with or without an embryonic/fetal pole, but no embryonic/fetal cardiac activity will be noticed.
In case of complete abortion, miscarriage occurs before the 12th week and the entire contents of conception will be expelled out of uterus. If this case, the physical examination will show a small and well contracted uterus with an open or closed cervix. There is scant vaginal bleeding with only mild cramping and ultrasound will reveal an empty uterus without any extra-uterine pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A woman in early pregnancy is worried because of several small raised nodules on the areola of both breasts. There are no other findings. Your immediate management should be:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reassurance after thorough examination
Explanation:The correct answer is reassurance after thorough examination. Most breast lesions diagnosed during pregnancy and lactation, even some specific ones such as lactation and adenoma galactocele, are benign. The diagnosis of breast cancer, which is difficult to elucidate and is less common among women who are pregnant or lactating than among those of the same age who are not, continues to be a challenge for clinicians.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 13
Incorrect
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The softening of the cervical isthmus that occurs early in gestation is called:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hegar's sign
Explanation:Hegar’s sign: softening of womb (uterus) due to its increased blood supply, perceptible on gentle finger pressure on the neck (cervix). This is one of the confirmatory signs of pregnancy and is usually obvious by the 16th week.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 22-year-old woman, G1P0, comes to your clinic at the 12th week of her pregnancy, complaining of a mild vaginal bleeding since last 12 hours along with mild but periodic pain.
On vaginal examination, cervical os is found to be closed with mild discharge which contains blood clots. Ultrasound performed confirms the presence of a live fetus with normal foetal heart sound.
What among the following will be the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Threatened miscarriage
Explanation:The case is most likely diagnosed a threatened miscarriage.
A diagnosis of threatened miscarriage is made when there is uterine bleeding in the presence of a closed cervix and is confirmed by the sonographic visualisation of an intrauterine pregnancy with detectable fetal cardiac activity. Miscarriages may not always follow even though there was multiple episodes or large amounts of bleeding, therefore the term “threatened” is used in these cases.
At 7 to 11 weeks of gestation, about 90 to 96 percent cases of pregnancies, will not usually miscarry if they have presented with an intact fetal cardiac activity along with vaginal bleeding and if bleeding occurs at the later weeks of gestational age chances of success rate is higher.Topic review:
– Inevitable miscarriages presents with a dilated cervix, increasing uterine bleeding and painful uterine contractions. The gestational tissues can often be felt or seen through the cervical os and its passage occurs within a short time.
– In Incomplete miscarriage, the membranes will rupture passing the fetus out, but significant amounts of placental tissue will be retained. This occurs most commonly in late first trimester or early second trimester. On examination, the cervical os will be opened and the gestational tissue can be observed in the cervix, with a uterine size smaller than expected for gestational age, but not well contracted. The amount of bleeding varies but can be severe enough to cause hypovolemic shock. There will be painful cramps
ontractions and ultrasound reveals tissue in the uterus.
– A missed miscarriage refers to the in-utero death of the embryo or fetus prior to 20th week of gestation, with retention of the pregnancy for a prolonged period of time. In this case, women may notice that symptoms associated with early pregnancy like nausea, breast tenderness, etc have abated and they don’t “feel pregnant” anymore.
Vaginal bleeding may occur but the cervix usually remains closed. Ultrasound reveals an intrauterine gestational sac with or without an embryonic/fetal pole, but no embryonic/fetal cardiac activity will be noticed.
– Complete miscarriage, usually occurs before 12 weeks of gestation and the entire contents of the uterus will be expelled resulting in a complete miscarriage. In this case, physical examination reveals a small, well contracted uterus with an open or closed cervix with scanty vaginal bleeding and mild cramping. Ultrasound will reveal an empty uterus with no extra-uterine gestation. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman presented to the emergency department with complaints of abdominal pain and nausea. She noted that her symptoms began 2 days ago but has severely increased over the last 3 hours. It was also noted that the patient has passed several vaginal blood clots in the last hour.
Upon history taking, it was noted that she has a history of irregular menstrual cycles and is not sure of the date of her last period. Two years ago, she was diagnosed with a bicornuate uterus during an infertility evaluation. Aside from these, the patient has no other medical conditions and has no past surgeries.
Further examination was done and the following are her results:
BMI is 28 kg/m2
Blood pressure is 90/56mmHg
Pulse is 120/min
An abdominal examination was performed and revealed guarding with decreased bowel sounds. Speculum examination also revealed moderate bleeding with clots from the cervix. Her urine pregnancy test result turned out positive. A transvaginal ultrasound was performed and revealed a gestational sac at the upper left uterine cornu and free fluid in the posterior cul-de-sac of the pelvis.
Which of the following is considered the next step in best managing the patient's condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Surgical exploration
Explanation:Ectopic pregnancy is a known complication of pregnancy that can carry a high rate of morbidity and mortality when not recognized and treated promptly. It is essential that providers maintain a high index of suspicion for an ectopic in their pregnant patients as they may present with pain, vaginal bleeding, or more vague complaints such as nausea and vomiting. Ectopic pregnancy, in essence, is the implantation of an embryo outside of the uterine cavity most commonly in the fallopian tube.
Providers should identify any known risk factors for ectopic pregnancy in their patient’s history, such as if a patient has had a prior confirmed ectopic pregnancy, known fallopian tube damage (history of pelvic inflammatory disease, tubal surgery, known obstruction), or achieved pregnancy through infertility treatment.
Performance of laparoscopic surgery is safe and effective treatment modalities in hemodynamically stable women with a non-ruptured ectopic pregnancy.
Patients with relatively low hCG levels would benefit from the single-dose methotrexate protocol. Patients with higher hCG levels may necessitate two-dose regimens. There is literature suggestive that methotrexate treatment does not have adverse effects on ovarian reserve or fertility. hCG levels should be trended until a non-pregnancy level exists post-methotrexate administration.
Surgical management is necessary when the patients demonstrate any of the following: an indication of intraperitoneal bleeding, symptoms suggestive of ongoing ruptured ectopic mass, or hemodynamically instability. Women who present early in pregnancy and have testing suggestive of an ectopic pregnancy would jeopardize the viability of an intrauterine pregnancy if given Methotrexate. The patient may have a cervical ectopic pregnancy and would thus run the risk of haemorrhage and potential hemodynamic instability if a dilation and curettage are performed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 16
Incorrect
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Which statement given below is correct regarding the management of deep venous thrombosis during pregnancy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Warfarin therapy is contraindicated throughout pregnancy but safe during breast feeding
Explanation:Pregnancy is considered as a hypercoagulable state with an increased risk for the development of conditions like deep venous thrombosis (DVT) and pulmonary embolism (PE). Among these two PE is the considered the most significant cause for maternal death in Australia.
A pregnant women with venous thromboembolism should be treated with heparin as warfarin is contraindicated. Warfarin should be avoided throughout pregnancy and especially during the first and third trimesters of pregnancy as it crosses the placenta. Intake of warfarin at 6-12 weeks of pregnancy can results in fetal warfarin syndrome which is characterised by:
– A characteristic nasal hypoplasia
– Short fingers with hypoplastic nails
– Calcified epiphyses, namely chondrodysplasia punctuta which is evident by stippling of epiphyses on X-ray.
– Intellectual disability
– Low birth weight
Recent studies show that the risk of fetal warfarin syndrome is around 5 % more in babies of women who require warfarin throughout pregnancy and the risk is always dose dependent.
Later exposure to warfarin, as in after 12 weeks, is mostly associated with central nervous system anomalies like microcephaly, hydrocephalus, agenesis of corpus callosum, Dandy-Walker malformation which is characterised by complete absence of cerebellar vermis along with enlarged fourth ventricle and mental retardation. Eye anomalies such as optic atrophy, microphthalmia, and Peter anomaly which is the dysgenesis of the anterior segment are also found in association. Newborns exposed to warfarin in all three trimesters are prone to present with blindness. Other complications found in neonates exposed to warfarin are perinatal intracranial hemorrhage and other major bleeding episodes.Warfarin is not secreted into the breast milk and is so safe to use during the postpartum period.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 33-year-old woman at 37 weeks of gestation presented to the emergency department due to breech presentation which was confirmed on ultrasound. There is also a failed external cephalic version.
Which of the following is considered the most appropriate next step in managing the patient's condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Elective caesarean delivery at 38 weeks of gestation
Explanation:Breech presentation refers to the foetus in the longitudinal lie with the buttocks or lower extremity entering the pelvis first.
The current recommendation for the breech presentation at term includes offering external cephalic version (ECV) to those patients that meet criteria, and for those whom are not candidates or decline external cephalic version, a planned caesarean section for delivery sometime after 39 weeks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old woman in her 36 weeks of gestation, presents for her planned antenatal appointment.
On examination her blood pressure is 150/90 mmHg, in two consecutive readings 5 minutes apart.
Which among the following statements is true regarding gestational hypertension and pre-eclampsia?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pre-eclampsia involves other features in addition to the presence of hypertension
Explanation:Pre-eclampsia presents with other features in addition to the presence of hypertension, also it’s diagnosis cannot be made considered peripheral edema as the only presenting symptom. Proteinuria occurs more commonly in pre-eclampsia than in gestational hypertension and the latter is mostly asymptomatic.
Hypertensive disorders are found to complicate about 10% of all pregnancies. Common one among them is Gestational hypertension, which is defined as the new onset of hypertension after 20 weeks of gestation without any maternal or fetal features of pre-eclampsia, in this case BP will return to normal within three months of postpartum.
Types of hypertensive disorders during pregnancy:
1. Pregnancy-induced hypertension:
a. Systolic blood pressure (SBP) above 140 mm of Hg and diastolic hypertension above 90 mmHg occurring for the first time after the 20th week of pregnancy, which regresses postpartum.
b. The rise in systolic blood pressure above 25 mm of Hg or diastolic blood pressure above 15 mm of Hg from readings before pregnancy or in the first trimester.
2. Mild pre-eclampsia:
BP up to 170/110 mm of Hg in the absence of associated features.
3. Severe pre-eclampsia:
BP above 170/110 mm of Hg and along with features such as kidney impairment, thrombocytopenia, abnormal liver transaminase levels, persistent headache, epigastric tenderness or fetal compromise.
4. Essential (coincidental) hypertension:
Chronic underlying hypertension occurring before the onset of pregnancy or persisting after postpartum.
5. Pregnancy-aggravated hypertension:
Underlying hypertension which is worsened by pregnancy.To diagnose pre-eclampsia clinically, presence of one or more of the following symptoms are required along with a history of onset of hypertension after 20 weeks of gestation.
– Proteinuria: Above 300 mg/24 h or urine protein
reatinine ratio more than 30 mg/mmol.
– Renal insufficiency: serum/plasma creatinine above 0.09 mmol/L or oliguria.
– Liver disease: raised serum transaminases and severe epigastric or right upper quadrant pain.
– Neurological problems: convulsions (eclampsia); hyperreflexia with clonus; severe headaches with hyperreflexia; persistent visual disturbances (scotomata).
– Haematological disturbances like thrombocytopenia; disseminated intravascular coagulation; hemolysis. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman presents with moderately severe pain in her left groin and thigh. She had recently travelled by airplane from overseas and is at 18 weeks of gestation of her second pregnancy. The only incidence of trauma she can think of is when she hit her left knee on a table yesterday.
On physical examination, it is found that she has some swelling of her left ankle that is not present on the right side. Her first pregnancy was unremarkable except for development of some symptoms that were believed to be related to pelvic symphyseal separation around 28 weeks of gestation.
Which one of the following is the mostly cause for this patient's pain?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: deep venous Thrombosis (DVT) in her left leg
Explanation:For this pregnant patient who recently travelled overseas most likely has a deep venous thrombosis (DVT). It would also be expected that the patient would have oedema in the symptomatic leg and account for the swelling described.
Though they could cause unilateral leg pain, neither symphyseal separation nor sciatica due to a prolapsed intervertebral disc usually occur as early as 18 weeks of gestation. This patient’s symptoms also do not suggest either diagnosis.
Pain due to trauma would usually be maximal at the site where the trauma took place, which would be in the knee for this patient. Traumatic pain and house cleaning also would not cause the pain described or result in ankle swelling.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old female G1P1 presents with her husband because she has not been breastfeeding her baby 24 hours though she had previously stated she intended exclusive breastfeeding for the first 3 months. She feels sad most of the time and her mood has been very low for the past 2 weeks, she has trouble sleeping at night and feels tired all day. She complains that her husband doesn’t seem to know how to help. For the past 24 hours she feels like she is not fit to be a mother and doesn’t want to feed the baby anymore. She has been frightened by thoughts to harm herself and the baby. Her baby is 7 weeks old.
In addition to antidepressant medication, which of the following treatment is most appropriate for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Electroconvulsive therapy
Explanation:This patient presents because of significant mood changes since she gave birth to her child: she is sad most of times and she is having guilt feelings about her adequacy for motherhood- She is also complaining of insomnia, tiredness, and even some suicidal ideation. These symptoms are highly suggestive postpartum depression. This should be differentiated from postpartum blues, which usually present within the first 2 weeks and last for few days. This patient’s symptoms started 5 weeks postpartum. Postpartum depression usually presents within the first 6 weeks to the first year postpartum.
Postpartum depression is the most common complication of childbearing and affects the mother, the child, and relationship with the partner. It is diagnosed the same way as major depressive disorder in other patients. Since untreated postpartum depression can have long-term effects on the mother and the child, appropriate therapy should be undertaken as soon as possible- Antidepressant medications such as sertraline can be used to treat postpartum depression. In a patient who has suicidal ideation, electroconvulsive therapy has a more rapid and effective action than medication and should be considered in these patients.
→ Cognitive behavioural therapy is effective in women with mild to moderate postpartum depression; it would not be a good choice in this patient with suicidal ideation and at risk of harming the baby.
→ Estrogen therapy used alone or in combination with antidepressant, has been shown to significantly reduce the symptoms of postpartum depression; however, it would not be the most appropriate choice in a patient with suicidal ideation.
→ Peer support has shown equivocal results in various studies even though most postpartum patients report that lacking an intimate friend or confidant or facing social isolation are factors leading to depression.
→ Non-directive counselling also known as ”listening visits“ has been found to be effective in postpartum patients, though the studies that were conducted are deemed to be of small sample and larger studies still need to be done to validate these findings. It would not be an appropriate choice for this patient with suicidal ideation. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old mother with a 9-year-old child is considering having a second child. Her first pregnancy was complicated by puerperal psychosis. Following electroconvulsive therapy (ECT), she promptly recovered and has been well until now. She is in excellent health and her husband has been very supportive. According to patient files, she was noted to be an excellent mother.
What would be the most appropriate advice?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: There is a 15-20% chance of recurrence of psychosis postpartum.
Explanation:Puerperal psychosis seems to be mainly hereditary and closely associated with bipolar disorder especially the manic type, rather than being a distinct condition with a group of classical symptoms or course. Postpartum psychoses typically have an abrupt onset within 2 weeks of delivery and may have rapid progression of symptoms. Fortunately, it is generally a brief condition and responds well to prompt management. If the condition is threatening the mother and/or baby’s safety, hospital admission is warranted. A patient can present with a wide variety of psychotic symptoms ranging from delusion, passivity phenomenon, catatonia, and hallucinations. While depression and mania may be the predominating features, it is not surprising to see symptoms such as confusion and stupor. Although the rate of incidence is about 1 in 1000 pregnancies, it is seen in about 20% of women who previously had bipolar episodes prior to pregnancy. It has not been shown to be linked with factors such as twin pregnancies, stillbirth, breastfeeding or being a single parent. However, it might be more commonly seen in women who are first-time mothers and pregnancy terminations.
The risk of recurrence is 20%. Unfortunately, there is no specific treatment guideline but organic causes should first be ruled out. First generation/typical anti-psychotics are often associated with extrapyramidal symptoms. Nowadays, atypical antipsychotics such as risperidone or olanzapine can be used along with lithium which is a mood stabiliser. As of now, there hasn’t been any significant side effects as a result of second generation antipsychotic use in pregnancy. While women are usually advised to stop breast-feeding, it might be unnecessary except if the mother is being treated with lithium which has been reported to cause side effects on the infants in a few instances. ECT is considered to be highly efficacious for all types of postpartum psychosis and may be necessary if the mother’s condition is life-threatening to herself or/and the baby. If untreated, puerperal psychosis might persist for 6 months or even longer.
The options of saying ‘in view of her age and previous problem, further pregnancies are out of the question’ and so is ‘By all means start another pregnancy and see how she feels about it. If she has misgivings, then have the pregnancy terminated.’ are inappropriate.
As mentioned earlier, considering there is a 20% chance of recurrence it is not correct to say that since she had good outcomes with her first pregnancy, the risk of recurrence is minimal.
Anti-psychotics are not recommended to be used routinely both during pregnancy and lactation due to the absence of long-term research on children with intrauterine and breastmilk exposure to the drugs. Hence it is not right to conclude that ‘if she gets pregnant then she should take prophylactic antipsychotics throughout the pregnancy’ as it contradicts current guidelines. Each case should be individualised and the risks compared with the benefits to decide whether anti-psychotics should be given during pregnancy. It is important to obtain informed consent from both the mother and partner with documentation.
Should the mother deteriorates during the pregnancy that she no longer is capable of making decisions about treatment, then an application for temporary guardianship should be carried out to ensure that she can be continued on the appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 22-year-old G2P2 who is on her 7th day postpartum called her physician due to her concern of bleeding from the vagina. Upon interview, she described the bleeding to be light pink to bright red and compared with the first few days post-delivery, the bleeding was less heavy. There was also no fever or cramping pain reported by the patient.
Upon examination, it was observed that she is afebrile and her uterus is appropriately sized and non-tender. There was also the presence of about 10cc old, dark blood in her vagina and her cervix was closed.
Which of the following is considered the most appropriate treatment for the patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reassurance
Explanation:The postpartum period begins soon after the baby’s delivery and usually lasts six to eight weeks and ends when the mother’s body has nearly returned to its pre-pregnant state.
Bloody vaginal discharge (lochia rubra) is heavy for the first 3-4 days, and slowly it becomes watery in consistency and colour changes to pinkish-brown (lochia serosa). After the next 10-12 days, it changes to yellowish-white (lochia alba). Advise women to seek medical attention if heavy vaginal bleeding persists (soaking a pad or more in less than an hour). Women with heavy, persistent postpartum bleeding should be evaluated for complications such as retained placenta, uterine atony, rarely invasive placenta, or coagulation disorders. Endometritis may also occur, presenting as fever with no source, maybe accompanied by uterine tenderness and vaginal discharge. This usually requires intravenous antibiotics. This also should be explained and advise the mother to seek immediate medical attention.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 37-year-old female at her 33 weeks of gestation who sustains a road traffic accident at 90 km/hour, is taken to the emergency department.
On examination, she is found to be pale, with a heart rate of 112 bpm, blood pressure of 95/55 mm of Hg, respiratory rate of 18 breaths per minute and her oxygen saturation in room air is 95%. Fetal heart rate is audible at 102 bpm and her uterus is tense and tender, she denied having any direct trauma to the abdomen.
Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this given case?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Placental abruption
Explanation:This patient presents with signs and symptoms similar to clinical features of placental abruption.
Any trauma during the last trimester of pregnancy could be dangerous to both mother and fetus. By force of deceleration, motor vehicle accidents can result in placental separation. Also when subjected to strong acceleration-deceleration forces such as those during a motor vehicle crash uterus is thought to slightly change its shape. Since the placenta is not elastic and amniotic fluid is not compressible, such uterine distortion caused due to acceleration-deceleration or direct trauma will result in abruptio placentae due to shear stress at the utero-placental interface.
A painful, tender uterus which is often contracting is characteristic of placental abruption and the condition will lead to maternal hypovolemic hypotension and consequent fetal distress which is presented as fetal bradycardia and repetitive late decelerations. Vaginal bleeding, abdominal pain, contractions, uterine rigidity with tenderness, and a nonreassuring fetal heart rate (FHR) tracing are the clinical features diagnostic of abruption. However, a significant abruption can occasionally be asymptomatic or associated with minimal maternal symptoms in the absence of vaginal bleeding. Therefore the amount of vaginal bleeding is not always an appropriate indicator to the severity of placental abruption, this is because, in cases bleeding could be very severe or it may be concealed in the form of a hematoma in between the uterine wall and the placenta.
Sharp or blunt abdominal trauma can lead to uterine rupture or penetrating injury, since there is no reported abdominal trauma to the patient, uterine rupture is less likely to happen in this case. Severe abdominal pain with tenderness, cessation of contractions and loss of uterine tone are the most common symptoms characteristic of Uterine rupture. It will also be associated with mild to moderate vaginal bleeding along with fetal bradycardia or loss of heart sound. In this case uterus will be less tense and tender in comparison to placental abruption
Symptoms like low blood pressure, tachycardia and fetal bradycardia can be justified by ruptured spleen and liver laceration, but not the tense, tender and contracting uterus.
The diagnosis of placenta previa cannot be considered with the given clinical picture as it presents with sudden, painless bleeding of bright red blood and there will not be any uterine tenderness.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 34-year-old woman, known to have had a history of mild pulmonary hypertension, was admitted to the labour ward. She is at 36 weeks of pregnancy and is keen to have her baby delivered via caesarean section.
Which of the following is the most appropriate advice to give to the patient given her situation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Caesarean section
Explanation:Pulmonary hypertension (PH) is an increase of blood pressure in the pulmonary artery, pulmonary vein, or pulmonary capillaries, leading to shortness of breath, dizziness, fainting, and other symptoms, all of which are exacerbated by exertion. PH in pregnancy carries a 25–56% maternal mortality rate with a mixture of intrapartum and postpartum deaths.
Current recommendations for management of PH in pregnancy include termination of pregnancy if diagnosed early, or utilizing a controlled interventional approach with early nebulized prostanoid therapy and early elective caesarean section under regional anaesthesia. Other recommended therapies for peripartum management of PH include sildenafil and nitric oxide.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old presented with vaginal bleeding after a 6-week duration of amenorrhea. The bleeding was described to be heavier than ever compared with her previous periods. Upon interview, it was noted that her menstrual cycles was ranging from 4 to 6 weeks.
A urine pregnancy test was performed and the result was positive. Upon vaginal examination, it was noted that her cervical os is closed. An endovaginal ultrasound was performed and the results showed an endometrial thickness of 12mm and an empty uterus. There was also clear adnexa, and no fluid in the pouch of Douglas was seen. A cyst in the corpus luteum of the left ovary was also noted.
Which of the following is most likely the diagnosis of the patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Complete abortion
Explanation:Complete abortion is defined as a ‘complete’ passage of all conception products.
The first day of the last menstrual period and findings on any prior ultrasounds should be determined to establish the gestational age and location of the pregnancy. An abdominal exam should be performed to assess for peritoneal signs that might indicate a ruptured ectopic pregnancy or extra-uterine extension of a septic abortion. Lastly, a pelvic exam is central to the evaluation of suspected miscarriage. It should include both speculum-facilitated visualization of the cervix and a bimanual examination to assess for cervical motion tenderness that may indicate a septic abortion or an adnexal mass that may herald ectopic pregnancy.
Early pregnancy loss takes many different forms. In missed abortion, there is asymptomatic or ‘missed’ death of the embryo or foetus without sufficient uterine contractions to push out the products of conception. In contrast, threatened abortion is characterized by symptomatic, ‘threatened’ expulsion of the products of conception, yet the cervical os remains closed, and the embryo or foetus remains viable.
Although there is a lack of consensus, complete abortion is often defined as the absence of a gestational sac on ultrasound with an endometrial stripe thickness of less than 30 mm.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 26
Incorrect
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In which one of the following circumstances, is it least likely for a foetus to be in a transverse lie?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A normal term foetus
Explanation:Normal position of the foetus in relationship to the mother is always a longitudinal lie and a cephalic presentation. Transverse lie means that the baby is sideways. The foetus lies transverse till 26-28th week of gestation, after which it usually changes its position from transverse to a longitudinal lie with head down. A transverse lie can occur in conditions like grand multiparity, preterm foetus, placenta previa and pelvic contraction.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old pregnant woman visits to you at 17 weeks of gestation with complaint of eruption or rash, followed by a 2-day history of malaise, low grade fever and rhinorrhea. You suspect measles and order serology tests for her.
Serology report shows that lgM against measles is positive with a negative lgG.
Among the following which is the most appropriate next step in management of this case?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Contact tracing
Explanation:The given case scenario describes a typical case of measles in a pregnant woman, which is confirmed by serologic studies. Positive lgM in serology is suggestive of acute infection, while a negative lgG confirms that the infection is in early phase without any seroconversion.
Conservative management of the symptoms and its potential complications is the only management plan therapeutically available after contracting measles. ‘Notification’ and contact tracing are the other very important issues to be considered.
Measles is a notifiable disease and healthcare professionals are mandated on reporting all the identified cases of measles to the authorized public health units. The main objective of this notification is to conduct a contact tracing.MMR vaccine is not useful once measles is contracted, as the vaccine is used for prevention of measles and as prophylaxis in post-exposure cases. For those with contact to a case of measles, MMR vaccine within 72 hours of contact may have a protective effect, but all measles-containing vaccines like MMR and MM RV are contraindicated throughout pregnancy even as prophylaxis.
As the circulating maternal antibodies will cross placenta and enters into the fetal circulation, a positive test does not confirm infection in the fetus. So serologic testing of the fetus is not useful.
NHIG is not useful in treating an established case of measles, as it is used as a post-measles exposure prophylactic for patients such as pregnant women, premature babies, etc who are contraindicated to MMR vaccine.
As both symptoms and lgM levels indicate measles infection, repeating measles-specific serologic test is not useful in this case. In general no test is indicated, unless its result has an impact on the further management of the case or any prognostic value.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman at 35 weeks gestation who is gravida 2 para 1, presented to the labour and delivery department since she has been having regular, painful contractions over the past 3 hours. Upon interview and history-taking, it was noted that the patient has had no prenatal care during this pregnancy. She also has no chronic medical conditions, and her only surgery was a low transverse caesarean delivery 2 years ago.
Upon admission, her cervix is 7 cm dilated and 100% effaced with the fetal head at +2 station. Fetal heart rate tracing is category 1.
Administration of epidural analgesia was performed, and the patient was relieved from pain due to the contractions. There was also rupture of membranes which resulted in bright-red amniotic fluid.
Further examination was done and her results were:
Blood pressure is 130/80 mmHg
Pulse is 112/min
Which of the following is most likely considered as the cause of the fetal heart rate tracing?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Fetal blood loss
Explanation:Fetal heart rate tracings (FHR) under category I include all of the following:
– baseline rate 110– 160 bpm
– baseline FHR variability moderate
– accelerations present or absent
– late or variable decelerations absent
– early decelerations present or absentThe onset of fetal bleeding is marked by a tachycardia followed by a bradycardia with intermittent accelerations or decelerations. Small amounts of vaginal bleeding associated with FHR abnormalities should raise the suspicion of fetal haemorrhage. This condition demands prompt delivery and immediate reexpansion of the neonatal blood volume.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 25 year-old lady presented with complaints of generalised pruritis during the 3rd trimester of her pregnancy. She was diagnosed as a case of intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy. Which one of the following factors carries the greatest risk to the foetus in this disease?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Perinatal mortality
Explanation:Intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy can affect both mother and foetus, however it is more harmful for the foetus. Amongst foetuses, there is an increased risk of perinatal mortality, meconium aspiration, premature delivery and post partum haemorrhage. Exact cause of fetal death cannot be predicted accurately but it is not related to intra uterine growth retardation or placental insufficiency. The liver can be affected in the mother leading to generalized pruritis but no evidence of fetal hepatic dysfunction has been found.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 30
Incorrect
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An otherwise healthy 21 year old primigravida comes to your office for a routine visit at 16 weeks gestation. She has had a normal pregnancy to date, and her only medication is a multivitamin with 0.4 mg folic acid. You order a maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein level. Adjusted for gestational age, maternal weight, and race, the results are significantly elevated. Which one of the following would you now recommend?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Fetal ultrasonography
Explanation:A 16-week visit is advised for all pregnant women to offer an alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) screening for neural tube defects and Down syndrome- An AFP level 2-5 times the median value for normal controls at the same gestational age is considered elevate- Approximately 5%-10% of patients who undergo AFP screening will have an elevated level, and most of these women will have normal foetuses. Fetal ultrasonography should be performed to detect multiple gestation, fetal demise, or fetal anomalies (neural tube defects, ventral abdominal wall defects, and urinary tract anomalies) as well as to confirm gestational age, as all of these factors are associated with elevated AFP levels. Amniocentesis is offered if the ultrasonography does not indicate the reason for the elevated AFP. Chorionic villus sampling is offered in the evaluation of suspected chromosomal anomalies as an adjunct to amniocentesis. Serum hCG would be indicated in the workup of suspected Down syndrome, where the AFP would be low, not elevate- The hCG level would be expected to be over 2-5 multiples of the mean (MoM) with Down syndrome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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